NEET-UG 2000

AIPMT 2000

Physics (Maximum Marks: 188)
  • This section contains 47 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
Which pair do not have equal dimensions ?
(A)
Energy and torque
(B)
Force and impulse
(C)
Angular momentum and Planck constant
(D)
Elastic modulus and pressure.
(B)

Solution

Dimension of force = [MLT-2]

Dimension of impulse = [MLT-1]

So both of them have different dimensions.
Q.2
Motion of a particle is given by equation s = (3t3 + 7t2 + 14t + 8) m. The value of acceleration of the particle at t = 1 sec is
(A)
10 m/s2
(B)
32 m/s2
(C)
23 m/s2
(D)
16 m/s2
(B)

Solution

Given, s = (3t3 + 7t2 + 14t + 8)

= 9t2 + 14t + 14

= 18t + 14

= 18t + 14

At t = 1, a = 18 1 + 14 = 32 m/s2
Q.3
A man is slipping on a frictionless inclined plane and a bag falls down from the same height. Then the velocity of both is related as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
and can't be related.
(C)

Solution

Vertical acceleration in both the cases is g, whereas horizontal velocity is constant.
Q.4
Two projectiles of same mass and with same velocity are thrown at an angle 60o and 30o with the horizontal, then which will remain same
(A)
time of flight
(B)
range of projectile
(C)
maximum height acquired
(D)
all of them.
(B)

Solution

Given, u1 = u2 = u, = 60º, = 30º

In 1st case, we know that range




In 2nd case, when = 30° , then


Q.5
The width of river is 1 km. The velocity of boat is 5 km/hr. The boat covered the width of river in shortest time 15 min. Then the velocity of river stream is
(A)
3 km/hr
(B)
4 km/hr
(C)
km/hr
(D)
km/hr.
(A)

Solution



Q.6
Two masses as shown in the figure are suspended from a massless pulley. The acceleration of the system when masses are left free is

AIPMT 2000 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 19 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2000 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 19 English Explanation Let T be the tension in the string.

10g – T = 10a     ....(i)

T – 5g = 5a             ....(ii)

Adding (i) and (ii),

Q.7
A body of mass 3 kg hits a wall at an angle of 60o and returns at the same angle. The impact time was 0.2 sec. The force exerted on the wall

AIPMT 2000 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 20 English
(A)
150 N
(B)
50 N
(C)
100 N
(D)
75 N.
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2000 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 20 English Explanation

Change in momentum = 2 × 3 × 10 × sin60°

=

Force = Change in momentum/Impact time

Q.8
If N and m/s, then instantaneous power is
(A)
195 watt
(B)
45 watt
(C)
75 watt
(D)
100 watt.
(B)

Solution

P =

= 120 – 60 – 15 = 45 watts.
Q.9
A mass of 1 kg is thrown up with a velocity of 100 m/s. After 5 seconds, it explodes into two parts. One part of mass 400 g comes down with a velocity 25 m/s. The velocity of other part is (Take g = 10 ms2)
(A)
40 m/s
(B)
50 m/s
(C)
100 m/s
(D)
60 m/s
(C)

Solution

Velocity after 5 sec,

v = u – gt = 100 – 10 × 5 = 50 m/s

By conservation of momentum

1 × 50 = 0.4 × (–25) + 0.6 × v'

60 = 0.6 × v' v' = 100 m/s upwards
Q.10
For a hollow cylinder and a solid cylinder rolling without slipping on an inclined plane, then which of these reaches earlier
(A)
solid cylinder
(B)
hollow cylinder
(C)
both simultaneously
(D)
can't say anything.
(A)

Solution

Solid sphere reaches the bottom first because for solid cylinder , and for hollow cylinder

Acceleration down the inclined plane

Solid cylinder has greater acceleration, so it reaches the bottom first.
Q.11
For the adjoining diagram, the correct relation between I1, I2, and I3 is, (I-moment of inertia)

AIPMT 2000 Physics - Rotational Motion Question 30 English
(A)
I1 > I2
(B)
I2 > I1
(C)
I3 > I1
(D)
I3 > I2
(B)

Solution

As effective distance of mass from BC is greater than the effective distance of mass from AB, therefore I2 > I1.
Q.12
As shown in the figure at point O a mass is performing vertical circular motion. The average velocity of the particle is increased, then at which point will the string break

AIPMT 2000 Physics - Rotational Motion Question 28 English
(A)
A
(B)
B
(C)
C
(D)
D
(B)

Solution

When a sphere is rotating in a vertical circle, it exerts the maximum outward pull when it is at the lowest point B.

Therefore, tension at B is maximum =

So, the string breaks at point B.
Q.13
A body of weight 72 N moves from the surface of earth at a height half of the radius of earth, then gravitational force exerted on it will be
(A)
36 N
(B)
32 N
(C)
144 N
(D)
50 N
(B)

Solution





Q.14
For a planet having mass equal to mass of the earth but radius is one fourth of radius of the earth. Then escape velocity for this planet will be
(A)
11.2 km/sec
(B)
22.4 km/sec
(C)
5.6 km/sec
(D)
44.8 km/sec.
(B)

Solution









= 2 11.2 = 22.4 km/s
Q.15
Gravitational force is required for
(A)
stirring of liquid
(B)
convection
(C)
conduction
(D)
radiation.
(B)

Solution

Gravitational force is required for convection
Q.16
A black body has maximum wavelength m at 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at 3000 K will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

According to Wein's displacement law,

= 2.88 × 10–3

When T = 2000 K,

(2000) = 2.88 × 10–3   ....(1)

When T = 3000 K,

(3000) = 2.88 × 10–3    ....(2)

Dividing (1) by (2),





Q.17
The (W/Q) of a Carnot engine is 1/6, now the temperature of sink is reduced by 62oC, then this ratio becomes twice, therefore the initial temperature of the sink and source are respectively
(A)
33oC, 67oC
(B)
37oC, 99oC
(C)
67oC, 33oC
(D)
97 K, 37 K
(B)

Solution

Initially the efficiency of the engine was which increases to when the sink temperature reduces by 62º C.

when T2 = sink temperature , T1 = source temperature



Secondly,






&
Q.18
To find out degree of freedom, the expansion is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution



where f is the degree of freedom

Q.19
Two masses A and B are hung from two strings of length A and B respectively. They are executing SHM with frequency relation A = 2B, then relation
(A)
does not depend on mass
(B)
, does not depend on mass
(C)
and
(D)
and .
(A)

Solution







, which does not depend on mass.
Q.20
The bob of simple pendulum having length , is displaced from mean position to an angular position q with respect to vertical. If it is released, then velocity of bob at equilibrium position
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2000 Physics - Oscillations Question 24 English Explanation

In





At point, C the velocity of bob = 0. The vertical acceleration = g



Q.21
A string is cut into three parts, having fundamental frequencies n1, n2, n3 respectively. Then original fundamental frequency n related by the expression as
(A)
(B)
(C)
n n1 + n2 + n3
(D)
(A)

Solution

As



Q.22
The equations of two waves acting in perpendicular directions are given as
x = cos(t +) and y = cos(t + ), where = + , the resultant wave represents
(A)
a parabola
(B)
a circle
(C)
an ellipse
(D)
a straight line
(B)

Solution

Given : x = acos(t + )
and y = acos(t + )     ...(i)

where,



= –asin(t + ) ...(ii)

Given the two waves are acting in perpendicular direction with the same frequency and phase difference /2.

From equations (i) and (ii),
x2 + y2 = a2
which represents the equation of a circle.
Q.23
Two stationary sources each emitting waves of wavelength , an observer moves from one source to another with velovcity u. Then number of beats heard by him
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution



Number of beats =
Q.24
A charge Q is situated at the corner of a cube, the electric flux passed through all the six faces of the cube is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

Using Gauss’s law, the total electric flux through a closed surface is

Here, the charge is placed at a corner of the cube, not at the centre.

To apply Gauss’s law easily, imagine identical cubes joined together so that the charge comes at the common corner and becomes the centre of the larger cube.

Now for the larger cube:

  • the charge enclosed =

  • so total flux through the larger cube is

Since the larger cube is made of identical small cubes, by symmetry the flux is equally shared by them.

So, flux through one small cube is

Hence, the electric flux through all the six faces of the given cube is

So, the correct answer is:

Q.25
Electric field at centre O of semicircle of radius having linear charge density given as

AIPMT 2000 Physics - Electrostatics Question 33 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2000 Physics - Electrostatics Question 33 English Explanation
Considering symmetric elements each of length dl at A and B, we note that electric fields perpendicular to PO are cancelled and those along PO are added. The electric field due to an element of length along PO.






Net electric field at O







Q.26
The potentiometer is best for measuring voltage, as
(A)
it has a sensitive galvanometer and gives null deflection
(B)
it has wire of high resistance
(C)
it measures p.d. in closed circuit
(D)
it measures p.d in open circuit.
(A)

Solution

When we measure the emf of a cell by the potentiometer then no current draws in the circuit in zero-deflection condition i.e., cell is in open circuit. Thus, in this condition the actual value of a cell is found. In this way potentiometer is equivalent to an ideal voltmeter of infinite resistance.

Note: The emf by the potentiometer is measured from null method in which zero deflection position is found on the wire.
Q.27
Two bulbs of (40 W, 200 V), and (100 W, 200 V). Then correct relation for their resistances
(A)
R40 < R100
(B)
R40 > R100
(C)
R40 = R100
(D)
no relation can be predicted.
(B)

Solution





Q.28
A car battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance ., receives a current of 60 amp, from external source, then terminal potential difference of battery is
(A)
12 V
(B)
9 V
(C)
15 V
(D)
20 V
(C)

Solution



Q.29
The net resistance of the circuit between A and B is

AIPMT 2000 Physics - Current Electricity Question 51 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

This is a balanced Wheatstone’s bridge so no current flows through the 7 resistor.



Q.30
A capacitor is charged with a battery and energy stored is U. After disconnecting battery another capacitor of same capacity is connected in parallel to the first capacitor. Then energy stored in each capacitor is
(A)
(B)
U/4
(C)
4U
(D)
2U
(B)

Solution

Let q be the charge on each capacitor.

Energy stored,

Now, when battery is disconnected and another capacitor of same capacity is connected in parallel to the first capacitor, then voltage across each capacitor,

Energy stored =
Q.31
The magnetic field at centre, P will be

AIPMT 2000 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 29 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Magnetic field due to 5A = =

Magnetic field due to 2.5A = =

Resultant Magnetic field =
Q.32
The frequency order for -rays (a), X-rays (b), UV rays (c) is
(A)
b a c
(B)
a b c
(C)
c b a
(D)
a c b
(B)

Solution

The frequency of radiations of waves are : AIPMT 2000 Physics - Electromagnetic Waves Question 17 English Explanation
Q.33
A bubble in glass slab ( = 1.5) when viewed from one side appears at 5 cm and 2 cm from other side, then thickness of slab is
(A)
3.75 cm
(B)
3 cm
(C)
10.5 cm
(D)
2.5 cm.
(C)

Solution

From one side,

From other side, = 1.5 x = 3

t = 10.5 cm
Q.34
A tall man of height 6 feet, want to see his full image. Then required minimum length of the mirror will be
(A)
12 feet
(B)
3 feet
(C)
6 feet
(D)
any length
(B)

Solution

The minimum mirror length should be half of the height of man.
Q.35
For a plano convex lens ( = 1.5) has radius of curvature 10 cm. It is silvered on its plane surface. Find focal length after silvering
(A)
10 cm
(B)
20 cm
(C)
15 cm
(D)
25 cm
(A)

Solution



= =

f = 20 cm

When plane surface is silvered, F = = 10 cm
Q.36
Rainbow is formed due to
(A)
scattering and refraction
(B)
internal reflection and dispersion
(C)
reflection only
(D)
diffraction and dispersion.
(B)

Solution

Rainbow is formed due to combination of internal reflection and dispersion.
Q.37
Maximum frequency of emission is obtained for the transition
(A)
n = 2 to n = 1
(B)
n = 6 to n = 2
(C)
n = 1 to n = 2
(D)
n = 2 to n = 6.
(A)

Solution



Maximum frequency of emission happens when n1 = 1 and n2 = 2
Q.38
The life span of atomic hydrogen is
(A)
fraction of one second
(B)
one year
(C)
one hour
(D)
one day
(A)

Solution

Atomic hydrogen is unstable and it has life period of a fraction of a second.
Q.39
The relation between and T1/2 as (T1/2 half life)
(A)
T1/2 =
(B)
T1/2 ln2 =
(C)
T1/2 =
(D)
( + T1/2) = ln2
(A)

Solution

The relation is :

T1/2 =
Q.40
When an electron does transition from n = 4 to n = 2, then emitted line spectrum will be
(A)
first line of Lyman series
(B)
second line of Balmer series
(C)
first line of Balmer series
(D)
second line of Paschen series.
(B)

Solution

Jump to second orbit leads to Balmer series. The jump from 4th orbit shall give rise to second line of Balmer series.
Q.41
Nuclear fission is best explained by
(A)
liquid droplet theory
(B)
Yukawa -meson theory
(C)
independent particle model of the nucleus
(D)
proton-proton cycle.
(A)

Solution

According to liquid drop model of nucleus, an excited nucleus breaks into lighter nuclei just like an excited drop breaks into tiny drops.
Q.42
For the given reaction, the particle X is
(A)
neutron
(B)
anti neutrino
(C)
neutrino
(D)
proton
(C)

Solution

The particle X is neutrino.
Q.43
Who evaluated the mass of electron infirectly with help of charge
(A)
Thomson
(B)
Millikan
(C)
Rutherford
(D)
Newton
(A)

Solution

Thomson evaluated the mass of electron infirectly with help of charge.
Q.44
By photoelectric effect, Einstein proved
(A)
E = h
(B)
K.E. = mv2
(C)
E = mc2
(D)
E =
(A)

Solution

By photoelectric effect, Einstein proved E = h.
Q.45
From the following diode circuit, which diode is in forward biased condition
(A)
AIPMT 2000 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 41 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2000 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 41 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2000 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 41 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2000 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 41 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

A diode is said to be forward biased if p-type semiconductor of p-n junction is at positive potential with respect to n-type semiconductor of p-n junction. It is so for circuit (a).
Q.46
The correct relation for , for a transistor
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

= = = =
Q.47
The cations and anions are arranged in alternate form in
(A)
metallic crystal
(B)
ionic crystal
(C)
covalent crystal
(D)
semi-conductor crystal.
(B)

Solution

In an Ionic crystal, the cations and anions are arranged in alternate form.
Chemistry (Maximum Marks: 196)
  • This section contains 49 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
Volume of CO2 obtained by the complete decomposition of 9.85 g of BaCO3 is
(A)
2.24 L
(B)
1.118 L
(C)
0.84 L
(D)
0.56 L
(B)

Solution

BaCO3 BaO + CO2

197.34 g 22.4 L at N.T.P

9.85 g
Q.2
Oxidation numbers of A, B, C are + 2, +5 and 2 respectively. Possible formula of compound is
(A)
A2(BC2)2
(B)
A3(BC4)2
(C)
A2(BC3)2
(D)
A3(B2C)2
(B)

Solution

In A3(BC4)2, (+2) 3 + 2[+5+4(-2)]

+6 + 10 -16 = 0

Oxidation numbers of A, B, C are + 2, +5 and 2 respectively.
Q.3
For given energy, E = 3.03 1019 Joules corresponding wavelength is (h = 6.626 1034 J sec, c = 3 108 m/sec)
(A)
65.6 nm
(B)
6.56 nm
(C)
3.4 nm
(D)
656 nm
(D)

Solution

E =

=

= 656 nm
Q.4
Isoelectronic species are
(A)
CO, CN, NO+, C
(B)
CO, CN, NO,
(C)
(D)
CO, CN, NO, C2
(A)

Solution

No. of electrons CO = CN- = NO+ = = 14, So these are isoelectronics.
Q.5
Which of the following expressions correctly represents the relationship between the average molar kinetic energy, KE, of CO and N2 molecules at the same temperature ?
(A)
KECO = KEN2
(B)
KECO > KEN2
(C)
KECO < KEN2
(D)
cannot be predicted unless volumes of the gases are given
(A)

Solution

Average molar kinetic energy =

As temperature is same hence average kinetic energy of CO and N2 will be same.
Q.6
For any reversible reaction, if we increase concentration of the reactants, then effect on equilibrium constant
(A)
depends on amount of concentration
(B)
unchange
(C)
decrease
(D)
increase
(B)

Solution

Equilibrium constant of a reaction is independent of the concentration of species involved in the reaction but dependent only on the temperature.
Q.7
Equilibrium constant Kp for following reaction
MgCO3(s) MgO(s) + CO2(g)
(A)
Kp = PCO2
(B)
Kp = PCO2
(C)
Kp =
(D)
Kp =
(A)

Solution

Kp = PCO2

As solids do not exert pressure, so their partial pressure is taken as unity.
Q.8
Which statement is wrong about pH and H+?
(A)
pH of neutral water is not zero.
(B)
Adding 1 N solution of CH3COOH and 1 N solution of NaOH, pH will be seven.
(C)
[H+] of dilute and hot H2SO4 is more than concentrated and cold H2SO4
(D)
Mixing solution of CH3COOH and HCl. pH will be less than 7.
(B)

Solution

CH3COOH is weak acid while NaOH is strong base, so one equivalent of NaOH can not be neutralized with one equivalent of CH3COOH. Hence the solution of one equivalent of each does not have pH value as 7. Its pH will be towards basic side as NaOH is a strong base hence conc. of OH will be more than the conc. of H+.
Q.9
Conjugate acid of NH2 is
(A)
NH4OH
(B)
NH4+
(C)
NH2
(D)
NH3
(D)

Solution

NH3 after losing a proton (H+) gives NH2. So, NH3 is the conjugate acid of NH2.

Note : Conjugate acid-base pair differ only by a proton.
Q.10
From the colligative properties of solution, which one is the best method for the determination of molecular weight of proteins and polymers?
(A)
Osmotic pressure
(B)
Lowering in vapour pressure
(C)
Lowering in freezing point
(D)
Elevation in boiling point
(A)

Solution

Molecular masses of polymers are best determined by osmotic pressure method . Firstly because other colligative properties give so low values that they cannot be measured accurately and secondly, osmotic pressure measurements can be made at room temperature and do not require heating which may change the nature of the polymer.
Q.11
The entropy change in the fusion of one mole of a solid melting at 27oC (latent heat of fusion is 2930 J mol–1) is :
(A)
9.77 J/mol-K
(B)
10.77 J/mol-K
(C)
9.07 J/mol-K
(D)
0.977 J/mol-K
(A)

Solution



=

= 9.77 J/mol-K
Q.12
2Zn + O2 2ZnO;  Go = 616 J
2Zn + S2 2ZnS;  Go = 293 J
S2 + 2O2 2SO2;   Go = 408 J
Go for the following reaction
2ZnS + 3O2   2ZnO + 2SO2 is
(A)
731 J
(B)
1317 J
(C)
501 J
(D)
+ 731 J
(A)

Solution

2Zn + O2 2ZnO;  Go = 616 J ....(1)
2ZnS 2Zn + O2;  Go = 293 J.....(2)
S2 + 2O2 2SO2;   Go = 408 J .....(3)

Go for the reaction can be obtained by adding (1), (2) and (3)

Go = 293 - 616 - 408 = -731 J
Q.13
For the reaction,
C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
which one is true
(A)
H = E RT
(B)
H = E + RT
(C)
H = E + 2RT
(D)
H = E 2RT
(A)

Solution

As we know, H = E + ng RT

Now, ng = Number of gaseous moles of products – number of gaseous moles of reactions

= 2 – 3 = – 1

H = E + (–1) RT

H = E – RT
Q.14
Cell reaction is spontaneous when
(A)
Go is negative
(B)
Go is positive
(C)
Eored is positive
(D)
Eored is negative
(A)

Solution

For spontaneous reaction Go = – ve and

Eocell = + ve

as Go = – nFEocell

where, n = number of electrons taking part

Eo = emf of cell

F = Faraday constant
Q.15
For the disproportionation of copper
2Cu+   Cu2+ + Cu, Eo is
(Given Eo for Cu2+/Cu is 0.34 V and
Eo for Cu2+/Cu+ is 0.15 V.)
(A)
0.49 V
(B)
0.19 V
(C)
0.38 V
(D)
0.38 V
(C)

Solution

Cu2+ + 2e Cu; E°1 = 0.34 V .....(1)

Cu2+ + e Cu+ ; E°2 = 0.15 V.....(2)

Cu+ + e Cu; E°3 = ? .....(3)

Go1 = -20.34F

and Go2 = -10.15F

and Go3 = -13F

Also, Go1 = Go2 + Go3

-0.68F = -0.15F - E°3 F

3 = 0 68 - 0 15 = 0 53 V

cell = 0.53 - 0.15 = 0.38 V
Q.16
Equivalent conductances of Ba2+ and Cl ions are 127 and 76 ohm1 cm1 eq1 respectively. Equivalent conductance of BaCl2 at infinite dilution is
(A)
139.5
(B)
101.5
(C)
203
(D)
279
(A)

Solution

According to Kohlrausch’s law, the equivalent conductance of BaCl2 at infinite dilution,

of BaCl2 = of Ba2+ + of Cl-

of BaCl2 = = 139 5
Q.17
For the reaction H+ + BrO + 3Br 5Br2 + H2O
which of the following relation correctly represents the consumption and formation of products.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution



Q.18
How enzymes increases the rate of reactions
(A)
by lowering activation energy
(B)
by increaing activation energy
(C)
by changing equilibrium constant
(D)
by forming enzyme substrate complex.
(A)

Solution

Enzymes act like catalyst in biochemical reactions. Presence of an enzyme increases the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy of the reactant.
Q.19
A 300 grams radioactive sample at initial half life is 3 hours. After 18 hours remaining quantity
(A)
4.68 gram
(B)
2.34 gram
(C)
3.34 gram
(D)
9.37 gram
(A)

Solution

No. of half life’s gone = = 6

N0 = 300 g

Nt = N0

=

=
Q.20
Cation and anion combines in a crystal to form following type of compound
(A)
ionic
(B)
metallic
(C)
covalent
(D)
dipole-dipole.
(A)

Solution

We know that electrostatic force is that binds the oppositely charged ions which are formed by transfer of electron from one atom to another is called ionic bond. We also know that cation and anion are oppositely charged particles therefore they form ionic bond in crystal.
Q.21
In cube of any crystal A-atom placed at every corners and B-atom placed at every centre of face. The formula of compound is
(A)
AB
(B)
AB3
(C)
A2B2
(D)
A2B3
(B)

Solution

A atoms are at 8 corners of the cube

No. of A atoms per unit cell = 8 = 1

B atoms are at the face centre of six faces.

No. of B atoms per unit cell = 6 = 3

Thus, formula of compound = AB3
Q.22
Which one of the following method is commonly used method for destruction of colloid?
(A)
Dialysis
(B)
Condensation
(C)
Filteration by animal membrane
(D)
By adding electrolyte
(D)

Solution

By adding electrolytes the colloidal particles are precipitated. The electrolytes neutralise the charge of colloids leading to their coagulation and thus destroy the colloid.
Q.23
Which statement is wrong ?
(A)
Bond energy of F2 > Cl2
(B)
Electronegativity of F > Cl
(C)
F is more oxidising than Cl
(D)
Electron affinity of Cl > F
(A)

Solution

Bond energy generally decreases on moving from top to bottom along a group. It happens due to fact that size increases on moving down the group and thus, the two nuclei are far apart and less capable of holding the two atoms together.

But in case of F2 molecule due to more repulsion in between non-bonding electron pair (2p) of two fluorines (due to small size of F-atom) in comparison to non-bonding electron pair (3p) in chlorine, the bond energy of F2 is less than Cl2.

BE(F2) = 158.5 kJ/mole and

BE(Cl2)= 242.6 kJ/mole
Q.24
Right order of dissociation energy N2 and N2+ is
(A)
N2 > N2+
(B)
N2 = N2+
(C)
N2+ > N2
(D)
none
(A)

Solution

has 14 electrons.

Moleculer orbital configuration of

=

Nb = 10

Na = 4

BO = = 3

N2+ has 13 electrons.

Moleculer orbital configuration of N2+

=

Nb = 9

Na = 4

BO = = 2.5

As the bond order in N2 is more than N2+ so the dissociation energy of N2 is higher than N2+.
Q.25
Which species does not exhibit paramagnetism?
(A)
N2+
(B)
O2
(C)
CO
(D)
NO
(C)

Solution

Those species which have unpaired electrons are called paramagnetic species.

And those species which have no unpaired electrons are called diamagnetic species.

(A) N2+ has 13 electrons.

Moleculer orbital configuration of N2+

=

Here 1 unpaired electrons present, so it is paramagnetic.

(B) Molecular orbital configuration of (17 electrons) is



Here 1 unpaired electrons present, so it is paramagnetic.

(A) CO has 14 electrons.

Moleculer orbital configuration of CO

=

Here 0 unpaired electrons present, so it is diamagnetic.

(D) Molecular orbital configuration of NO (15 electrons) is



Here 1 unpaired electrons present, so it is paramagnetic.
Q.26
d p bond present in
(A)
CO32
(B)
PO43-
(C)
NO3
(D)
NO2
(B)

Solution

In PO43–, P atom has vacant d-orbitals, thus it can form p - d bond. ‘N’ and ‘C’ have no vacant ‘d’ orbital in their valence shell, so they cannot form such bond.
Q.27
Which compound has planar structure?
(A)
XeF4
(B)
XeOF2
(C)
XeO2F2
(D)
XeO4
(A)

Solution

XeF4 is sp3d2 hybridised and it is square planar : AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 45 English Explanation
Q.28
Which compound is electron deficient?
(A)
BeCl2
(B)
BCl3
(C)
CCl4
(D)
PCl5
(B)

Solution

In BCl3 the central atom ‘B’ is sp2 hybridised and contains only ‘six’ electrons in its valence shell. Therefore it is electron deficient.
Q.29
Which of the following shows maximum number of oxidation states?
(A)
Cr
(B)
Fe
(C)
Mn
(D)
V
(C)

Solution

Mn : [Ar] 3d54s2

Shows +2, +3, +4, +5, +6 & +7 oxidation states.
Q.30
Which ion is colourless?
(A)
Cr4+
(B)
Se3+
(C)
Ti3+
(D)
V3+
(B)

Solution

If the transition metal ion has unpaired electron then it shows colour.

Sc3+ : [Ar]18 3d04s0

Ti3+ : [Ar]18 3d14s0

Cr4+ : [Ar]18 3d24s0

V3+ : [Ar]18 3d24s0

Hence, Sc3+ do not contain unpaired electron and hence it will not undergo d – d transition and do not show colour.
Q.31
In quantitative analysis of second group in laboratory, H2S gas is passed in acidic medium for precipitation. When Cu2+ react with KCN, then for product, true statement is
(A)
K2[Cu(CN)4] more soluble
(B)
K2[Cd(CN)4] less stable
(C)
K2[Cu(CN)2] less stable
(D)
K2[Cd(CN)3] more stable
(C)

Solution

K3[Cu(CN)2] = 3(+1)+x+2(-1) = 0

x = -1

the oxidation no. of 'Cu' is -1 (-ve), so this complex is unstable so it is not formed.
Q.32
Shape of Fe(CO)5 is
(A)
octahedral
(B)
square planar
(C)
trigonal bipyramidal
(D)
square pyramidal.
(C)

Solution

In Fe(CO)5, the Fe-atom is dsp3 hybridised and has shape of trigonal bipyramidal.

26Fe = [Ar]3d64s2
AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 42 English Explanation 1
AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 42 English Explanation 2
Q.33
Which complex compound will give four isomers?
(A)
[Fe(en)3]Cl3
(B)
[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(C)
[Fe(PPh3)3NH3ClBr]Cl
(D)
[Co(PPh3)3Cl]Cl3
(B)

Solution

Complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl show 4 different isomerism.

AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 41 English Explanation
Q.34
Dihedral angle in staggered form of ethane is
(A)
0o
(B)
12o
(C)
60o
(D)
180o
(C)

Solution

The staggered form of ethane has the following structure and the dihedral angle is 60o, which means ‘H’ atoms are at an angle of 60o to each other. AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 20 English Explanation
Q.35
2-Butene shows geometrical isomerism due to
(A)
restricted rotation about double bond
(B)
free rotation about double bond
(C)
free rotation about single bond
(D)
chiral carbon
(A)

Solution

Due to restricted rotation about double bond, 2-butene shows geometrical isomerism. AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 21 English Explanation
Q.36
Which is maximum stable?
(A)
1-Butene
(B)
cis-2-Butene
(C)
trans-2-Butene
(D)
All have same stability.
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 22 English Explanation

This is most stable as the repulsion between two methyl groups is least.
Q.37
In Friedel-Crafts reaction , toluene can be prepared by
(A)
C6H6 + CH3Cl
(B)
C6H5Cl + CH4
(C)
C6H6 + CH2Cl2
(D)
C6H6 + CH3COCl
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 24 English Explanation
Q.38
Increasing order of electrophilic substitution for following compounds
AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 25 English
(A)
IV < I < II < III
(B)
III < II < I < IV
(C)
I < IV < III < II
(D)
II < III < I < IV
(A)

Solution

Among —CH3, —OCH3 and CF3,

CH3 and —OCH3 are electron donating groups. Hence, they activate the benzene ring. In these the order of activation is —OCH3 —CH3 while —CF3 group deactivates the benzene nucleus. So, it shows lower rate of electrophilic substitution on benzene ring. Thus, order of electrophilic substitution is : AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 25 English Explanation
Q.39
Which reagent converts propene to 1-propanol ?
(A)
H2O, H2SO4
(B)
B2H6, H2O2, OH
(C)
Hg(OAc)2, NaBH4/H2O
(D)
Aq. KOH
(B)

Solution

Propene adds to diborane (B2H6) giving an addition product. The addition compound on oxidation gives 1-propanol. Here addition of water takes place according to anti-Markownikoff’s rule.
Q.40
Polarisation in acrolein can be described as
(A)
AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 40 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 40 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 40 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 40 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

O-atom is more electronegative than C-atom, therefore O-atom bears partial –ve charge and C-atom to which it is attached bear partial +ve charge. AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 40 English Explanation
Q.41
Reduction by LiAlH4 of hydrolysed product of an ester gives
(A)
two alcohols
(B)
two aldehydes
(C)
one acid and one alcohol
(D)
two acids.
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 41 English Explanation
Q.42
Benzoic acid may be converted into ethyl benzoate by reaction with :
(A)
ethyl alcohol
(B)
ethyl alcohol and dry HCl
(C)
ethyl chloride
(D)
sodium ethoxide.
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 42 English Explanation

Here H2O is continuously removed from reaction so that reaction always proceeds to product formation i.e., Ethyl benzonate.
Q.43
First product of the reaction between RCHO and NH2NH2 is
(A)
RCH NNH2
(B)
RCH NH
(C)
RCH2NH2
(D)
RCON3
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 43 English Explanation
Q.44
AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 24 English
then A is
(A)
AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 24 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 24 English Option 2
(C)
CH3NH2
(D)
AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 24 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 24 English Explanation
Q.45
Which compound forms linear polymer due to H-bond?
(A)
H2O
(B)
NH3
(C)
HF
(D)
HCl
(C)

Solution

HF form linear polymer due to H-bonding.

H - F .... H - F .... H - F .... H - F

Due to high electronegativity value of 'F' atom it forms effective hydrogen bonds.
Q.46
CF2 CF2 is monomer of
(A)
teflon
(B)
orlon
(C)
polythene
(D)
nylon-6.
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Polymers Question 23 English Explanation
Q.47
Mg is present in
(A)
chlorophyll
(B)
haemoglobin
(C)
vitamin-D
(D)
vitamin-B
(A)

Solution

Chlorophyll is an organometallic complex with Mg as central metal. It’s formula is C55H72MgN2O6.
Q.48
--glucose and --glucose are
(A)
epimers
(B)
anomers
(C)
enantiomers
(D)
diastereomers
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2000 Chemistry - Biomolecules Question 26 English Explanation

Here 1st carbon atom becomes asymmetric giving two isomers which differ in the configuration of the asymmetric carbon. These two isomers are called as anomers.
Q.49
Which one is responsible for production of energy in bio-reaction?
(A)
Thyroxine
(B)
Adrenaline
(C)
Oestrogen
(D)
Progesterone
(A)

Solution

It is a hormone secreted from thyroid gland. It controls various biochemical reactions involving burning of proteins, carbohydrates, fats to release energy.
Biology (Maximum Marks: 364)
  • This section contains 91 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
Which cell organelle is concerned with glycosylation of protein ?
(A)
Endoplasmic reticulum
(B)
Ribosome
(C)
Mitochondria
(D)
Peroxisome
(A)

Solution

Glycosylation of protein means linking of sugars to proteins which starts in rough endoplasmic reticulum and completed in golgi complex.
Q.2
Function of telomeres in nucleus is
(A)
To seal the ends of chromosome
(B)
Poleward movement
(C)
To recognize the homologous chromosome
(D)
To initiate the RNA synthesis
(A)
Q.3
Lysosome contains :
(A)
Reductive enzymes
(B)
Oxidative enzymes
(C)
Anabolic enzymes
(D)
Hydrolytic enzymes
(D)

Solution

A lysosome is a tiny sac bounded by a single unit membrane of lipoprotein. It contains a dense, finely granular fluid. The latter consists of glycoprotein hydrolytic (digestive) enzymes called acid hydrolases. These include proteases, lipases, nucleases, glycosidases, sulphatases, acid phosphatases, etc.
Q.4
Which of the following ribosomes are engaged in protein synthesis in animal cell ?
(A)
Ribosomes of only nucleolus and cytosol
(B)
Ribosomes which occur on nuclear membrane and E.R.
(C)
Ribosomes of only mitochondria and cytosol
(D)
Ribosomes of only cytosol
(B)

Solution

Ribosomes present in nuclear membrane and endoplasmic reticulum take part in protein synthesis. Two or more ribosomes simultaneously engaged in protein synthesis on the same mRNA strand forming polyribosomes. The ribosome functions as a template, bringing together different components required for protein synthesis.
Q.5
Which of the following have carbohydrate as prosthetic group?
(A)
Glycoprotein
(B)
Chromoprotein
(C)
Lipoprotein
(D)
Nucleoprotein
(A)

Solution

Glycoproteins are proteins that contain sugars like carbohydrates as prosthetic group. In most glycoproteins, the linkage is between asparagine and N-acetyl-D-glucosamine. Some glycoproteins are immunoglobulins, membrane proteins and muscle proteins. Lipoproteins are protein complexed with lipids like triglycerides, phospholipids etc. Nucleoproteins are proteins associated with nucleic acids and chromoproteins are proteins associated with pigments e.g., cytochrome, phytochrome.
Q.6
ATP is
(A)
nucleotide
(B)
nucleoside
(C)
nucleic acid
(D)
vitamin.
(A)

Solution

ATP is a nucleotide as it is composed of adenine, ribose sugar and phosphoric acid. There are two additional phosphate groups attached to the phosphate group of AMP. The last two phosphate molecules are connected by high energy bonds.
Q.7
Enzymes are not found in
(A)
fungi
(B)
algae
(C)
virus
(D)
cyanobacteria.
(C)

Solution

Enzymes are absent in viruses because they are unable to transmit their nucleic acid from one host cell to another.
Q.8
Which factor is responsible for inhibition of enzymatic process during feedback?
(A)
Substrate
(B)
enzymes
(C)
End product
(D)
Temperature
(C)

Solution

Feedback inhibition or end product inhibition is the inhibition of the activity of an enzyme catalysing some early reactions of the series by the end product of the metabolic pathway.

For example, a substrate A is converted into a product F through B, C, D and E intermediate products. As the concentration of end product F increases, it diffuses to allosteric enzyme (E1 ) causing a reduced synthesis of the product B which in turn lowers the rate of enzymatic reactions in rest of the pathway. AIPMT 2000 Biology - Biomolecules Question 58 English Explanation
Q.9
Role of enzyme in reactions is to/as
(A)
decrease activation energy increase activation energy
(B)
increase activation energy
(C)
inorganic catalyst
(D)
none of the above.
(A)

Solution

All molecules require certain amount of energy for activation (to overcome energy barrier) before they can react. This energy is called activation energy. This energy is recovered when products are formed. The essence of an enzyme is its ability to speed up (catalyze) a reaction by making or breaking specific covalent bonds (bonds in which atoms are held together by sharing of electrons). Enzymes act by somehow lowering the temperature at which a given bond is unstable i.e., they speed up a reaction by lowering the activation energy. It is the magnitude of the activation energy which determines how fast the reaction will proceed.AIPMT 2000 Biology - Biomolecules Question 59 English Explanation
Q.10
In which stage of cell cycle, DNA replication occurs?
(A)
G1-phase
(B)
S-phase
(C)
G2-phase
(D)
M-phase
(B)

Solution

During S phase or synthetic phase the replication of DNA takes place. For replication of DNA histone, proteins are required so they are also synthesized during this phase. It takes about 30%- 50% of the total cell cycle.
Prophase and telophase are stages involved in mitosis or meiosis. During G2 phase division of centrioles, mitochondria and chloroplasts occurs.
Q.11
Spindle fibre unite with which structure of chromosomes?
(A)
Chromocentre
(B)
Chromomere
(C)
kinetochore
(D)
Centriole
(C)

Solution

Kinetochore is the proteinaceous covering of centriole, to which spindle fibers attach.
Q.12
Endosperm is formed during the double fertilization by
(A)
two polar nuclei and one male gamete
(B)
one polar nuclei and one male gamete
(C)
ovum and male gamete
(D)
two polar nuclei and two male gametes.
(A)

Solution

Double fertilization is the simultaneous occurrence of syngamy and triple fusion. Syngamy involves fusion of one male gamete with egg cell to form zygote. The result of syngamy is zygote (2n) which ultimately develops into embryo.

The second male gamete fuses with 2 polar nuclei or secondary nucleus to form triploid primary endosperm nucleus and this is called triple fusion. This primary endosperm nucleus (3n) ultimately develops into a nutritive tissue for developing embryo called endosperm.
Q.13
Eight nucleated embryo sac is
(A)
only monosporic embryo sac is
(B)
only bisporic
(C)
only tetrasporic
(D)
any of these.
(D)

Solution

On the basis of number of megaspore nuclei taking part in development of female gametophyte or embryo sac, there are 3 types of embryo sacs–
(i) Monosporic type – In this type the single nucleus of functional megaspore undergoes 3 mitotic divisions to form 8 nuclei, 7 cells.
(ii) Bisporic type – Here embryo sac develops from 2 megaspore nuclei out of 4 nuclei formed after reduction division of MMC. It is also 8 nucleated.
(iii) Tetrasporic type – Here all the 4 megaspore nuclei formed after reduction division of megaspore mother cell are functional and take part in development of embryo sac. It is further of different types. Fritillaria type, Plumbago type and Adoxa type are 8 nucleated.
Q.14
Which aquatic fern is used to increase the yield in paddy crop ?
(A)
Salvinia
(B)
Isoetes
(C)
Marsilea
(D)
Azolla
(D)

Solution

Azolla plays a very important role in rice production. Azolla and its nitrogen-fixing partner, Anabaena, have been used as green manure to fertilise rice paddies and increase production. With the help of Azolla, rice can be grown year after year, several crops a year, with little or no decline in productivity; hence no rotation of crops is necessary. So, Azolla is an excellent biofertilizer.
Q.15
Which of the following is used to manufacture ethanol from starch ?
(A)
Saccharomyces
(B)
Lactobacillus
(C)
Azotobactor
(D)
Penicilline
(A)

Solution

Yeast helps in ethyl alcohol formation. Lactobacillus is the milk bacteria while is the free living nitrogen fixing bacteria and Penicillium is the source of Penicillin.
Q.16
What happens in plants during vascularisation ?
(A)
Formation of procambium, primary phloem and xylem simultaneousl
(B)
Differentiation of procambium followed by the formation of secondary xylem
(C)
Differentiation of procambium, formation of primary phloem followed by formation of primary xylem
(D)
Differentiation of procambium followed by the formation of primary phloem and xylem simultaneously
(D)

Solution

In plants during vascularisation, differentiation of procambium occurs followed by the formation of primary phloem and xylem simultaneously.
Q.17
The movement of ions against the concentration gradient will be
(A)
active transport
(B)
osmosis
(C)
diffusion
(D)
all of the above.
(A)

Solution

Active transport involves movement of materials across the membrane against the concentration gradient of the solute particles. It requires energy in the form of ATP and carrier molecules.
Q.18
Plants take zinc in the form of
(A)
ZnSO4
(B)
Zn++
(C)
ZnO
(D)
Zn.
(B)

Solution

Zinc is available to the plants for absorption in the divalent form. The availability of soil decreases when the pH of soil shifts towards alkaline side. Zinc may form zinc phosphate in the soil which is insoluble and in that case, it is not available to the plants. It is essential for synthesis of tryptophan, amino acid which forms IAA (Indole Acetic Acid). Its deficiency causes chlorosis of older leaves.
Q.19
When the plants are grown in magnesium deficient but urea rich soil, the symptoms expressed are
(A)
yellowish leaves
(B)
colourless petiole
(C)
dark green leaves
(D)
shoot apex die.
(A)

Solution

Magnesium is important constituent of chlorophyll, thus it is found in all green plants and is essential for photosynthesis. It also helps in binding of ribosomal particles where protein synthesis occurs. It is also part of many enzymes of respiration. The deficiency symptoms of magnesium includes interveinal chlorosis in leaves and yellowing of leaves starting from basal to younger ones.
Q.20
Mg is a component of
(A)
chlorophyll
(B)
cytochrome
(C)
haemoglobin
(D)
haemocyanin
(A)

Solution

Magnesium is an important constituent of chlorophyll, found in all green plants and essential for photosynthesis. The chlorophyll molecule has a tetrapyrolic or porphyrin head and a phytol tail. Mg atom is present in the centre of porphyrin head. It is like tennis racket.
Q.21
Plasmid has been used as vector because :
(A)
Both ends show replication
(B)
It has antibiotic resistance gene
(C)
It is circular DNA which have capacity to join to eukaryotic DNA
(D)
It can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
(C)

Solution

Plasmid and bacteriophage are used as vectors in genetic engineering. Plasmid is an autonomously replicating circular extra chromosomal DNA found in bacteria. They can be transferred from cell to cell in a bacterial colony. This characteristic is being used in biotechnology for transferring desirable gene into target gene of the host. Bacteriophage is a bacterial virus which can infect it, quickly multiply within and destroy (lyse) their host (virus) cells. During infection bacteriophages inject their DNA into these cells.

The injected DNA selectively replicate and are expressed in the host that results in a multiplication of phages that ultimately burst out of the cell (by lysis). This ability of transferring DNA from the phage genome to specific host during infection process gave scientists the idea that specially designed phage vectors could be used for gene cloning.
Q.22
The bacteria generally used for genetic engineering is :
(A)
Clostridium
(B)
Pseudomonas
(C)
Agrobacterium
(D)
Bacillus
(C)

Solution

The bacteria commonly used for genetic engineering is Agrobacterium. Agrobacterium tumefaciens, in particular, is known for its ability to transfer DNA to plants, and it is widely used in the creation of genetically modified plants. This capability is harnessed in biotechnology for the purpose of introducing new traits to plants, such as resistance to pests, diseases, or harsh environmental conditions. Therefore, the correct option is :

Option C : Agrobacterium

Q.23
Indri-indri lemur is found in :
(A)
Sri Lanka
(B)
Mauritius
(C)
Madagascar
(D)
India
(C)

Solution

Indri-indri lemur is found in Madagascar. It is the largest of all surviving lemurs and is best known for its beautiful song which can carry for more than 2 km. Today, the Indri’s number is small and dwindling due to habitat loss.
Q.24
Viable material of endangered species can be preserved by :
(A)
Gene library
(B)
Gene bank
(C)
Gene pool
(D)
Herbarium
(B)

Solution

Viable material of endangered species can be preserved by gene bank. Gene bank is an institute that maintains stocks of viable seeds (seed banks), live growing plants (orchards), tissue culture and frozen germplasm with the whole range of genetic variability
Q.25
Black rust of wheat is caused by
(A)
Puccinia
(B)
Ustilago
(C)
Albugo
(D)
Phytophthora.
(A)

Solution

Black rust of wheat is caused by Puccinia graminis. The symptoms are seen in stem or leaf sheath as brownish spot.
Q.26
Pneumatophores are found in
(A)
the vegetation which is found in marshy and saline lake
(B)
the vegetation which found in acidic soil
(C)
xerophytes
(D)
epiphytes.
(A)

Solution

These special roots, called pneumatophores or knees, develop in mangrove plants, i.e., plants growing in saline marshes. These roots grow vertically upward and are negatively geotropic.
Air enters these roots through minute breathing pores called pneumathodes, present on the tips of vertical roots. These plants include Rhizophora, Heritiera, Avicinnia, etc., and are found in Sundarbans of West Bengal.
Q.27
Hair found in the inflorescence of Zea mays are the modification of
(A)
style
(B)
stigma
(C)
spathe
(D)
filaments.
(A)

Solution

In maize style is very long. It comes out of the cob to expose stigma for wind pollination. These are collectively known as silk.
Q.28
Geocarpic fruits is
(A)
carrot
(B)
radish
(C)
ground nut
(D)
turnip.
(C)

Solution

Geocarpic fruits are those which develop underground. Groundnut is the fruit which develops underground, onion and carrot also occur within the soil but onion is a modified stem while carrot is a modified root.
Q.29
Which is the first CO2 acceptor enzyme in C4 plants?
(A)
RuDP carboxylase
(B)
Phosphoric acid
(C)
RuBisCO
(D)
PEP- carboxylase
(D)

Solution

C4 pathway was first reported in members of Family Gramineae (grasses) like sugarcane, maize, sorghum, etc. In C4 plants, PEPCo (PEP carboxylase) is the key enzyme used to fix CO2 in C4 plants.Oxaloacetic acid is a 4-C compound and is the first stable product so this pathway is known as C4 cycle.
Q.30
For assimilation of one CO2 molecule, the enerrgy required in from of ATP and NADPH2 are
(A)
2 ATP and 2 NADPH2
(B)
5 ATP and 3 NADPH2
(C)
3 ATP and 2 NADPH2
(D)
18 ATP and 12 NADPH2.
(C)

Solution

Photosynthesis is actually oxidation reduction process in which water is oxidised and CO2 is reduced to carbohydrates. The reduction of CO2 to carbohydrates needs assimilatory powers, i.e., ATP and NADPH2. The process of photosynthesis involves two steps–
(i) Light dependent phase or photochemical reaction.
(ii) Light independent phase or dark reaction.
In Calvin cycle, CO2 acceptor molecule is RuBP or RuDP. The enzyme catalyzing this reaction is RuBPcarboxylase/oxygenase (RuBisCO). As Calvin cycle takes in only one carbon (as CO2 ) at a time, so it takes six turns of the cycle to produce a net gain of six carbons (i.e., hexose or glucose). In this cycle, for formation of one mole of hexose sugar (Glucose), 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2 are used. For 6 molecules of CO2 it needs 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2 molecules so for assimilation of one molecule of CO2 it needs 3 ATP and 2 NADPH2 molecules.
Q.31
The first step for initiation of photosynthesis will be
(A)
photolysis of water
(B)
excitement of chlorophyll molecules due to absorption of ligtht
(C)
ATP formation
(D)
glucose formation
(B)

Solution

The process of photosynthesis involves two steps–
(i) Light dependent phase or photochemical reaction.
(ii) Light independent these or dark reaction.
Light reaction occurs in grana fraction of chloroplast and in this reaction are included those activities, which are dependent on light. The grana of chloroplasts contains many collaborating molecules of pigment. A quantum of light is absorbed by a single antenna chlorophyll, then it migrates from one molecule to the other till it reaches the reaction center. This quantum of light is used for generating ATP and NADPH, which is later consumed in dark reactions produce sugars by fixing CO2 molecules.
Q.32
For the synthesis of one glucose molecule the Calvin cycle operates for
(A)
2 times
(B)
4 times
(C)
6 times
(D)
8 times
(C)

Solution

Each turn of Calvin cycle generates one carbon atom hence six turns of the cycle is required to generate one molecule of hexose sugar glucose.
Q.33
In Drosophila the XXY condition leads to femaleness whereas in human beings the same condition leads to Klienfelter's syndrome in male. It proves :
(A)
Y chromosome is active in sex determination in both human beings and Drosophila
(B)
In Drosophila Y-chromosome decides femaleness
(C)
Y chromosome of man have genes for syndrome
(D)
In human beings Y chromosome is active in sex determination
(D)

Solution

Y-chromosome does not play any role in determination of sex in Drosophila. In human being, XXY is phenotypically male with underdeveloped testes, gynecomastia and often mental retardation. It is caused by the union of a non-disjunct XX egg and sperm and a normal X egg and abnormal XY sperm. This indicates that in human being Y chromosome is active in sex determination.
Q.34
Erythroblastosis foetalis is caused when :
(A)
Rh female & Rh+ male
(B)
Rh female & Rh male
(C)
Rh+ female & Rh+ male
(D)
Rh+ female & Rh male
(A)

Solution

If fertilization takes place between gametes of Rh female and Rh+ male then the resulting foetus’ blood is Rh+ . The Rh+ blood of the fetus stimulates the formation of anti Rh factors in the mother’s blood. In second pregnancy (with Rh+ foetus), the anti Rh factors of the mother’s blood destroy the fetal red blood corpuscles. This is called erythroblastosis fetalis. New born may survive but it is often anaemic. The Rh child does not suffer.
Q.35
Mongolian idiots are due to trisomy in 21st chromosome is called :
(A)
Kleinfelters syndrome
(B)
Down's syndrome
(C)
Turner's syndrome
(D)
Triplex syndrome
(B)

Solution

The condition caused by trisomy in the 21st chromosome is called Down's syndrome. This is Option B

  1. Down's syndrome is characterized by an extra copy of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21), leading to a total of 47 chromosomes instead of the usual 46. It causes a range of physical and developmental characteristics and health issues.


  2. Klinefelter's syndrome (Option A) involves an extra X chromosome (usually XXY instead of the typical XY in males).


  3. Turner's syndrome (Option C) is marked by the presence of only one complete X chromosome (45,X instead of 46,XX or 46,XY).


  4. Triplex syndrome (Option D) is not a recognized chromosomal disorder in medical literature.

Q.36
Due to the cross between TTRr × ttrr the resultant progenies showed how many percent plants tall, red flowered :
(A)
50%
(B)
100%
(C)
75%
(D)
25%
(A)

Solution

The cross can be represented as :

AIPMT 2000 Biology - Principles of Inheritance and Variation Question 75 English Explanation
Tall Red TtRr - 50%
Tall White Ttrr - 50%
Q.37
According to mendelism which character is showing dominance ?
(A)
Green colour in seed coat
(B)
Wrinkled seed
(C)
Terminal position of flower
(D)
Green pod colour
(D)

Solution

According to Mendelian genetics, certain traits are dominant over others. In the options you've provided, related to the classic pea plant experiments conducted by Gregor Mendel :

  1. Option A - Green colour in seed coat : In Mendel's experiments, the yellow seed coat was the dominant trait over the green seed coat.


  2. Option B - Wrinkled seed : Smooth or round seeds were dominant over wrinkled seeds.


  3. Option C - Terminal position of flower : This refers to the position of the flower on the plant. Flowers at the end of the stem (terminal) were recessive compared to flowers along the stem (axial).


  4. Option D - Green pod colour : Green pod colour was indeed a dominant trait over yellow pod colour in Mendel's experiments.

Based on this, the character showing dominance among the options is Option D - Green pod colour.

Q.38
Method of DNA replication in which two strands of DNA separates and synthesize new strands
(A)
Conservative
(B)
Non conservative
(C)
Dispersive
(D)
Semiconservative
(D)

Solution

The method of DNA replication is semiconservative. According to the semi-conservative model proposed by Watson and Crick, each strand of the two double helices formed would have one old and one new strand. So, the parental identity is conserved upto half extent and hence DNA replication is semi-conservative.
Q.39
Similarity in DNA and RNA :
(A)
Both have similar sugar
(B)
Both are genetic material
(C)
Both have similar pyrimidine
(D)
Both are polymer of nucleotides
(D)

Solution

Deoxyribonucleic acid and ribonucleic acid as the name suggests are made up of several nucleotide monomers. Each nucleotide consists of pentose sugar, phosphate group and nitrogenous bases. DNA has deoxyribose sugar whereas RNA has ribose sugar. The bases in DNA molecule are A, T, G and C whereas in RNA, thymine is absent and instead uracil is found.
Q.40
In three dimensional view the molecule of t-RNA is :
(A)
E-shaped
(B)
L-shaped
(C)
S-shaped
(D)
Y-shaped
(B)

Solution

3-D model of tRNA looks like flattened L-shaped molecule.
tRNA acts as adapter molecule which carries amino acids to the site of protein synthesis (i.e., ribosomes). Most accepted model for tRNA structure is clover leaf model.
Q.41
Length of one loop of B- DNA :
(A)
20 nm.
(B)
10 nm.
(C)
3.4 nm.
(D)
0.34 nm.
(C)

Solution

B-DNA is an antiparallel double helix. The double strand or duplex is coiled plectonemically in right handed fashion around a common axis like a rope stair case twisted in a spiral. The coiling produces alternate major and minor grooves. One turn of spiral has a distance between two adjacent nucleotides is 3.4 nm.
Q.42
Anticodon occurs in :
(A)
DNA
(B)
r-RNA
(C)
t-RNA
(D)
m-RNA
(C)

Solution

tRNA works as an adaptor molecules for carrying amino acid to the mRNA templated during protein synthesis. It bears anticodon and recognizes the specific codon on mRNA.
Q.43
Which of the following is initiation codon ?
(A)
AUC
(B)
CCU
(C)
UAG
(D)
AUG
(D)

Solution

The initiation codon is the codon which initiates the protein synthesis. They are AUG for methionine and GUG for valine.
Q.44
Coconut milk is used in tissue culture in which present :
(A)
Auxin
(B)
Gibberellin
(C)
Ethylene
(D)
Cytokinin
(D)

Solution

Coconut milk or liquid endosperm of coconut could initiate as well as sustain the proliferation of tissues in a culture. Eventually coconut milk was shown to contain the cytokinin zeatin, but this finding was not obtained until several years after the discovery of cytokinins. The first cytokinin to be discovered was the synthetic analog kinetin.
Q.45
Which statement is correct ?
(A)
Workers are the smallest of the three castes
(B)
Wax is waste material of honey bee
(C)
Drone of honey bee is diploid
(D)
A. indica is largest wild honey bee
(A)

Solution

A highly organised division of labour is found in the colony of honey bees. A good and well developed colony of bees had 40 to 50 thousand individuals consisting of 3 castes viz., queen, drone and worker. Although the workers are the smallest of the three castes but they function as the main spring of the complicated machinery like honey bee colony. It takes 21 days in the development from the egg to the adult and the total life span of a worker is about 6 weeks.

The workers are atrophid female which sacrifice themselves for the well-being of the colony. The total indoor and outdoor duties of the colony are performed by the workers only. Apis dorsata is the largest honey bee and A. indica is slightly smaller than it. Bees wax is a by product of honey bee and drone of honey bee is haploid in nature.
Q.46
Which is the cause of damage to relative biological effectiveness ?
(A)
Low temperature
(B)
High temperature
(C)
Radiation
(D)
Pollution
(D)

Solution

RBE (Relative Biological Effectiveness) is a comparision of the dose of the radiation being studied with the dose of standard radiation producing the same effect.
Q.47
A student observed an algae with chlorophyll a, b and phycoerythrin, it should belong to
(A)
Phaeophyta
(B)
Rhodophyta
(C)
Chlorophyta
(D)
Bacillariophyta
(B)

Solution

In green algae, the photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll a & b, carotenes and xanthophylls. In phaeophyceae, the pigments are chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c and carotenes and xanthophylls. Phycoerythrin gives red colour to Rhodophyceae.
Q.48
In ferns, meiosio takes place at the time of
(A)
spore formation
(B)
spore germination
(C)
gamete formation
(D)
antheridia and archegon ia formation
(A)

Solution

A fern plant body is sporophytic (2n) and is differentiated into roots, stems and leaves. On the ventral surface of leaves sporangia are borne in a group called sori. Inside the sporangium are present the spores which are formed by reduction division.

Thus the spores produced are haploid in nature and germinate to produce a prothallus that represents the gametophytic generation. Antheridium and archegonium are borne on this prothallus. Thus meiosis takes place at the stage of spore formation.
Q.49
Plant group with largest ovule, largest tree, and largest gametes is
(A)
gymnosperm
(B)
angiosperm
(C)
bryophyta
(D)
pteridophyta.
(A)

Solution

Gymnosperms are the most primitive seed plants. The plants are generally perennial, woody trees or shrubs. In general, tallest trees in gymnosperms, e.g., Sequoia sempervirens is 366 ft. in height. The male gametes of Cycas are largest (300 ) in size, they are visible to naked eye and are oval in form and top-shaped. The ovule of Cycas is also largest in the plant kingdom.
Q.50
If the apical bud has been removed then we observe
(A)
more lateral branches
(B)
more axillary buds
(C)
plant growing stops
(D)
flowering stops.
(A)

Solution

Apical dominance is the phenomenon by which presence of apical bud does not allow the nearby lateral buds to grow. When apical bud is removed, the lateral buds sprout.
Q.51
Which hormone is responsible for fruit ripening?
(A)
Ethylene
(B)
Auxin
(C)
Ethyl chloride
(D)
Cyctokinin
(A)

Solution

Ethylene is largely a growth inhibiting phytohormone but is also involved in some growth promotion activities. It has been established that ethylene is a fruit ripening hormone. Ethylene stimulates all the biochemical changes which take place at the time of fruit ripening.
Q.52
By which action a seed coat becomes permeable to water
(A)
scarification
(B)
stratification
(C)
vernalization
(D)
all of the above.
(A)

Solution

Scarification means the application of those methods by which the hard seed coat is ruptured or softened so that it becomes permeable to water, gases and the embryo can expand. There are two methods of scarification as mechanical scarification and chemical scarification. This helps in overcoming seed dormancy.
Q.53
Which is the reason for highest biomass in aquatic ecosystem ?
(A)
Benthonic and brown algae
(B)
Nano plankton, blue green algae, green algae
(C)
Diatoms
(D)
Sea grass, and slime molds
(A)

Solution

The benthic region includes all the sea floor from the wave-washed shore-line to the greatest depths. Depending upon the penetration of light it is subdivided into two main zones : the lighted or littoral zone and the deep sea system. Due to abundance of light, water, oxygen, carbon dioxide and less salinity of water, the tidal zone is characterized by exhorbitant growth of plants. The dense growth of vegetation, on the other hand, provides shelter and food for animals. A wide variety of algae, few grasses and animals of every phylum of animal kingdom are represented in this region.
Q.54
Saline solution is given to patients of Cholera because
(A)
NaCl produces energy
(B)
Na+ prevents water loss from body
(C)
NaCl is antibacterial
(D)
NaCl function as regulatory material
(B)

Solution

Cholera is an acute infection of the small intestine by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, which causes severe vomiting and diarrhoea (known as ricewater stools) leading to dehydration. The disease is contracted from food or drinking water contaminated by faeces from a patient. The resulting dehydration and the imbalance in the concentration of body fluids can cause death within 24 hours. Since, a large quantity of fluid and salts are rapidly lost through stools and vomit, therefore, the most important treatment is to replace the lost fluid and salts equally rapidly. Rapid replacement of fluid and elecrolytes is needed by oral rehydration-therapy. The electrolytes consists of Na+ ions that prevents water loss from the body.
Q.55
Which disease of man is similar with cattle's, bovine spongyform encephalopathy ?
(A)
Spongiocitis of cerebrum
(B)
Encephalitis
(C)
Spondylitis
(D)
Jecob-crutzfelt disease
(D)

Solution

The common term for bovine spongiform encephalopathy is mad cow disease, which is a progressive neurological disorder of cattle. In humans it is called Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, after the two doctors who first described the symptoms of the disease. It is caused by prions (proteinaceous infectious particles). It is characterized by rapidly progressive dementia associated with myoclonic jerks. The brains of affected individuals show a characteristic cystic degenerations.
Q.56
Which is showing accurate pairing ?
(A)
Gonorrhoea - Leishmania denovoni
(B)
Syphilis - Treponema pallidum
(C)
Typhoid – Mycobacterium leprae
(D)
AIDS - Bacillus conjugalis
(B)

Solution

Syphilis is caused by a spirochete (spiral bacterium) Treponema pallidum. The symptoms of syphilis occur in three stages. The first stage usually consists of a painless lesion called a chancre at the organism’s site of entry. The second stage begins as the organism enters the blood. Symptoms such as fever, a flu like illness, a skin rash, hair loss, and swollen joints may come and go over a period of several years. In the third stage permanent brain damage, heart disease, and blindness often occurs. AIDS is a viral disease caused by Human Immuno deficiency virus. Gonorrhoea is a sexual disease and its causative organism is Neisseria gonorrhoea. Typhoid is caused by bacillus bacteria Salmonella typhi.
Q.57
Which statement is true for WBC?
(A)
Non-nucleated
(B)
In deficiency, cancer is caused
(C)
Manufactured in thymus
(D)
Can squeeze through blood capillaries
(D)

Solution

WBCs are the colourless nucleated amoeboid cells that can squeeze through blood capillaries by a process known as diapedsis. The increase in their number causes leukaemia, a cancer. WBCs are of two types, granulocytes (formed in bone marrow) and agranulocytes (formed in bone marrow and thymus).
Q.58
In which point, pulmonary artery is different from pulmonary vein?
(A)
Its lumen is broad
(B)
Its wall is thick
(C)
It has valves
(D)
It does not posses endothelium.
(B)

Solution

The pulmonary artery is different from the pulmonary vein in several aspects, but based on the options provided, the correct answer is:

Option B: Its wall is thick.

Let's explore why this is the case and clarify the reasoning behind each option:

Option A: Its lumen is broad. Both the pulmonary artery and vein can have broad lumens, but this characteristic does not fundamentally distinguish one from the other. The lumen size can vary based on the specific segment of the vessel and the volume of blood it is transporting.

Option B: Its wall is thick. This is true and distinguishes the pulmonary artery from the pulmonary vein. Typically, arteries have thicker walls than veins because they must withstand and convey the higher pressure of blood pumped from the heart. Even though the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs — and does so at a lower pressure than systemic arteries — its walls are still thicker than those of the pulmonary veins, which carry oxygenated blood back to the heart.

Option C: It has valves. This option is not correct. Pulmonary arteries do not have valves. The confusion might arise from the fact that vein systems, including pulmonary veins, generally have valves to prevent backflow of blood. This characteristic is not found in the pulmonary artery.

Option D: It does not possess endothelium. This is incorrect. All blood vessels, including the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein, are lined with endothelium. The endothelium is a thin layer of cells that provides a barrier between the blood and the rest of the vessel wall, facilitating smooth blood flow and playing roles in vascular health and disease prevention.

Therefore, the primary distinction between the pulmonary artery and the pulmonary vein, as highlighted by the options given, is the thickness of their walls (Option B).

Q.59
Differennce between pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein is that, the pulmonary artery has
(A)
no endothelium
(B)
valves
(C)
thicker walls
(D)
oxygenated blood.
(C)

Solution

An artery has thick and more elastic wall but its lumen is narrow as compared to vein. Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for oxygenation. Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left auricle.
Q.60
What is the name of joint between ribs and sternum?
(A)
Cartilaginous joint
(B)
Angular joint
(C)
Gliding joint
(D)
Fibrous joint
(A)

Solution

Cartilaginous joint is present between ribs and sternum. It allows only limited movement. An angular joint allows movement in two directions - side to side and back and forth. Wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints are of this type. Gliding joint permits sliding movements of two bones over each other, e.g. joints between sternum and clavicles. Fibrous joints do not allow movement and are present between the bones of cranium.
Q.61
Bone related with skull is
(A)
coracoid
(B)
arytenoid
(C)
pterygoid
(D)
atlas.
(C)

Solution

Atlas is the first cervical vertebra. Coracoid is part of the pectoral girdle. Pterygoid is a small bone articulated with palatine. Arytenoids are cartilage present at the back of larynx.
Q.62
Sternum is connected to ribs by
(A)
bony matter
(B)
white fibrous cartilage
(C)
hyaline cartilage
(D)
areolar tissue.
(C)

Solution

Sternum is connected to ribs by hyaline cartilage (= giving a shiny glass like appearance and gives flexibility and support at the joints). Sternum is also called breast bone. It is a narrow, elongated and flattened structure, present just under the skin in the middle of front of the chest. It consists of three parts - manubrium, mesosternum and xiphoid process. Manubrium is the thickest, strongest part and articulates with the clavicle of pectoral girdle and first pair of ribs. Mesosternum provide articulation to second to sixth pairs of ribs and xiphoid process (also called metasternum) articulates with seventh pair of ribs in association with mesosternum.
Q.63
Depolarization of axolema during nerve conduction takes place because of
(A)
equal amount of Na+ and K+ move out across axolema
(B)
Na + move inside and K+ move more outside.
(C)
more Na+ outside
(D)
none of these
(B)

Solution

Depolarization of a nerve cell membrane occurs during the passage of an action potential along the axon where the nerve is transmitting an impulse. During depolarization, the activation gates of Na+ channels open and the K+ channels remain closed. Na+ rush into the axon. Entry of sodium ions leads to depolarization (reversal of polarity) of the nerve membrane, so that the nerve fibre contents become electropositive with respect to the extracellular fluid.
Q.64
What is the work of progesteron which is present in oral contraceptive pills :
(A)
To check entry of sperms in to cervix & to make them inactive
(B)
To check sexual behaviour
(C)
To check oogenesis
(D)
To inhibit ovulation
(D)

Solution

Pills also called contraceptive pills contain small doses of either progestogens or progestogenoestrogen combinations. They inhibit ovulation and implantation.
Q.65
What is the work of copper T :
(A)
To inhibit implantation of blastocyst
(B)
To inhibit gametogenesis
(C)
To inhibit fertilization
(D)
To inhibit ovulation
(A, C)

Solution

Copper-T is an intrauterine device (IUD) used by women as a birth control. An IUD is a small device which is placed inside the uterus. The vertical and horizontal arms of the Copper - T contain copper which is slowly released into the uterine cavity. Copper stops sperm from making their way up through the uterus into the tubes, and it reduces the ability of sperm to fertilize the egg. It also prevents a fertilized egg (blastocyst) from successfully implanting in the lining of the uterus if fertilization has occurred.
Q.66
Primary function of enteronephric nephridia of Pheretima :
(A)
Excretion of nitrogenous waste
(B)
Locomotion
(C)
Osmoregulation
(D)
Respiration
(C)

Solution

Pharyngeal nephridia and septal nephridia are enteronephric as they discharge excretory matter into the gut. Discharge of waste matter via gut is an adaptation to conserve water by its reabsorption in the gut. Integumentary nephridra are exonephric, as they discharge waste matter to the exterior.
Q.67
Which pair is correct ?
(A)
Sebum = sexual attraction
(B)
Saliva = sense of food taste
(C)
Sweat = temperature regulation
(D)
Humerus = Hind leg
(C)

Solution

Sweat is secreted by sweat glands of skin and helps in regulating body temperature. Saliva is secreted by salivary glands and helps in digestion (carbohydrate digestion). Sebum is the waxy secretion secreted by sebaceous glands. Sebum is a fatty mildly antiseptic material that protects, lubricates, and waterproofs the skin and hair and prevent desiccation. Humerus is the long bone of the upper arm. It articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity and with the ulna and radius at the elbow.
Q.68
Proteoglycan in cartilages which is part of polysaccharide is
(A)
Ossein
(B)
Cartilegen
(C)
Condriotin
(D)
Cassin
(C)

Solution

Proteoglycans consist of polysaccharide attached with a protein chondroitin. It is present in cartilage as well as in extracellular material. Ossein is a protein present in matrix of bone. Casein is a milk protein.
Q.69
Characteristic of simple epithelium is that they
(A)
Continue to divide and help in organ function
(B)
They are arranged indiscriminately
(C)
They make a definite layer
(D)
None
(C)

Solution

Simple epithelium consists of a single layer of cells resting on a basement membrane. This makes a definite layer.
Q.70
A person who is eating boiled potato, his food contains the component
(A)
cellulose which is digested by cellulase
(B)
starch which is not digested
(C)
lactose which is not digested
(D)
DNA which can be digested by pancreatic DNase.
(D)

Solution

Boiled potatoes do not contain lactose; and cellulose which if present is not digested in man as he lacks cellulase. Starch is the major food component which is present in boiled potato and is broken down into maltose and isomaltose due to salivary amylase and is hence digested. DNA is broken down into purines, pyrimidines and sugars by pancreatic nuclease (such as DNase).
Q.71
In mammals milk is digested by the action of
(A)
rennin
(B)
amylase
(C)
intestinal bacteria
(D)
invertase.
(A)

Solution

Rennin is the enzyme secreted by stomach. It hydrolyzes the soluble milk protein casein into paracasein and whey protein. Paracasein is spontaneously precipitated in the presence of calcium as insoluble calcium paracaseinate, forming coagulated milk. Amylase degrade starch, glycogen and other polysaccharides. Plants contain both and -amylases found in pancreatic juice and also in saliva. Intestinal bacteria help by digesting cellulose. Invertase acts on sucrose.
Q.72
Which food should be eaten during deficiency of rhodopsin in eyes?
(A)
Carrot and ripe papayas
(B)
Guava, banana
(C)
Mango and potato
(D)
None of the above
(A)

Solution

Deficiency of rhodopsin in eyes occurs due to deficiency of vitamin A. Carrot and ripe papayas are rich sources of vitamin A so these should be eaten in deficiency of rhodopsin in eye.
Q.73
Essential amino acid is
(A)
phenylalanine
(B)
glycine
(C)
aspartic acid
(D)
serine.
(A)

Solution

Essential amino acids are those which cannot be synthesized in the body from precursors. These amino acids must be present in our diet. They are valine, leucine, isoleucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, tryptophan and threonine.
Q.74
Conversion of ammonia to urea is done by
(A)
ornithine cycle
(B)
arginine cycle
(C)
fumaric cycle
(D)
citrulline cycle.
(A)

Solution

The principle nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is urea. Urea is produced in a series of reactions (urea cycle) which take place in the mitochondrial matrix and cytosol of liver cells.

Urea cycle (ornithine cycle) is the series of biochemical reactions that converts ammonia, which is highly toxic and carbon dioxide to the much less toxic urea during the excretion of metabolic nitrogen derived from the deamination of excess amino acids. The urea is ultimately excreted in solution in urine.
Q.75
Concentration of urine depends upon which organ?
(A)
Bowman's capsule
(B)
Length of Henle's loop
(C)
PCT
(D)
Network of capillaries arising from glomerulus
(B)

Solution

Concentration of urine depends upon the length of Henle’s loop. Loop of Henle is the hairpin shaped section of a kidney tubule situated between the proximal and distal tubules in the nephron. It consists of a thin descending limb which is permeable to water and a thick ascending limb which is impermeable to water, complex movements of ions and water across the walls of the loop enable it to function as a countercurrent multiplier, resulting in the production of concentrated urine in the collecting duct.
Q.76
Which gland secretes odorous secretion in mammals?
(A)
Bartholins
(B)
Prostate
(C)
Anal gland
(D)
Liver
(C)

Solution

The anal glands are small paired sacs located on either side of the anus between the external and internal sphincter muscles. These sebaceous glands within the lining secrete a foul smelling liquid that is used for identification of members within a species. These glands are found in all carnivora except bears.
Q.77
MSH is secreted by
(A)
anterior lobe of pituitary
(B)
middle lobe of pituitary
(C)
posterior lobe of pituitary
(D)
endostyle.
(B)

Solution

Middle lobe of pituitary secretes a hormone named melanocyte-stimulating hormone. It stimulates the synthesis of black pigment melanin in the skin and also causes dispersal of melanin granules in the pigment cells, thereby darkening the colour in certain animals (fishes amphibians). In man it has no such role. Anterior lobe of pituitary secretes FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH and STH. Posterior lobe of pituitary secretes oxytocin and vasopressin.
Q.78
Melatonin is secreted by
(A)
pineal body
(B)
skin
(C)
pituitary gland
(D)
thyroid.
(A)

Solution

Melatonin is secreted by pineal gland present between the cerebral hemispheres. Melatonin concentration in blood follows a diurnal cycle, it rises in the evening and drops at noon. Melatonin lightens skin colour in certain animals and regulates working of gonads.
Q.79
Blastopore is the pore of :
(A)
A.C.
(B)
Archenteron
(C)
Blastocoel
(D)
Coelom
(B)

Solution

Archenteron is known as the primitive gut that forms during gastrulation in the developing blastula. It develops into the digestive tract of an animal. The open end of the archenteron is called blastopore.
Q.80
Cleavage in mammals is
(A)
holoblastic equal
(B)
holoblastic unequal
(C)
superficial
(D)
discoidal.
(B)

Solution

Cleavage in mammals is holoblastic unequal. Mammals have microlecithal eggs so they have holoblastic cleavage in which the segmentation lines pass through the entire egg, dividing it completely. As the eggs are microlecithal so one would expect that first cleavage will produce two equal blastomeres. But, this is not the case.

The two blastomeres produced are unequal which divide further to form 4 unequal blastomeres and this process continues to form a ball of cells called morula. Superficial cleavage occurs in insects and discoidal cleavage occurs in birds.
Q.81
Which of the following animals have scattered cells with cell - tissue grade organisation?
(A)
Sponge
(B)
Hydra
(C)
Liver fluke
(D)
Ascaris
(B)

Solution

Hydra, has tissue level of organization. Its body is multicellular and the cells occur in 2 distinct layers or tissues of specialized cells. Sponges have cellular level of organization. Liver fluke and Ascaris have organ-system level of organization.
Q.82
What is true for mammalia?
(A)
Platypus is oviparous.
(B)
Bats have feather.
(C)
Elephant is ovoviviparous.
(D)
Diaphragm is absent in them.
(A)

Solution

Mammals are viviparous i.e., they give birth to young ones. Protherians (e.g., Platypus) are primitive mammals and lay eggs, so they are oviparous.
Q.83
What happens if bone of frog is kept in dilute hydrochloric acid?
(A)
Will become flexible
(B)
Will turn black
(C)
will break into pieces
(D)
Will shrink
(A)

Solution

Main component of bone is collagen which is a complex combination of amino acids. When frog’s bone is treated with HCl, these compounds are broken down and the bone becomes flexible.
Q.84
Similarly in Ascaris lumbricoides and Anopheles stephensi is
(A)
sexual dimorphism
(B)
metamerism
(C)
anaerobic respiration
(D)
endoparasitism.
(A)

Solution

Sexual dimorphism is the difference in the form of individuals of different sexes but of same species. Sexes in Ascaris are separate and sexual dimorphism is well defined. Males are smaller than females. They possess a recurved tail with pre and post anal papillae, a cloaca and a pair of spicules or penial setae. In Anopheles, the ends of maxillary palps in males are club-shaped while in females they are not.
Q.85
Which of the following characters is absent in all chordates?
(A)
Diaphragam
(B)
Coelom
(C)
Pharyngeal gill clefts
(D)
Dorsal nerve cord
(A)

Solution

Diaphragm is a membrane that separates thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity. It is present only in mammals. All other chordates do not have diaphragm as their body cavity is not divided into thoracic and abdominal cavities.

Chordates are coelomate animals having a true coelom, entercoelic and shizocoelic in origin. Pharyngeal gill slits are present at some stage, may or may not be functional. Nerve cord is dorsal and tubular.
Q.86
Which evidence of evolution related to Darwin's finches ?
(A)
Evidences from comparative anatomy
(B)
Evidences from embryology
(C)
Evidences from biogeographical distribution
(D)
Evidences from palaeontological
(C)

Solution

Biogeography is the study of geographical distribution of organisms. Paleontology is the study of past life based on fossils and fossil impressions. Anatomy is the study of internal structure. Embryology is the study of development of embryo from zygote till it becomes an offspring.
Q.87
Which is not a vestigial organ in man ?
(A)
Segmental muscles of abdomen
(B)
Third molar
(C)
Coccyx
(D)
Nails
(D)

Solution

The vestigial organs are the useless remnants of structures or organs which might have been large and functional in the ancestors. Segmental muscles in abdomen, coccyx, third molar (wisdom teeth) of human are vestigial organs. Nail is not a vestigial organ of human.
Q.88
Character which is closely related to human evolution
(A)
Reduction in size of jaws
(B)
Disappearance of tail
(C)
Flat nails
(D)
Binocular vision
(B)

Solution

Loss of a prehensile tail is associated with the gradual development of erect posture and bipedal gait.
Q.89
Homo sapiens have evolved in
(A)
Pleistocene
(B)
Paleocene
(C)
Oligocene
(D)
Holocene
(D)

Solution

Oligocene is masked by the rise of monkeys and apes. Miocene is masked by appearance of man like apes. Pliocene is characterized by origin of man.
Q.90
Which is the most important factor for continuity of a species from evolutionary point of view ?
(A)
Formation of gametes
(B)
Synthesis of proteins
(C)
Replication of genetic material
(D)
None of these
(C)

Solution

Replication of genetic material is the most important factor for continuity of a species from evolutionary point of view. When genetic material replicates, only then it could be transferred from one generation to next resulting in continuity of a species. Asexual animals do not produce gametes while sexual animals do. So, formation of gametes is not an important factor in asexual animals though replication of genetic material takes place in both asexual as well as sexual animals. Synthesis of proteins does not play any role in continuity of species.
Q.91
Who is directly related to man ?
(A)
Gorilla
(B)
Orangutan
(C)
Gibbon
(D)
Rhesus
(A)

Solution

Chimpanzees and gorillas are our closest relatives among the living primates.