NEET-UG 2003

AIPMT 2003

Physics (Maximum Marks: 208)
  • This section contains 52 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last t seconds of its ascent is
(A)
ut
(B)
gt2
(C)
ut gt2
(D)
(u + gt) t.
(B)

Solution

Let the time taken by the ball to reach the top most point T.

v = u - gT

v = 0 at top most point.

T =

Velocity of the ball after (T - t) second

v = u - g(T - t)

= u - gT + gt = u - g + gt

v = gt

Distance covered during the last t seconds of its ascent is

s = (gt)t - =
Q.2
A man throws balls with the same speed vertically upwards one after the other at an interval of 2 seconds. What should be the speed of the throw so that more than two balls are in the sky at any time ? (Given g = 9.8 m/s2)
(A)
more than 19.6 m/s
(B)
at least 9.8 m/s
(C)
any speed less than 19.6 m/s
(D)
only with speed 19.6 m/s.
(A)

Solution

When more than two balls means minimum three balls are in the sky then time of flight for the first ball should be more than 4 s.

T > 4 s

> 4

u > 19.6 m/s
Q.3
The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector differences. In that case, the forces
(A)
are equal to each other
(B)
are equal to each other in magnitude
(C)
are not equal to each other in magnitude
(D)
cannot be predicted.
(B)

Solution

Given :





   (i.e. F1, F2 are equal to each other in magnitude.)
Q.4
A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical rope. The rope will not break when a mass of 25 kg is suspended from it but will break if the mass exceeds 25 kg. What is the maximum acceleration with which the monkey can climb up along the rope ? (g = 10 m/s2)
(A)
5 m/s2
(B)
10 m/s2
(C)
25 m/s2
(D)
2.5 m/s2
(D)

Solution

T = Tension caused in string by monkey

= m (g + a)





Q.5
A man weight 80 kg. He stands on a weighting scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 m/s2. What would be the reading on the scale ? (g = 10 m/s2)
(A)
zero
(B)
400 N
(C)
800 N
(D)
1200 N
(D)

Solution

Reading of the scale = Apparent wt. of the man = m(g + a)

= 80 (10 + 5) = 1200 N
Q.6
A particle moves along a circle of radius m with constants tangential acceleration. If the velocity of vthe particle is 80 m/s at the end of the second revoluation after motion has begun, the tangential acceleration is
(A)
40 m/s2
(B)
640 m/s2
(C)
160 m/s2
(D)
40 m/s2
(A)

Solution

Wmg = K

-mg = ½ mv2 – ½ mu2
or, mv2 = m(u2 – 2g]
or,







Q.7
When a long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched by 10 cm, the potential energy stored in it will be
(A)
U/5
(B)
5U
(C)
10U
(D)
25U
(D)

Solution

If k be the spring constant, then







Q.8
A stationary particle explodes into two particles of masses m1 and m2 which move in opposite directions with velocities v1 and v2. The ratio of their kinetic energies E1/E2 is :
(A)
m2/m1
(B)
m1/m2
(C)
1
(D)
m1v2/m2v1
(A)

Solution

From conservation law of momentum, before collision and after collision linear momentum (p) will be same. That is,

initial momentum = final momentum.

0 = m1v1 – m2v2 m1v1 = m2v2

p1 = p2

Now,



Q.9
A stone is tied to a string of length and is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the string as the centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a speed u. The magnitude of the change in velocity as it reaches a position where the string is horizontal (g being acceleration due to gravity) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

The total energy at A = the total energy at B





The change in magnitude of velocity =

Q.10
A ball rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration of the ball about an axis passing through its centre of mass is K. If radius of the ball be R. then the fraction of total energy associated with its rotational energy will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Rotational energy =

Linear kinetic energy =

Required fraction

Q.11
A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of length L and height h. What is the speed of its centre of mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

K.E. =

K.E. =



Now, gain in K.E. = Loss in P.E.

Q.12
A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity . Four objects each of mass m, are kept gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular diameters of the ring. The angular velocity of the ring will be :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

Applying conservation law of angular momentum,



(Taking and )



Q.13
Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is F. The space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force will now be
(A)
3 F
(B)
F
(C)
F/3
(D)
F/9
(B)

Solution

Gravitational force is independent of medium, Hence, this will remain same.
Q.14
The acceleration due to gravity on the planet A is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on planet B. A man jumps to a height of 2 m on the surface of A. What is the height of jump by the same person on the planet B?
(A)
(2/9) m
(B)
18 m
(C)
6 m
(D)
(2/3) m
(B)

Solution

The velocity of the mass while reaching the surface of both the planets will be same.

i.e.,





Q.15
A body of mass m is placed on earth's surface which is taken from earth surface to a height of h = 3R, then change in gravitational potential energy is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Gravitational potential energy on earth’s surface = , where M and R are the mass and radius of the earth respectively, m is the mass of the body and G is the universal gravitational constant.

Gravitational potential energy at a height h = 3R



Change in potential energy





Q.16
Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal thicknesses and thermal conductivities K and 2K, respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is
(A)
(B)
(C)
3 K
(D)
(D)

Solution

In series, equivalent thermal conductivity



Q.17
An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 227oC and 127oC. It absorbs 6 kcal at the height temperature. The amount of heat (in kcal) converted into work is equal to
(A)
4.8
(B)
3.5
(C)
1.6
(D)
1.2
(D)

Solution

Efficiency of Carnot engine



Q.18
The time period of mass suspended from a spring is T. If the spring is cut into four equal parts and the same mass is suspended from one of the parts, then the new time period will be
(A)
T/4
(B)
T
(C)
T/2
(D)
2T
(C)

Solution

Let k be the force constant of spring. If k' is the force constant of each part, then



Time period
=
Q.19
In case of a forced vibration, the resonance peak becomes very sharp when the
(A)
damping force is small
(B)
restoring force is small
(C)
applied periodic force is small
(D)
quality factor is small
(A)

Solution

The resonance wave becomes very sharp when damping force is small.
Q.20
A particle of mass m oscillates with simple harmonic motion between points x1 and x2, the equilibrium position being O. Its potential energy is plotted. It will be as given below in the graph
(A)
AIPMT 2003 Physics - Oscillations Question 32 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2003 Physics - Oscillations Question 32 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2003 Physics - Oscillations Question 32 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2003 Physics - Oscillations Question 32 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

Potential energy of particle performing SHM varies parabolically in such a way that at mean position it becomes zero and maximum at extreme position.
Q.21
The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator when the particle is half way to its end point is
(A)
E
(B)
E
(C)
E
(D)
E
(C)

Solution

Potential energy of simple harmonic oscillator =

for

Q.22
Which one of the following statements is true for the speed v and the acceleration a of a particle executing simple harmonic motion?
(A)
When v is maximum, is maximum
(B)
Value of is zero, whatever may be the value of v.
(C)
When v is zero, is zero
(D)
When v is maximum, is zero.
(D)

Solution

In simple harmonic motion velocity


AIPMT 2003 Physics - Oscillations Question 34 English Explanation

acceleration from this we can easily find out that when v is maximum, then is zero.
Q.23
An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the speed of sound. The wavelength and frequency of the source emitted are and respectively. The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by the observer are respectively
(A)
1.2 ,   1.2
(B)
1.2 ,  
(C)
,  1.2
(D)
0.8 ,   0.8
(B)

Solution

Apparent frequency,



Wavelength does not change by motion of observer.
Q.24
A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through any face is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

The total flux through the cube

The electric flux through any face
Q.25
Fuse wire is a wire of
(A)
high resistance and high melting point
(B)
high resistance and low melting point
(C)
low resistance and low melting point
(D)
low resistance and high melting point
(B)

Solution

Fuse wire should have high resistance and low melting point.
Q.26
An electric kettle has two heating coils. When one of the coils is connected to an a.c. source, the water in the kettle boils in 10 minutes. When the other coil is used the water boils in 40 minutes. If both the coils are connected in parallel, the time taken by the same quantity of water to boil will be
(A)
8 minutes
(B)
4 minutes
(C)
25 minutes
(D)
15 minutes
(A)

Solution

Let R1 and R2 be the resistance of the two coils and V be the voltage supplied.

Effective resistance of two coils in parallel =

Let H be the heat required to begin boiling in kettle.

Then H = Power time =

For parallel combination, H =



minute
Q.27
Two 220 volt, 100 watt bulbs are connected first in series and then in parallel. Each time the combination is connected to a 220 volt a.c. supply line. The power drawn by the combination in each case respectively will be
(A)
50 watt, 100 watt
(B)
100 watt, 50 watt
(C)
200 watt, 150 watt
(D)
50 watt, 200 watt
(D)

Solution



In series, Req = 484 + 484 = 968



In parallel,

Q.28
In a Wheatstone's bridge all the four arms have equal resistance R. If the resistance of the galvanometer arm is also R, the equivalent resistance of the combination as seen by the battery is
(A)
R/4
(B)
R/2
(C)
R
(D)
2R
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2003 Physics - Current Electricity Question 60 English Explanation
In balance Wheatstone bridge, the galvanometer arm can be neglected so equivalent resistance = R.
Q.29
Three capacitors each of capacity 4 F are to be connected in such a way that the effective capacitance is This can be done by
(A)
connecting all of them in series
(B)
connecting them in parallel
(C)
connecting two in series and one in parallel
(D)
connecting two in parallel and one in series
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2003 Physics - Capacitor Question 24 English Explanation
For series,


For parallel
Q.30
A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a firection perpendicular to it. Then the
(A)
speed of the particle remains unchanged
(B)
direction of the particle remains unchanged
(C)
acceleration remains unchanged
(D)
velocity remains unchanged
(A)

Solution

If a moving charged particle is subjected to a perpendicular uniform magnetic field, then according to F = qvB sin , it will experience a maximum force which will provide the centripetal force to particle and it will describe a circular path with uniform speed.
Q.31
A long solenoid carrying a current producess a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is
(A)
B/2
(B)
B
(C)
2B
(D)
4B
(B)

Solution

Magnetic field induction at point inside the solenoid of length l, having n turns per unit length carrying current i is given by

B = 0ni

If i doubled, n halved then B remains same.
Q.32
A bar magnet is oscillating in the Earth's magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its period and motion if its mass is quadrupled?
(A)
motion remains simple harmonic with time period =
(B)
motion remains S.H.M with time period = 2T
(C)
motion remains S.H.M with time period = 4T
(D)
motion remains S.H.M and period remains nearly constant
(B)

Solution

The time period of a bar magnet in a magnetic field is given by

T =

=

T2 = 2T1 = 2T.
Q.33
According to Curie's law, the magnetic susceptibility of a substance at an absolute temperature is proportional to
(A)
(B)
(C)
2
(D)
2
(A)

Solution

According to Curie’s law,
Q.34
A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
(A)
from stronger to the weaker parts of the field
(B)
from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
(C)
perpendicular to the field
(D)
in none of the above directions
(A)

Solution

A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves from stronger to the weaker parts of the field.
Q.35
We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A)
The radiation emitted is in the infra-red region
(B)
The radiation emitted only during the day
(C)
The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during the winters
(D)
The radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and hence is not visible
(A)

Solution

Every body at all time, at all temperatures emit radiation (except at T = 0), which fall in the infrared region.
Q.36
Which of the following rays are not electromagnetic waves ?
(A)
X-rays
(B)
-rays
(C)
-rays
(D)
heat rays
(C)

Solution

Electromagnetic waves are a form of energy waves that have both an electric and magnetic field such as Radio Waves, Microwaves, Infrared, Visible light, Ultraviolet, X-rays, Gamma rays. So -rays are not electromagnetic waves, but it is a beam of fast electrons.
Q.37
An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along (i) XOX' and (ii) YOY' as shown in the figure. Let be the focal lengths of the complete lens, of each half in case (i), and of each half in case (ii), respectively.

Choose the correct statement from the following

AIPMT 2003 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 45 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

We know from Lens maker's formula



Initially, Here R1 = R and R2 = –R by convection.





If we cut the lens along XOX' then the two halves of the lens will be having the same radii of curvature and so, focal length f' = f .

But when we cut it along YOY' then, we will have

R1 = R but R2 =

= =

f'' = 2f
Q.38
A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then its focal length will
(A)
become zero
(B)
become infinite
(C)
become small, but non-zero
(D)
remain unchanged
(B)

Solution



Where = 1



f =
Q.39
The mass number of a nucleus is
(A)
always less than its atomic number
(B)
always more than its atomic number
(C)
sometimes equal to its atomic number
(D)
sometimes less than and sometimes more than its atomic number
(C)

Solution

Mass number = atomic number + no. of neutrons

For hydrogen, number of neutrons = 0

So, mass number = Atomic number.

Hence mass number is sometimes equal to atomic number.
Q.40
The mass of proton is 1.0073 u and that of neutron is 1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit). The binding energy of He is
(Given helium nucleus mass 4.0015 u.)
(A)
0.0305 J
(B)
0.0305 erg
(C)
28.4 MeV
(D)
0.061 u
(C)

Solution

Mass defect(m) = 2MP + 2MN – MHe

m = 2 × 1.0074 + 2 × 1.0087 – 4.0015

m = 0.0307

Now as per relation, E = m × 931 MeV

= 0.0307 × 931 = 28.4 MeV
Q.41
A sample of radioactive element has a mass of 10 g at an instant t = 0. The approximate mass of this element in the sample after two mean lives is
(A)
1.35 g
(B)
2.50 g
(C)
3.70 g
(D)
6.30 g
(A)

Solution

Using the relation for mean life.

Given : t = 2t = 2

Then from M = M0e-t = 10e- = = 1.35 g
Q.42
The volume occupied by an atom is greater than the volume of the nucleus by a factor of about
(A)
101
(B)
105
(C)
1010
(D)
1015
(D)

Solution

As V r3

Vatom = Vnucleus

= Vnucleus

= 1015 Vnucleus
Q.43
Solar energy is mainly caused due to
(A)
burning of hydrogen in the oxygen
(B)
fission of uranium present in the Sun
(C)
fusion of protons during synthesis of heavier elements
(D)
gravitational contraction
(C)

Solution

As a result of fusion, enormous amount of heat is liberated which is the main cause of source of solar energy.
Q.44
An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The Coulomb force between the two is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

The charge on hydrogen nucleus q1 = +e

charge on electron, q2 = –e

Coulomb force, F =

=

=
Q.45
A nuclear reaction given by

ZXA z+1YA + 1e0 + represents
(A)
-decay
(B)
-decay
(C)
fusion
(D)
fission
(A)

Solution

It represents -decay.

As Emission of electron (e ) + antineutrino () -decay.
Q.46
In which of the following systems will the radius of the first orbit (n = 1) be minimum ?
(A)
doubly ionized lithium
(B)
singly ionized helium
(C)
deuterium atom
(D)
hydrogen atom
(A)

Solution

As Radius of first orbit, r

for doubly ionized lithium Z (= 3) will be maximum, hence for doubly ionized lithium, r will be minimum.
Q.47
A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light 1 m away. When the source is shifted to 2 m then
(A)
each emitted electron carries one quarter of the initial energy
(B)
number of electrons emitted is half the initial number
(C)
each emitted electron carries half the initial energy
(D)
number of electrons emitted is a quarter of the initial number
(D)

Solution

For a light source of power P watt, the intensity at a distance d is given by

I =

Intensity
Q.48
J.J. Thomson's cathode-ray tube experiment demonstrated that
(A)
cathode rays are streams of negatively charged ions
(B)
all the maas of an atom is essentially in the nucleus
(C)
the e/m of electrons is much greater than the e/m of protons
(D)
the e/m ratio of the cathode-ray particles changes when a different gas is placed in the discharge tube
(C)

Solution



Q.49
A n-p-n transistor conducts when
(A)
both collector and emitter are positive with respect to the base
(B)
collector is positive and emitter is negative with respect to the base
(C)
collector is positive and emitter is at same potential as the base
(D)
both collector and emitter are negative with respect to the base
(B)

Solution

When the collector is positive and emitter is negative with respect to base, it causes the forward biasing for each junction, which causes conduction of current.
Q.50
Reverse bias applied to a junction diode
(A)
lowers the potential barrier
(B)
raises the potential barrier
(C)
increases the majority carrier current
(D)
increases the minority carrier current
(B)

Solution

In reverse bias, the size of the depletion region increases thereby increasing the potential barrier.
Q.51
If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 50 Hz mains, the fundamental frequency in the ripple will be
(A)
25 Hz
(B)
50 Hz
(C)
70.7 Hz
(D)
100 Hz
(D)

Solution

In full wave rectifier the fundamental frequency in ripple is twice of input frequency.
Q.52
Barrier potential of a p-n junction diode does not depened on
(A)
diode design
(B)
temperature
(C)
forward bias
(D)
doping density
(A)

Solution

Barrier potential does not depend in diode design while barrier potential depends upon temperature, doping density and forward biasing.
Chemistry (Maximum Marks: 196)
  • This section contains 49 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
The velocity of Planck's constant is 6.63 1034 J s.

The velocity of light is 3.0 108 m s1. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometers of a quantum of light with frequency of 8 1015 s1 ?
(A)
2 1025
(B)
5 1018
(C)
(D)
3 107
(C)

Solution

= c/

= = = 37.5 10-9 m

= 37.5 nm nm
Q.2
The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions

SO3, S2O and S2O follow the order
(A)
S2O < SO < S2O
(B)
SO < S2O < S2O
(C)
S2O < S2O < SO
(D)
S2O < S2O < SO
(A)

Solution

SO32– : oxidation state of ‘S’ is +4

S2O42– : oxidation state of ‘S’ is +3.

S2O62– : oxidation state of ‘S’ is +5.

So, the order is S2O < SO < S2O.
Q.3
In Haber process 30 litres of dihydrogen and 30 litres of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which yielded only 50% of the expected product. What will be the composition of gaseous mixture underthe aforesaid condition in the end ?
(A)
20 litres ammonia, 20 litres nitrogen, 20 litres hydrogen
(B)
10 litres ammonia, 25 litres nitrogen, 15 litres hydrogen
(C)
20 litres ammonia, 10 litres nitrogen, 30 litres hydrogen
(D)
20 litres ammonia, 25 litres nitrogen, 15 litres hydrogen
(B)

Solution

Balanced chemical equation for Haber's process is as follows :

3H2 + N2 2NH3

It is given that only 50% of the expected product is formed hence only 10 litre of NH3 is formed.

Therefore, composition of gaseous mixture at the end is as follows :

N2 used = 5 litres

N2 left = 30 L – 5 L = 25 L

H2 used = 15 litres,

H2 legt = 30 L – 15 L = 15 L

NH3 = 10 L
Q.4
The equilibrium constants of the following are

N2 + 3H2 2NH3;     K1

N2 + O2 2NO;     K2

H2 + O2 H2O;     K3

The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction :

2NH3 + O2 2NO + 3H2O will be
(A)
K2K33/K1
(B)
K2K3/K1
(C)
K23K3/K1
(D)
K1K33/K2
(A)

Solution

2NH3 N2 + 3H2;     

N2 + O2 2NO;     K2

3H2 + O2 3H2O;     (K3)3

By adding all equations, we get

2NH3 + O2 2NO + 3H2O

K =
Q.5
The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is given by

.

The reaction will proceed from right to left if
(A)
Q = Kc
(B)
Q < Kc
(C)
Q > Kc
(D)
Q = 0
(C)

Solution

For any reaction to process in forward direction the reaction quotient (Q) must be less than equilibrium constant KC.

Q < Kc
Q.6
The solubility product of AgI at 25oC is 1.0 1016 mol2 L2. The solubility of AgI in 104 N solution of KI at 25oC is approximately (in mol L1
(A)
1.0 1016
(B)
1.0 1012
(C)
1.0 1010
(D)
1.0 108
(B)

Solution

AgI Ag+ + I-
s s s


Ksp = s2

1.0 × 10–16 = s2

s = 1.0 × 10–8 mol L–1

[Ag+] = 1.0 × 10–8 mol L–1

Also, in 10–4 N KI solution,

[I–1] = (10–4 + 1.0 × 10–8) mol L–1

[I–1] = (10–4) mol L–1

[As 1.0 × 10–8 mol L–1 << 1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1]

Ksp of AgI = [Ag+][I]

= (1.0 × 10–8)(10–4)

= 1.0 × 10–12 mol L–1
Q.7
What is the entropy change (in J K1 mol1) when one mole of ice is converted into water at 0oC? (The enthalpy change for the conversion of ice to liquid water is 6.0 kJ mol1 at 0oC).
(A)
20.13
(B)
2.013
(C)
2.198
(D)
21.98
(D)

Solution

H2O(s) → H2O(l)

H = 6.0 kJ mol–1

T = 0 + 273 K = 273 K; S = ?

S = = = 21.98 JK–1 mol–1
Q.8
For which one of the following equations is Horeact equal to Hof for the product ?
(A)
Xe(g) + 2F2(g) XeF4(g)
(B)
2CO(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g)
(C)
N2(g) + O3(g) N2O3(g)
(D)
CH4(g) + 2Cl2(g) CH2Cl2(l) + 2HCl(g)
(A)

Solution

Heat of formation, Hof of a substance is the amount of heat absorbed or released when one mole of this substance is formed directly from its constituent elements.

In option (a), one mole of XeF4 is formed from its constituent elements i.e., Xe and F2 thus, the equation has equal value of Hor and Hof .

In option (b), the constituent atoms should be carbon and oxygen only but the reactant used is CO thus,

Hor Hof

In option (c), the reactant used is O3 which is again not in its element form thus,

Hor Hof

In option (d), two products are formed thus

Hor Hof
Q.9
Formation of solution from two components can be considered as
(i) Pure solvent  separated solvent molecules, H1
(ii) Pure solute separated solute molecules, H2
(iii) Separated solvent and solute molecules solution, H3
Solution so formed will be ideal if
(A)
Hsoln = H1 + H2 + H3
(B)
Hsoln = H1 + H2 H3
(C)
Hsoln = H1 H2 H3
(D)
Hsoln = H3 H1 H2
(A)

Solution

For ideal solution,

Hsoln = H1 + H2 + H3
Q.10
The densities of graphite and diamond at 298 K are 2.25 and 3.31 g cm3, respectively. If the standard free energy difference is equal to 1895 J mol1, the pressure at which graphite will be transformed into diamond at 298 K is
(A)
11.14 108 Pa
(B)
11.14 107 Pa
(C)
11.14 106 Pa
(D)
11.14 105 Pa
(A)

Solution

C(graphite) C(diamond)

Volume of graphite = cm3 mol–1

Volume of diamond = cm3 mol–1

V = Vgraphite – Vdiamond

= 1.70 cm3 mol–1

= 1.70 × 10–3 L mol–1

So, Go = PV

1895 J mol–1 = P(1.70 × 10–3 L mol–1)

1114.70 × 103 J/L = P

= P

P = 11000.69 atm × 1.013 × 105 Pa

= 11143.69 × 105 Pa

= 11.14 × 108 Pa
Q.11
The molar heat capacity of water at constant pressure, C, is 75 J K1 mol1. When 1.0 kJ of heat is supplied to 100 g of water which is free to expand, the increase in temperature of water is
(A)
1.2 K
(B)
2.4 K
(C)
4.8 K
(D)
6.6 K
(B)

Solution

As we know, q = nCT

q = 1.0 kJ = 1000 J

C = 75 JK–1 mol–1

m = 100 g ⇒ Number of moles = g mol–1

1000 = 75 T

T = K

T = 2.4 K
Q.12
For the reaction,
C3H8(g) + 5O2(g)  3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
at constant temperature, H E is
(A)
+ RT
(B)
3RT
(C)
+ 3RT
(D)
RT
(B)

Solution

H = E + ng RT

ng = 3 – (1 + 5) = – 3

H = E + (– 3RT)

H – E = – 3RT
Q.13
On the basis of the information available from the reaction,

4/3Al + O2 2/3Al2O3,   G = 827 kJ mol1 of O2,

the minimum e.m.f. required to carry out an electrolysis of Al2O3 is
(F = 96500 C mol1)
(A)
2.14 V
(B)
4.28 V
(C)
6.42 V
(D)
8.56 V
(A)

Solution

4/3Al + O2 2/3Al2O3,   G = 827 kJ mol1

For 1 mol of Al, n = 3

For mol of Al, n =

As G = - nFEo

– 827 × 103 J = – 4 × E° × 96500

Eo = = 2.14 V
Q.14
The e.m.f. of a Daniell cell at 298 K is E1.
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Electrochemistry Question 31 English
When the concentration of ZnSO4 is 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 is 0.01 M, the e.m.f. changed to E2. What is the relationship between E1 and E2?
(A)
E1 > E2
(B)
E1 < E2
(C)
E1 = E2
(D)
E2 = 0 E1
(A)

Solution

Cell reaction is,

Zn + Cu2+ Zn2+ + Cu

Ecell = Eocell -

Greater the factor , less is the EMF.

Hence E1 > E2
Q.15
The reaction A B follows first order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hour. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A to produce 0.675 mole of B?
(A)
1 hour
(B)
0.5 hour
(C)
0.25 hour
(D)
2 hours
(A)

Solution

For first order reaction

k =

k = = 2.303 log 4 ....(1)

Let t1 hour is required for changing the concentration of A from 0.9 mole to 0.675 mole of B.

Remaining mole of A = 0.9 – 0.675 = 0.225

k = .....(2)

From equation (1) and (2)

= 2.303 log 4

= 1 hr
Q.16
The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms of Arrhenius equation, . Activation energy (E) of the reaction can be calculated by plotting
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Arrhenius equation k =

log k = log A -

Comparing it with equation of straight line i.e.,

y = mx + C

On plotting log k vs , we get a straight line, the slope indicates the value of activation energy.
Q.17
The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction A B is E in forward direction.
The activation energy for reverse reaction
(A)
is negative of E
(B)
is always less than E
(C)
can be less than or more than E
(D)
is always double of E
(C)

Solution

The energy of activation of reverse reaction is less than or more than energy of activation E of forward reaction



Because it depends upon the nature of reaction.

If , reaction is endothermic.

or , reaction is exothermic.
Q.18
If the rate of the reaction is equal to the rate constant, the order of the reaction is
(A)
0
(B)
1
(C)
2
(D)
3
(A)

Solution

As r = k[A]n

if n = 0

r = k[A]0

or r = k thus for zero order reactions rate is equal to the rate constant.
Q.19
The radioistope, tritium (H) has a half-life of 12.3 years. If the initial amount of tritium is 32 mg, how many milligrams of it would remain after 49.2 years?
(A)
1 mg
(B)
2 mg
(C)
4 mg
(D)
8 mg
(B)

Solution

Given t1/2 = 12.3 years

Initial amount (N0) = 32 mg

Total time = 49.2 years

No. of half lives(n) =

N = N0 = = 2 mg
Q.20
The pyknometric density of sodium chloride crystal is 2.165 103 kg m3 while its X-ray density is 2.178 103 kg m3. The fraction of unoccupied sites in sodium chloride crystal is
(A)
5.96
(B)
5.96 102
(C)
5.96 101
(D)
5.96 103
(D)

Solution

Molar volume from pyknometric density

= m3

Molar volume from X-ray density

= m3

Volume unoccupied

= m3

Fraction unoccupied

=

= 5.96 10-3
Q.21
According to the adsorption theory of catalysis, the speed of the reaction increases because
(A)
the concentration of reactant molecules at the active centres of the catalyst becomes high due to adsorption
(B)
in the process of adsorption , the activation energy of the molecules becomes large
(C)
adsorption produces heat which increases the speed of the reaction
(D)
adsorption lowers the activation energy of the reaction.
(D)

Solution

The speed of the reaction increases because adsorption lowers the activation energy of the reaction.
Q.22
The ions O2, F, Na+, Mg2+ and Al3+ are isoelectronic. Their ionic radii show
(A)
a significant increase from O2 to Al3+
(B)
a significant decrease from O2 to Al3+
(C)
an increase from O2 to F and then decrease from Na+ to Al3+
(D)
a decrease from O2 to F and then increase from Na+ to Al3+.
(B)

Solution

Amongst isoelectronic ions, ionic radii of anions is more than that of cations. Further size of the anion increases with increase in -ve charge and size of cation decreases with increase in +ve charge. Hence, the correct order is

O2- > F- > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
Q.23
Which one of the following statements is not correct for sigma- and pi- bonds formed between two carbon atoms?
(A)
sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond.
(B)
Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol, respectively
(C)
Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond.
(D)
Sigma-bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary effect in this regard.
(B)

Solution

As sigma bond is stronger than the (pi) bond, so it must be having higher bond energy than (pi) bond.
Q.24
The method of zone refining of metals is based on the principle of
(A)
greater mobility of the pure metal than that of the impurity
(B)
higher melting point of the impurity than that of the pure metal
(C)
greater noble character of the solid metal than that of the impurity
(D)
greater solubility of the impurity in the molten state than in the solid
(D)
Q.25
The structure of H2O2 is
(A)
spherical
(B)
non-planar
(C)
planar
(D)
linear
(B)

Solution

In H2O2 , the O–H groups are not in the same plane. So it has non-planar structure. It has a half-opened book structure in which the two O–H groups lie on the two pages of the book. The angle between two pages of the book is 94o and H–O–O bond angle is 97o. AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Hydrogen Question 7 English Explanation
Q.26
Which one of the following statements is not true?
(A)
Among halide ions, iodide is the most powerful reducing agent.
(B)
Fluorine is the only halogen that does not show a variable oxidation state.
(C)
HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr.
(D)
HF is a stronger acid than HCl.
(D)

Solution

F is more electronegative than Cl therefore HF bond is stronger than HCl and hence proton is not given off easily and hence HF is a weakest acid.
Q.27
Which one of the following compounds is not a protonic acid?
(A)
B(OH)3
(B)
PO(OH)3
(C)
SO(OH)2
(D)
SO2(OH)2
(A)

Solution

B(OH)3 does not provide H+ ions in water instead it accepts OH ion and hence it is Lewis acid.

B(OH)3 + H2O ⇌ [B(OH)4]- + H+
Q.28
The correct order of ionic radii of Y3+, La3+, Eu3+ and Lu3+ is
(Atomic nos. Y = 39, La = 57, Eu = 63, Lu = 71)
(A)
Y3+ < La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+
(B)
Y3+ < Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+
(C)
Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+ < Y3+
(D)
La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+ < Y3+
(B)

Solution

In lanthanide series there is a regular decrease in the atomic as well as ionic radii of trivalent ions (M3+) as the atomic number increases. Although the atomic radii do show some irregularities but ionic radii decreases from La(103 pm) to Lu (86pm).
Q.29
The basic character of the transition metal monoxides follows the order
(Atomic no's. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Fe = 26)
(A)
VO > CrO > TiO > FeO
(B)
CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
(C)
TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
(D)
TiO > VO > CrO > FeO
(D)

Solution

The basic character of the transition metal monoxide is
TiO > VO > CrO > FeO because basic character of oxides decrease with increase in atomic number. Oxides of transitional metals in low oxidation state i.e., + 2 and + 3 are generally basic except Cr2O3.
Q.30
Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with their catalytic activity?
(A)
High enthalpy of atomization
(B)
Paramagnetic behaviour
(C)
Colour of hydrated ions
(D)
Variable oxidation states
(D)

Solution

The catalytic activity of transitional metals is due to their variable oxidation states.
Q.31
Among the following which is not the -bonded organometallic compound?
(A)
K [PtCl3 (2 C2H4)]
(B)
Fe (5 C5H5)2
(C)
Cr (6 C6H6)2
(D)
(CH3)4Sn
(D)

Solution

-bonded organometallic compound includes organometallic compounds of alkenes, alkynes and some other carbon containing compounds having electrons in their p orbitals.
Q.32
The number of unpaired electrons in the complex ion [CoF6]3 is
(Atomic no. : Co = 27)
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
zero
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 53 English Explanation
Thus, the number of unpaired electrons = 4.
Q.33
Which of the following pairs of compounds are enantiomers?
(A)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 43 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 43 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 43 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 43 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

These two are non-superimposable mirror images of each other, so they are enantiomers.
Q.34
Name of the compound given below is
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 60 English
(A)
4-ethyl-3-methyloctane
(B)
3-methyl-4-ethyloctane
(C)
2, 3-diethylheptane
(D)
5-ethyl-6-methyloctane
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 60 English Explanation
Q.35
Which one of the following orders of acid strength is correct ?
(A)
RCOOH > ROH > HOH > HC CH
(B)
RCOOH > HOH > ROH > HC CH
(C)
RCOOH > HOH > HC CH > ROH
(D)
RCOOH > HC CH > HOH > ROH
(B)

Solution

Carboxylic acid is much stronger than water and alcohol. Since the carboxylate ion after the removal of proton is stabilised by resonating structures as higher is the tendency to donate proton, stronger is the acid.

The – OH in alcohols is almost neutral.

Acetylene is also weakest acid.

Thus the correct order is

RCOOH > HOH > ROH > HC CH

depending upon the rate of donation of proton.
Q.36
Which one of the following is a free-radical substitution reaction ?
(A)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 29 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 29 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 29 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 29 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 29 English Explanation
Q.37
The correct order of reactivity towards the electrophilic substitution of the compounds aniline (I), benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is
(A)
III > II > I
(B)
II > III > I
(C)
I < II > III
(D)
I > II > III
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 28 English Explanation

–NH2 group is electron donating hence increases electron density on ring. Benzene is also electron rich due to delocalisation of electrons. –NO2 group is electron withdrawing hence, decreases electron density on ring. Thus, correct order for electrophilic substitution is I II III.
Q.38
The compound
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 30 English
on reaction with NaIO4 in the presence of KMnO4 gives
(A)
CH3COCH3
(B)
CH3COCH3 + CH3COOH
(C)
CH3COCH3 + CH3CHO
(D)
CH3CHO + CO2
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 30 English Explanation
Q.39
and in the following reactions are :
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 48 English
(A)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 48 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 48 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 48 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 48 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 48 English Explanation
Q.40
In this reaction :
CH3CHO + HCN CH3CH(OH)CN
            CH3CH(OH)COOH
an asymmetric centre is generated. The acid obtained would be
(A)
-isomer
(B)
-isomer
(C)
50% + 50% -isomer
(D)
20% + 80% -isomer
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 50 English Explanation
Q.41
When -chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH solution, the product(s) obtained is (are)
(A)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 49 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 49 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 49 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 49 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 49 English Explanation

It is a Cannizzaro reaction.
Q.42
In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded a product C.
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 47 English
Product would be
(A)
CH3CH(OH)C2H5
(B)
CH3COC6H6
(C)
CH3CH(OH)C6H5
(D)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 47 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 47 English Explanation
Q.43
The final product C, obtained in this reaction
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 27 English
would be
(A)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 27 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 27 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 27 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 27 English Option 4
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 27 English Explanation
Q.44
Which one of the following monomers gives the polymer neoprene on polymerization?
(A)
CH2CHCl
(B)
CCl2CCl2
(C)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Polymers Question 20 English Option 3
(D)
CF2CF2
(C)

Solution

Chloroprene (2-chloro-1, 3-butadiene) on addition polymerisation gives neoprene.
Q.45
Acrilan is a hard, horny and a high melting material. Which one of the following represents its structure?
(A)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Polymers Question 21 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Polymers Question 21 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Polymers Question 21 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Polymers Question 21 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

Acrilan is an addition polymer of acrylonitrile. AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Polymers Question 21 English Explanation
Q.46
Chargaff's rule states that in an organism
(A)
amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of thymine (T) and the amount of guanine (G) is equal to that of cytosine (C)
(B)
amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of guanine (G) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of cytosine (C)
(C)
amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of cytosine (C) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of guanine (G)
(D)
amounts of all bases are equal.
(A)

Solution

Amount of A = T and amount of G = C, this is stated by Chargaff’s rule.
Q.47
Glycolysis is
(A)
oxidation of glucose to glutamate
(B)
conversion of pyruvate to citrate
(C)
oxidation of glucose to pyruvate
(D)
conversion of glucose to haem.
(C)

Solution

Glycolysis is the oxidation of glucose. It is an anaerobic process and involves the degradation of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate with the generation of two molecules of ATP.
Q.48
Phospholipids are esters of glycerol with
(A)
three carboxylic acid residues
(B)
two carboxylic acid residues and one phosphate group
(C)
one carboxylic acid residue and two phosphate groups
(D)
three phosphate groups.
(B)

Solution

Phospholipids are derivatives of glycerol in which two of the hydroxyl groups are esterified with fatty acids while the third is esterified with some derivative of phosphoric acid with some alcohol such as choline, ethanolamine, serine or inositol. AIPMT 2003 Chemistry - Biomolecules Question 32 English Explanation
Q.49
Vitamin B12 contains
(A)
Fe (II)
(B)
Co (III)
(C)
Zn (II)
(D)
Ca (II)
(B)

Solution

Vit B12 also called Cyanocobaltamin, is anti-pernicious anaemia vitamin.
Biology (Maximum Marks: 372)
  • This section contains 93 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by :-
(A)
All eukaryotic cells
(B)
Only gymnosperm cells
(C)
Only bacterial cells
(D)
All plant cells
(D)

Solution

Totipotency is the ability of a living somatic plant cell to develop into a complete plant. It was first demonstrated by Steward et. al. (1964) using phloem cells of carrot. This technique is now used for multiplying rare and endangered plants through micro-propagations. This technique is widely used for multiplying plants e.g., Chrysanthemum, Dioscorea floribunda, Coleus, Crotons, carnation plants etc.
Q.2
The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as
(A)
co-factors of enzymes
(B)
building blocks of important amino acids
(C)
constituent of hormones
(D)
binder of cell structure.
(A)

Solution

Minor elements are those which are required by plants in very small amounts. These elements have a significant role in enzyme activities (zinc activates carboxylases, carbonic anhydrase and various dehydrogenases).
Q.3
In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to
(A)
only the wall of the spoeangium
(B)
both wall and the sporogenous cells
(C)
wall and the tapetum
(D)
only tapetum and sporogenous cells.
(B)

Solution

In flowering plants, archesporium cells undergo periclinal (transverse) division to form outer primary parietal layer and inner sporogenous cells. Primary parietal wall after few more periclinal divisions form anther wall and sporogenous cells give rise to sporogenous tissue.
Q.4
During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, such as in producing biogas, which one of the following is left undergraded : -
(A)
Lignin
(B)
Cellulose
(C)
Hemi-cellulose
(D)
Lipids
(A)

Solution

Lignin is a complex polymer of phenylpropane units, which are cross-linked to each other with a variety of different chemical bonds.
Q.5
Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the production of : -
(A)
Interfereons
(B)
Vaccines
(C)
Edible proteins
(D)
Insulin
(B)

Solution

Maximum application of animal cell culture technology is in the production of vaccines. Vaccines are chemical substances prepared from the proteins of other animals which confer immunity to a particular virus. Some of the vaccines synthesized biologically through genetic engineering are vaccines for hepatitis-B virus, vaccines for rabies virus, vaccines for poliovirus and vaccines for small pox virus, etc.
Q.6
The cells of the quiescent centre are characterised by : -
(A)
Having light cytoplasm and small nuclei
(B)
Dividing regularly to add to tunica
(C)
Having dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei
(D)
Dividing regularly to add to the corpus
(A)

Solution

The cells of queiscent centre have lower concentration of DNA, RNA and protein as compared to other cells in the root apex. These cells do not divide, hence cytoplasm is light and nuclei are small in them. This concept is based upon quiescent centre theory proposed by Clowes (1961).
Q.7
Diffuse porous wood is characteristics of those plants which are growing in : -
(A)
Tropics
(B)
Temperate climate
(C)
Alpine region
(D)
Cold winter regions
(A)

Solution

In most of the gymnosperms, like conifers and cycads, vessels are absent and the wood is made entirely of tracheids. Such wood is known as nonporous.
In angiosperms, on the other hand, the wood consists of both tracheids and vessels. The wide vessels appear as pores between otherwise small sized tracheary elements. Such a wood is known as porous. In porous wood, if vessels have essentially equal diameters and are uniformly distributed throughout the ring, the wood is known as diffuse porous. It is characteristic of plants growing in tropics.
Q.8
Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the : -
(A)
Mycelium of a green mould such as Aspergillus
(B)
Pollen tube of Pinus
(C)
Cytoplasm of Chlorella
(D)
Spore capsule of a moss
(D)

Solution

Chlorenchyma cells are those parenchymatous cell which contain chloroplast in them. They are capable of photosynthesis. A spore capsule of moss can perform photosynthesis, thus chlorenchyma are present in them.
Q.9
The aleurone layer in maize grain is specially rich in :-
(A)
Lipids
(B)
Proteins
(C)
Auxins
(D)
Starch
(B)

Solution

In monocotyledons the seeds are generally endospermous. The internal structure of grain can be studied in a longitudinal section. It shows two distinct regions upper large region, the endosperm and lower smaller region, the embryo. The endosperm is surrounded by a special one cell thick layer, called aleurone layer. It is filled with aleurone grains which are proteinaceous in nature. Other components of this layer are phytin, carbohydrates and small amounts of phospholipids are also present.
Q.10
In which one of the following nitrogen is not a constituent ?
(A)
Pepsin
(B)
Invertase
(C)
Idioblast
(D)
Bacteriochlorophyll
(C)

Solution

The major storage component of Avocado fruit is oil. It is stored in specialized mesocarp cells called idioblast.
Q.11
The apical meristem of the root is present
(A)
In all the roots
(B)
Only in tap roots
(C)
Only in adventitious roots
(D)
Only in radicals
(A)

Solution

The apical meristem of the root is present at all the root tips. Apical meristem is subterminal in position of the growing root tips and responsible for terminal growth of the root in plants.
Q.12
Stomata of a plant open due to
(A)
influx of potassium ions
(B)
efflux of potassium ions
(C)
influx of hydrogen ions
(D)
influx of calcium ions.
(A)

Solution

During day time, due to photosynthesis, malic acid forms, which breaks into H+ and malate. H+ ions move out of guard cells and K+ ions enter forming potassium malate which makes guard cells turgid and stomata opens.
Q.13
Gray spots of oat are caused by deficiency of
(A)
Cu
(B)
Zn
(C)
Mn
(D)
Fe
(C)

Solution

Gray spot diseases of oat is caused due to deficiency of manganese. Its symptoms include greyish - brown elongated specks and streaks, empty panicles, interveinal chlorosis on stem and leaves. The symptoms that occur only on leaves are irregular, greyish brown lesions which coalesce and bring about collapse of leaf. This is called grey speck symptom.
Q.14
Boron in green plants assists in
(A)
activation of enzymes
(B)
acting as enzyme co-factor
(C)
photossynthesis
(D)
sugar transport.
(D)

Solution

Manganese is an activator of enzymes. Copper is essential for photosynthesis. Molybdenum is a cofactor of enzymes. Boron assists in sugar transport.
Q.15
In which one of the following do the two names refer to one and same thing?
(A)
Krebs' cycle and Calvin cycle
(B)
Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle
(C)
Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle
(D)
Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle
(B)

Solution

TCA cycle is so called because the first stable product formed in the cycle is a tricarboxylic acid molecule, that is, citric acid. Hence, the name citric acid cycle. It is also called the Krebs cycle as it was discovered by Krebs.
Q.16
In alcohol fermentation
(A)
triose phosphate is the electron donar while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor
(B)
triose phosphate is the electron donar while pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor
(C)
there is no electron donar
(D)
oxygen is the electron acceptor.
(A)

Solution

In alcohol fermentation triose phosphate is the electron donor while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor.
Q.17
Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants ?
(A)
Xanthomonas citri
(B)
Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(C)
Bacillus coagulens
(D)
Clostridium septicum
(B)

Solution

Agrobacterium tumefaciens has been extensively used in genetic engineering experiments. It is the causative agent of crown gall, an important disease of many commercial crops. This disease has come to be recognized in recent years as being caused by a DNA plasmid (Ti plasmid) carried by bacterium and transferred to the plant cells. Following the discovery of the relationship between crown gall and the Ti plasmid, this plasmid has come to be widely used in plant genetic engineering as a vector in order to inject a novel gene in host plant to form a transgenic plant.
Q.18
In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of mt-DNA and Y chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution, because : -
(A)
They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination
(B)
They can be studied from the samples of fossil remains
(C)
Their structure is known in greater detail
(D)
They are small, and therefore, easy to study
(A)

Solution

Sequence of both mtDNA and Y chromosomes are considered for the study of human evolution because they are uniparental in origin. mtDNA is inherited along with the maternal cytoplasm and Y chromosome is inherited from father. So they do not take part in recombination. In addition, mtDNA has a higher mutation rate than nuclear DNA so that it is more useful for short term evolutionary studies.
Q.19
Which endangered animal is the source of the world's finest, lightest, warmest and most expensive wool - the shahtoosh ?
(A)
Kashmiri goat
(B)
Chir
(C)
Nilgai
(D)
Cheetal
(B)

Solution

Chiru or the Tibetan antelope (Pantholops hodgsoni) is medium-sized bovid which is about 1.2 m in height. Its coat is grey to reddish brown, with a white underside. The Chiru’s wool, known as the shahtoosh, is worm, soft and fine. The wool can only be obtained by killing the animal. It is listed as endangered by the world conservation union and the United States Fish and Wildlife Service due to commercial poaching for its wool.
Q.20
Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species ?
(A)
Fishes
(B)
Mammals
(C)
Birds
(D)
Reptiles
(B)

Solution

IUCN Red List (2004) documents the extinction of 784 species (including 338 vertebrate species, 359 invertebrate species and 87 plant species) in the last 500 years. On worldwide basis, more than 15,500 species are facing the threat of extinction. At present, 12% of the bird species, 23% of mammal species, 32% of amphibian species and 31% of gymnosperm species are facing the threat of extinction in the world. Several endangered mammalian species are Panthera pandus (Leopard), Panthera leo persica (Lion), Presbytis pilaetus (capped langur) etc.
Q.21
Biosystematics aims at
(A)
the classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters
(B)
delmiting various raxa of organisms and establishing their relationships
(C)
the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totally of various parameters from all fields of studies
(D)
identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics.
(C)

Solution

Biosystematics is the study of diversity of organism and all their comparative and evolutionary relationships.
Q.22
Species are considered as
(A)
real basic units of classification
(B)
the lowest units of classification
(C)
artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms
(D)
real units of classification devised by taxonomists.
(A)

Solution

Species is a natural population or group of natural populations of individuals which are genetically distinct and reproductively isolated with similar essential morphological traits.

Species is also a genetically closed system because its members do not interbreed with members of other species. Species is lowest or basic taxonomic category, e.g., mango (Mangifera indica), potato (Solanum tuberosum), lion (Panthera leo).

Here indica, tuberosum, leo are species of genera Mangifera, Solanum and Panthera respectively. All other taxonomic categories are defined and described in relation to species.

For example, a genus is a group of species and a subspecies or a variety is a part of species. New species originate from already existing species. Species is considered basic unit of taxonomy since in the greater majority of cases we do not have intraspecific names.
Q.23
Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct?
(A)
Viruses possess their own metabolic system.
(B)
All viruses contain both RNA and DNA .
(C)
Viruses are obligate parasites.
(D)
Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid.
(C)

Solution

Virus is a nucleoprotein entity which becomes active only inside a living cells utilizing the latter machinery for multiplication. Capsid is the protein covering the genetic material.
Q.24
Chromosomes in a bactertial cell can be 1 3 in number and
(A)
are always circular
(B)
are always linear
(C)
can be either circular or linear, but never both within the same cell
(D)
can be circular as well as linear within the same cell.
(A)

Solution

Prokaryotes (bacteria) have only circular chromosomes.
Q.25
In which kingdom would you classify the archaea and nitrogen-fixing organisms, if the five-kingdom system of classification is used?
(A)
Plantae
(B)
Fungi
(C)
Protista
(D)
Monera
(D)

Solution

The Kingdom Monera includes all prokaryotes. They are basically unicellular but can be mycelial, colonial and filamentous. They contain peptidogycan in cell wall. Naked circular DNA coiled to form nucleoid without association with histones, ribosomes 70S, thylakoids present in photoautotrophs but other membrane bound organelles are absent.

Nutrition is of various types - parasitic, chemoautotrophic, photoautotrophic and saprobic. Some monerans have the ability to fix nitrogen. Due to presence of these characters in archaea and nitrogen-fixing organisms they are placed under monera.

All others fungi, plantae, protists and animalia are eukaryotic.
Q.26
Phenetic classification of organisms is based on
(A)
observable characteristics of rxisting organisms
(B)
the ancestral lineage of existing organisms
(C)
denodrogram based on DNA characteristics
(D)
sexual characteristics.
(A)

Solution

Phenetic classification is based upon observable characteristics of an organism. Phylogenetic system of classification is a system indicating the evolutionary or phylogenetic relationship of organisms
Q.27
Viruses are no more ''alive'' than isolated chromosomes because
(A)
They require both RNA and DNA
(B)
they both need food molecules
(C)
they both require oxygen for respiration
(D)
both require the environment of a cell to replicate.
(D)

Solution

Viruses can live only inside the host cell, using their machinery for its own metabolism.
Q.28
Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size
(A)
300 10 nm
(B)
300 5 nm
(C)
300 20 nm
(D)
700 30 nm
(C)

Solution

Tobacco mosaic virus is 300 nm long and 20 nm in diameter.
Q.29
Juicy hair-like structures observed in the lemon fruit develop from
(A)
exocarp
(B)
mesocarp
(C)
endocarp
(D)
mesocarp and endocarp.
(C)

Solution

The juicy hair – like structures in the lemon fruit develop from the inner side of endocarp (from the placenta).
Q.30
Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration?
(A)
It occurs in chloroplast
(B)
It occurs in day time only
(C)
It is a characteristic of C4 plants
(D)
It is a characteristic of C3 plants.
(C)

Solution

During day time, due to photosynthesis CO2 concentration is low.
Q.31
In sugarcane plant 14CO2 is fixed to malic acid, in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is
(A)
ribulose biphosphate carboxylase
(B)
phosphoenal pyruvic acid carboxylase
(C)
ribulose phosphate kinase
(D)
fructose phosphate.
(B)

Solution

C4 pathway was first reported in members of Family Gramineae (grasses) like sugarcane, maize, sorghum, etc. In C4 plants, PEPCo (PEP carboxylase) is the key enzyme used to fix CO2 in C4 plants.Oxaloacetic acid is a 4-C compound and is the first stable product so this pathway is known as C4 cycle.
Q.32
Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of the higher plants?
(A)
Blue and green
(B)
Green and red
(C)
Red and violet
(D)
Violet and blue.
(D)

Solution

Carotenoids of higher plants are fat soluble compounds that include carotenes and xanthophylls. Most of them absorb light of violet and blue range. Green light is absorbed in less amount.
Q.33
Which element is located at the centre of the porphyrin ring in chlorophyll?
(A)
Calcium
(B)
Magnesium
(C)
potassium
(D)
Manganese
(B)

Solution

Chlorophyll is the green pigment present in plants and some photosynthetic bacteria. The empirical formula of chlorophyll-a molecule is C55H72O5N4Mg. It consist of a porphyrin head and a phytol tail. Porphyrin is a cyclic tetrapyrrole structure, having a magnesium atom in the centre. Tail consists of phytol alcohol and it is attached with one of the pyrrole rings.
Q.34
Which one of the following concerns photophosphorylation?
(A)
ADP + AMP ATP
(B)
ADP + Inorganic PQ4 ATP
(C)
ADP + Inorganic PQ4 ATP
(D)
AMP + Inorganic PQ4 ATP
(B)

Solution

The light dependent production of ATP from ADP + Pi in the chloroplasts is called photophosphorylation. Photophosphorylation is of 2 types – Cyclic photophosphorylation – It involves only PS-I, water is not utilised and so no oxygen is evolved. Here two ATP molecules are produced.
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation – It involves both PS-I and PS-II, water is utilised and so oxygen is evolved. Here one ATP molecule and one NADPH2 molecule are produced.
Q.35
Stomata of CAM plants
(A)
are always open
(B)
open during the day and close at night
(C)
open during the might and close during the day
(D)
never open.
(C)

Solution

To conserve water, the stomata of CAM plants open during night to take up CO2 and store it in the form of malic acid which is utilised during the time of photosynthesis.
Q.36
The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are now known to be located on how many different chromosomes ?
(A)
Six
(B)
Seven
(C)
Five
(D)
Four
(D)

Solution

The seven traits are now know to be present on 4 chromosome. But they do not show linkage, because of large distances between them on the chromosome.
Q.37
In Drosophila, the sex is determined by : -
(A)
X and Y chromosomes
(B)
Whether the egg is fertilized or develops parthenogenetically
(C)
The ratio of number of X-chromosomes to the sets of autosomes
(D)
The ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the pairs of autosomes
(D)

Solution

According to genic balance theory of sex determination the ratio between the number of X-chromosomes and number of complete sets of autosomes will determine the sex. The X-chromosome is believed to carry female tendency genes, while autosomes carry male tendency genes. Both these sets of genes start functioning and there has to be a balance between them for an individual to become male or female. If the ratio between X and A is 1.0 it will be a female individual and when it is 0.5, it would be male.
Q.38
Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in human males are examples of : -
(A)
Sex limited traits
(B)
Sex influenced traits
(C)
Sex determining traits
(D)
Sex linked traits
(B)

Solution

Sex influenced traits are autosomal traits that are influenced by sex. If a male has one recessive allele, he will show that trait, but it will take two recessive alleles for the female to show that same trait e.g. pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in males. Sex linked traits are those traits determining genes of which are found on the sex chromosomes. Sex limited traits are the traits which are expressed in a particular sex though their genes also occur in the other sex e.g., milk secretion in mammalian females.
Q.39
Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the sources of the gametes are reversed in one cross, is known as : -
(A)
Reciprocal cross
(B)
Reverse cross
(C)
Test cross
(D)
Dihybrid cross
(A)

Solution

A reciprocal cross means that the same two parent are used in two experiments in such a way that if in one experiment A is used as the female parent and B is used as the male parent then in the other experiment A will be used as the male parent and B as the female parent. Thus the sources of gametes are reversed. When the F1 individuals obtained in a cross is crossed with the recessive parent, it is called a test cross. When inheritance of two pairs of contrasting character is studied simultaeneously it is called dihybrid cross.
Q.40
Down's syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome number 21. What percentage of offspring produced by an affected mother and a normal father would be affected by this disorder ?
(A)
50%
(B)
100%
(C)
75%
(D)
25%
(A)

Solution

Down’s syndrome is the example of autosomal aneuploidy. Here, an extra copy of chromosome 21 occurs. As it is an autosomal disease, the offsprings produced from affected mother and normal father should be 50%.
Q.41
Which one of the following conditions though harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour from a mosquito borne infectious disease ?
(A)
Pernicius anaemia
(B)
Thalassaemia
(C)
Leukemia
(D)
Sickle cell anaemia
(D)

Solution

A sickle cell anaemia affected person is more resistant to mosquito born infectious disease because the sickle - cell shaped RBCs are hostile to the protozoa Plasmodium.
Q.42
Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature ?
(A)
Green seed colour
(B)
Green pod colour
(C)
Axial flower position
(D)
Round seed shape
(A)

Solution

Yellow seed colour is dominant over green seed colour.
Q.43
During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in : -
(A)
Association of 30S mRNA with formy-lmet-tRNA
(B)
Formation of formyl-met-tRNA
(C)
Association of 50S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex
(D)
Binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
(A)

Solution

For the formation of initiation complex during translation of mRNA, GTP is also required. The initiator AUG codes for the formylmethionine in prokaryotes.
Q.44
During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called :-
(A)
Receptor
(B)
Regulator
(C)
Enhancer
(D)
Promoter
(D)

Solution

Regulator is a gene which forms a biochemical for suppressing the activity of operator gene. Promoter is the gene which provides the point of attachment to RNA polymerase required for transcription of structural genes.
Q.45
In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids : -
(A)
64
(B)
20
(C)
60
(D)
61
(D)

Solution

Out of a total of 64 codons, 3 codons do not make any sense. Hence only 61 codons are used in the formation of the 20 essential amino acids (polypeptides).
Q.46
What does "lac" refer to in what we call the lac operon ?
(A)
The number 1,00,000
(B)
Lac insect
(C)
Lactase
(D)
Lactose
(D)

Solution

Lactose operon in E.coli is a catabolic pathway in which the structural genes remain switched off unless the inducer (Lactose) is present in the medium.
Q.47
What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to UAA ?
(A)
A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed
(B)
A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed
(C)
Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed
(D)
A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
(D)

Solution

UGA, UAG and UAA are three non sense (or termination) codon which do not code for any amino acid. If in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acid, 25th codon is mutated to UAA or any of the termination codon, then the chain will be terminated at that place because it will become difficult for tRNA to bring amino acid from amino acid pool. So in that case a polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed.
Q.48
Which one of the following triplet codes, is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein synthesis or as 'start' or 'stop' codon ?
(A)
UUU – Stop
(B)
UAC – Tyrosine
(C)
UGU – Leucine
(D)
UCG – Start
(B)

Solution

AUG is initiating codon. UCG codes for serine, UUU codes for phenylalan, UGU codes for cysteine.
Q.49
Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the : -
(A)
Second member of a codon
(B)
Third member of a codon
(C)
First member of a codon
(D)
Entire codon
(B)

Solution

According to the Wobble hypothesis, tRNA anticodon has the ability to wobble at its 5′ end by pairing with even noncomplementary base of mRNA codon. It correspond to third base degeneracy of the codons.
Q.50
ELISA is used to detect viruses, wherethe key reagent is :-
(A)
Alkaline phosphatase
(B)
Southern
(C)
DNA probes
(D)
Catalase
(A)

Solution

ELISA test is a technique used to detect and quantitate extremely small amount of a protein, antibody or antigen with the help of enzyme. The commonly used enzymes are peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase. Southern blotting and DNA probes are used in molecular analysis of DNA. Catalase is not involved in ELISA.
Q.51
Mycorrhiza is an example of :-
(A)
Ectoparasitism
(B)
Decomposers
(C)
Endoparasitism
(D)
Symbiotic relationship
(D)

Solution

In mutalism or symbiosis both the organisms in association are mutually benefitted and further this association is obligatory, i.e., necessary for existence of both organisms. Mycorrhiza is a example of symbiosis. It is association between roots of higher plants and fungal hyphae. The fungal hyphae supply water and nutrients to the plant and in turn get food form the plant. So both the organism are mutually benefitted.
Q.52
Escherichia coli is used as an indicator organism to determine pollution of water with ;-
(A)
Faecal matter
(B)
Pollen of aquatic plants
(C)
Heavy metals
(D)
Industrial effluents
(A)

Solution

E. coli grows in water polluted by sewage and domestic waste.
Q.53
Fluoride pollutions mainly affects : -
(A)
Heart
(B)
Kidney
(C)
Brain
(D)
Teeth
(D)

Solution

Fluorides are given out during refining of materials. Fluorides cause fluorosis. It is a disease which is defined by mottling of teeth, abnormal bones that are liable to fracture because fluorine replaces Ca2+ and makes the bones brittle. Fluoride pollution is a serious problem in many districts of Rajasthan, where excess of fluoride in water adversely affects the health of man. Many villagers have aged prematurely or became hunch backs.
Q.54
Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers?
(A)
Fern and Funaria
(B)
Funaria and Ficus
(C)
Ficus and Chlamydomonas
(D)
Funaria and Pinus
(A)

Solution

Pteridophytes (fern) and bryophytes (Funaria) are seedless plants. Gymnosperms (pines) and angiosperms (Ficus) are seed bearing plants.
Q.55
Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an advanced feature because it shows
(A)
different sizes of motile sex organs
(B)
same size of motile sex organs
(C)
morphologically different sex organs
(D)
physiologically differentiated sex organs.
(D)

Solution

Spirogyra is a freshwater green alga which belongs to Class Chlorophyceae. The sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called conjugation. It involves the fusion of two morphologically identical but physiologically dissimilar non-ciliated gametes.

For development of gametes, some of the cells start to act like male and female gametangia in which the cell contents become separated from the cell wall, shrink and ultimately forms gametes. The fusion of these gametes takes place by scalariform conjugation or lateral conjugation.
Q.56
Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses and ferns are grouped under the general term
(A)
cryptogams
(B)
bryophytes
(C)
sporophytes
(D)
thallophytes.
(A)

Solution

The plants which reproduce by spores and do not produce seeds are called cryptogams. The term cryptogams is made of 2 Greek words ie. Kryptos (hidden) + gamos (marriage). These include Bryophytes (mosses) and Pteridophytes (ferns).
Q.57
Which one pair of examples will correctly represent the grouping spermatophyta according to one of the schemes of classifying plants?
(A)
Acacia, sugarcane
(B)
Pinus, Cycas
(C)
Rhizopus, Tritticum
(D)
Ginkgo, Pisum
(D)

Solution

Spermatophyta includes seed bearing plants and this includes gymnosperms and angiosperms. Acacia and sugarcane both are angiosperms. Pinus and Cycas both are gymnosperms. Rhizopus belongs to Kingdom Fungi and Tritcum is an angiosperm. Ginkgo is gymnosperm and Pisum is an angiosperm. So Ginkgo and Pisum correctly represent the grouping spermatophyta.
Q.58
Coconut milk factor is
(A)
abscisic acid
(B)
an auxin
(C)
a gibberellin
(D)
cytokinin
(D)

Solution

Many experiments were done to sustain the proliferation of normal stem tissues in culture. The growth of culture was most dramatic when the liquid endosperm of coconut, also known as coconut milk, was added to the culture medium. This finding indicated that coconut milk contains a substance or substances that stimulate mature cells to enter and remain in the cell division cycle.

Eventually coconut milk was shown to contain the cytokinin zeatin, but this finding was not obtained until several years after the discovery of the cytokinins. The first cytokinin to be discovered was the synthetic analog kinetin.
Q.59
Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N.tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offspring. What is the best reason for considering N.sylvestris and N.tabacum to be separate species?
(A)
They cannot interbreed in nature
(B)
They are reproductively distinct
(C)
They are physiologically distinct
(D)
They are morphologically distinct
(A)

Solution

Similar species show interbreeding characters, i.e., two organisms which breed freely in nature to produce fertile offsprings belong to the same species. The two species are considered separate because they are reproductively distinct.
Q.60
Differentiation of shoot is controlled by
(A)
high auxin : cytokinin ratio
(B)
high cytokinin : auxin ratio
(C)
high gibberellin : auxin ration
(D)
high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio.
(B)

Solution

Differentiation of root is controlled by high auxin concentration. While in tissue culture, auxin concentration is made high to promote rooting.
Q.61
Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone
(A)
auxin
(B)
cytokinin
(C)
ethylene
(D)
abscisic acid.
(A)

Solution

Zinc is available to the plants for absorption in the divalent form. It occurs in the form of minerals as hornblende, magnetite, biotite, etc., from where it is released by weathering. It is involved in the synthesis of Indole-acetic acid in plants. It is an activator in the enzyme tryptophan synthetase. Tryptophan is the precursor of Indole-acetic acid.
Q.62
Which of the following plants are used as green manure in crop fields and in sandy soils ?
(A)
Calotropis procera and Phyllanthus niruri
(B)
Dichanthium annulatum and Azolla nilotica
(C)
Saccharum munja and Lantana camara
(D)
Crotalaria juncea and Alhagi camelorum
(D)

Solution

Green manures are fast growing herbaceous crops which are ploughed down and mixed with the soil while still green for enrichment of soil. These provide both organic matter and nitrogen to the soil, in which Indian soils are generally poor. The green manure checks soil erosion by forming protective soil cover and also prevents leaching. Increase in yield by 30-50% has been observed by use of green manures. Some important green manure crops, which are mostly members of Family Leguminosae are Alhagi and Crotolaria juncea.
Q.63
Christmas disease is another name for : -
(A)
Hepatitis B
(B)
Sleeping sickness
(C)
Haemophilia B
(D)
Down's syndrome
(C)

Solution

Haemophilia B, a type of haemophilia is also known as christmas disease. It is due to deficiency of a blood coagulation factor, the christmas factor (factor IX). Christmas was the person (20th century) in whom the factor was first identified. Haemophilia B is a defect of the blood which prevents its clotting.
Q.64
Carcinoma refers to : -
(A)
Malignant tumours of the colon
(B)
Benign tumours of the connective tissue
(C)
Malignant tumours of the connective tissue
(D)
Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
(D)

Solution

Carcinomas are malignant growths of the epithelial tissue that cover or line body organs.
Q.65
Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother's milk to the infant is categorised as :-
(A)
Passive immunity
(B)
Cellular immunity
(C)
Innate non-specific immunity
(D)
Active immunity
(A)

Solution

Short-lived immunity acquired from mothers to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant is categorised as passive immunity. Passive immunity, an acquired immunity, is resistance based on antibodies performed in another host. In this case, the foetus is not directly responsible for its body immunity but it becomes immunised by mother’s milk across placenta.
Q.66
In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are present but no antibody, the blood group of the individual would be
(A)
B
(B)
O
(C)
AB
(D)
A.
(C)

Solution

In the ABO blood group system, there are two main antigens (proteins on the surface of red blood cells) that are considered: antigen A and antigen B. An individual's blood type in this system is determined by the presence or absence of these antigens. Additionally, in the bloodstream, there will usually be antibodies against the antigens that the individual does not express. For example, someone with antigen A will typically have anti-B antibodies, and someone with antigen B will typically have anti-A antibodies. A person with neither antigen will have both types of antibodies, and a person with both antigens will have neither type of antibodies.

If both antigens are present (antigen A and antigen B) on the surface of the red blood cells but no antibodies against them are found in the plasma, this signifies that the blood group of the individual is AB. This is because the presence of both antigens means the immune system does not need to produce antibodies against them since the body recognizes both antigens as self.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Option C: AB

Q.67
Bundle of His is a network of
(A)
muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls
(B)
muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
(C)
nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(D)
nerve fibres found throughout the heart.
(B)

Solution

The correct answer is Option B: muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall.

Let's elaborate on the nature and function of the Bundle of His to clarify this answer. The Bundle of His, also known as the Atrioventricular Bundle (AV Bundle), is a crucial part of the electrical conduction system of the heart. It is not a network of nerve fibers but rather specialized muscle fibers.

The heart's electrical conduction system is responsible for coordinating the heartbeat, ensuring that blood is pumped efficiently throughout the body. The sequence of the conduction system goes as follows: from the sinoatrial (SA) node, located in the right atrium, the electrical impulse travels to the atrioventricular (AV) node. From the AV node, the impulse passes down through the Bundle of His, which then divides into the right and left bundle branches that run along the sides of the ventricular septum.

The Bundle of His is specifically located between the atria and the ventricles within the heart's septum—the wall dividing the right and left sides of the heart. Its role is critical for transmitting electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, a process essential for maintaining a synchronized heartbeat. After the impulse moves through the Bundle of His, it travels down through the right and left bundle branches and into the Purkinje fibers, spreading throughout the ventricles and causing them to contract.

Thus, the Bundle of His is comprised of specialized cardiac muscle fibers, not nerve fibers, and is found specifically in the heart's ventricular walls, bridging the electrical conduction between the atria and the ventricles. This corrects the common misconception that it might be composed of nerve fibers or distributed throughout the entire heart, including the atrial walls.

Q.68
The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the site of
(A)
atrioventricular bundle
(B)
Purkinje system
(C)
sinuatrial node
(D)
atrioventricular node.
(C)

Solution

The most appropriate site for grafting an artificial pacemaker is at the site of the sinoatrial (SA) node, making option C the correct answer. Let's explore why that is the case by understanding the role of the SA node and the other options provided.

The SA node, located in the right atrium of the heart, acts as the natural pacemaker of the heart. It generates electrical impulses that initiate each heartbeat, regulating heart rate. These impulses travel across the atria, causing them to contract and pump blood into the ventricles. This is why, when the natural pacemaker fails to function properly, an artificial pacemaker is often installed to mimic the function of the SA node, ensuring the heart maintains a proper rhythm.

Now, let's briefly look at the other options:

Option A: Atrioventricular Bundle - Also known as the Bundle of His, this pathway transmits impulses from the atria to the ventricles. While it's crucial for the coordinated contraction of the ventricles, it is not the primary site for initiating the heart's rhythm.

Option B: Purkinje System - This network spreads throughout the ventricles and ensures efficient contraction of the ventricular muscle. It's essential for the final distribution of the electrical impulse but not the initiation of the heart rhythm.

Option D: Atrioventricular Node - Located at the junction of the atria and ventricles, the AV node delays the electrical impulse slightly before passing it to the ventricles. This delay allows the atria to finish contracting before the ventricles begin. While important for coordinating the timing of contractions, it is not the site where the heart's rhythm is generated.

Therefore, among the options provided, the sinoatrial node (Option C) is the most suitable site for grafting an artificial pacemaker, as it takes over the role of initiating and regulating the heart rhythm.

Q.69
What used to be described as Nissl's granules in a nerve cell are now identified as
(A)
cell metabolites
(B)
fat granules
(C)
ribosomes
(D)
mitochondria.
(C)

Solution

Cell body of a nerve cell contains basophilic granules called Nissl’s granules. These granules appear to be cisternae of rough endoplasmic reticulum with numerous attached and free ribosomes. They probably synthesize proteins for the cell.
Q.70
Test tube baby means a baby born when
(A)
The ovum is fertilised externally and thereafter implanted in the uterus
(B)
It is developed in a test tube
(C)
It is developed through tissue culture method
(D)
It develops from a non-fertilized egg
(A)

Solution

By in vitro fertilization, the ovum is fertilized with sperm outside the body of a woman, providing the ovum with the same environmental conditions as it would have got inside the uterus. The zygote is grown inside a culture and when embryo is formed, it is then implanted into uterus where it develops into foetus and then into a child. This is called test tube baby.
Q.71
Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One of them relates to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposing it is called : -
(A)
Biotic potential
(B)
Environmental resistance
(C)
Morbidity
(D)
Fecundity
(B)

Solution

The environmental factors which can check the growth of population size constitute the environmental resistance. These include predators, food, water, nesting sites, similar competitors, etc. All living things tend to reproduce until the point at which their environment becomes a limiting factor. No population, human or otherwise, can grow indefinitely; eventually, some biotic or abiotic variable will begin to limit population growth.
Q.72
Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material ?
(A)
Stratified epithelium
(B)
Myelinated nerve fibres
(C)
Striated muscle
(D)
Aerolar tissue
(D)

Solution

In areolar tissue, there is more intercellular space, so largest quantity of extracellular material is present in this tissue. It contains all cell types and fibres of connective tissue. There is a thin layer of extracellular fluid in stratified epithelium whereas striated muscle is attached with tendons and there is very less amount of extracellular fluid in myelinated nerve fibre.
Q.73
During prolonged fastings, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by the body?
(A)
First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins
(B)
First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins
(C)
First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly lipids
(D)
First proteins, next lipids and lastly carbohydrates.
(A)

Solution

During prolonged fasting, first carbohydrates are used up then fats and proteins are used at the last. Carbohydrate and fat metabolism can easily produce energy than protein and they follow a more or less simpler pathway to enter into TCA cycle. When all carbohydrates of the body are used up then fats are converted into carbohydrates and when all fats are used up then ultimately proteins of the body are converted into carbohydrates to be used up by the body.
Q.74
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A)
Vitamin C   -   Scurvy
(B)
Vitamin B2   -   Pellagra
(C)
Vitamin B12   -   Pernicious anaemia
(D)
Vitamin B6   -   Beri-beri
(B, D)

Solution

Deficiency of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) causes beri beri.
Q.75
If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which one of the following is to be expected?
(A)
There will be no urine formation.
(B)
There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed.
(C)
The urine will be more concentrated,
(D)
The urine will be more dilute.
(D)

Solution

Henle’s loop is associated with the concentration of urine and production of hypertonic urine.
Q.76
Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?
(A)
Relaxin Gigantism
(B)
Prolactin Cretinism
(C)
Parathyroid hormone Tetany
(D)
Insulin Diabetes insipidus
(C)

Solution

Deficiency of parathyroid hormone causes tetany. The disease causes sustained contraction of muscles of larynx, face, hands and feet.
Q.77
During embryonic development, the establishment of polarity along anterior/posterior, dorsal/ventral or medial/lateral axis is called : -
(A)
Organizer phenomena
(B)
Pattern formation
(C)
Axis formation
(D)
Anamorphosis
(A)

Solution

An organizer is a signal aligning center that directs the development of embryo or part of embryo, e.g. in amphibians, it is dorsal tip of blastophore.
Q.78
Ommatidia serve the purpose of photoreception in
(A)
cockroach
(B)
frog
(C)
humans
(D)
sunflower.
(A)

Solution

In cockroach, the compound eyes are a pair of large, black, kidney-shaped organs situated dorsolaterally on the head, one on either side. Their surface is marked by a large number of hexagonal areas, the facets. Each facet represents a visual unit named ommatidium. The eyes are the organs of sight (photoreception).
Q.79
Systemic heart refers to
(A)
the heart that contracts under stimulation from nervous system
(B)
left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
(C)
entire heart in lower vertebrates
(D)
the two ventricles together in humans.
(C)

Solution

Systemic heart refers to the entire heart of lower vertebrates. This heart pumps blood to body parts and not the lungs.
Q.80
During the life-cycle, Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following larval stages respectively
(A)
redia and miracidium
(B)
cercaria and redia
(C)
metacercaria and cercaria
(D)
miracidium and metacercaria
(D)

Solution

The correct option is Option D, which states that Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the larval stages of miracidium and metacercaria respectively. Here's a brief overview of the life cycle of Fasciola hepatica to explain why:

1. Miracidium: The life cycle begins when eggs released into the environment from an infected primary host (typically a sheep or a cow) hatch into miracidia upon contact with water. The miracidium is equipped to infect the intermediate host, which is a specific type of freshwater snail.

2. Redia & Cercaria: Inside the snail, the miracidium undergoes several developmental stages, initially transforming into sporocysts, then into rediae, and finally into cercariae. The redia stage is particularly noteworthy because within the snail, it will produce several generations, which increase the number of cercariae produced. The cercariae are then released from the snail into the water.

3. Metacercaria: Once free-swimming, the cercariae encyst as metacercariae on aquatic vegetation or other surfaces. This encysted stage is infectious to the primary host. When the primary host ingests these metacercariae-laden plants or water, the life cycle progresses.

4. Adult: Inside the primary host's intestines, the metacercariae excyst and migrate to the liver, where they mature into adult flukes, completing the cycle.

Therefore, the miracidium phase targets the intermediate snail host, initiating internal development, while the metacercaria phase represents the stage at which Fasciola hepatica is capable of infecting the primary host, marking the transition from external to internal parasitism in the latter.

Q.81
Given below are four matchings of an animal and its kind of respiratory organ :
(A)  Silver fish            Trachea
(B)  Scorpion            Book lung
(C)  Sea squirt            Pharyngeal slits
(D)  Dolphin            Skin
The correct matchings are
(A)
(A) and (B)
(B)
(A), (B) and (C)
(C)
(B) and (D)
(D)
(C) and (D).
(B)

Solution

Silver fish is an insect in which respiration occurs by tracheae. These communicate with the exterior by paired apertures, called spiracles. Respiratory system of scorpion consists of 4 pairs of book lungs that communicate with the outer air through stigma. In sea squirt, respiration occurs through pharyngeal slits. In dolphin, respiration occurs by lungs.
Q.82
The chief advantage of encystment of an Amoeba is
(A)
the ability to survive during adverse physical conditions
(B)
the ability to live for some time without ingesting food
(C)
protection from parasites and predators
(D)
the chance to get rid of accumulated waste products.
(A)

Solution

Amoeba forms a cyst and reproduces by multiple fission, during adverse environmental conditions. The animal secretes a three-layered, protective, chitinous cyst around it and becomes inactive. Inside the cyst, the nucleus repeatedly divides to form several daughter nuclei, which arrange themselves near the periphery. Each daughter nucleus becomes enveloped by a small amount of cytoplasm, thus forming a daughter Amoeba, called amoebula or pseudopodiospore.

When favourable conditions arrive, the cyst breaks off liberating the young pseudopodiospores, each with fine pseudopodia. They feed and grow rapidly to become adults and lead an independent life.
Q.83
Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits?
(A)
Pheretima            Sexual dimorphism
(B)
Musca            Complete metamorphosis
(C)
Chameleon            Mimicry
(D)
Taenia            Polymorphism
(B)

Solution

Obelia exhibits polymorphism. Round worm (Ascaris) exhibits sexual dimorphism. Pheretima is a hermaphrodite and Chameleon shows camouflage.
Q.84
Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best described as
(A)
unicellular or acellular
(B)
multicellular without any tissue organization
(C)
multicellular with a gastrovascular system
(D)
multicellular having tissue organization, but no body cavity.
(B)

Solution

Sponges show cellular grade of organization. They do not have tissue system. Sycon is a sponge.
Q.85
Bartholin's glands are situated
(A)
on the sides of the head of some amphibians
(B)
at the reduced tail end of birds
(C)
on either side of vagina in humans
(D)
on either side of vas deferens in humans.
(C)

Solution

Bartholin’s glands are situated on either side of vagina in human females. These glands secrete a fluid that lubricates the vulva during copulation.
Q.86
Industrial melanism is an example of : -
(A)
Darkening of skin due to smoke from industries
(B)
Defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations
(C)
Drug resistance
(D)
Protective resemblance with the surroundings
(D)

Solution

The replacement of grey coloured moth by dark coloured melanic species due to industrial smoke is called industrial melanism. Initially on the lichen covered tree trunks, the mutant moths was more conspicuous due to its black colouration and was therefore more susceptible to predation by birds. The large scale burning of coal during industrial revolution resulted in the deposition of sooty particulate matter on tree trunks. Hence the grey coloured moths became more conspicuous to predatory birds. Thus the population of black moths increased considerably.
Q.87
In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of the following brings about a change in gene frequency in a non-directional manner : -
(A)
Selection
(B)
Random drift
(C)
Mutations
(D)
Migration
(B)

Solution

Migration refers to the movement of individuals into and out of population. Mutation refers to random and sudden heritable variations or changes arising in the genetic constitution.
Q.88
Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures ?
(A)
Organs with anatomical dissimilarities but performing same function
(B)
Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors
(C)
Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different func
(D)
Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult
(C)

Solution

Those organs which have a common origin and are built on the same anatomical pattern, but perform different functions and are modified accordingly.
Q.89
Convergent evolution is illustrated by : -
(A)
Bacterium and protozoan
(B)
Rat and dog
(C)
Dogfish and whale
(D)
Starfish and cuttle fish
(C)

Solution

Convergent evolution is the formation of similar traits by unrelated groups of organisms. Dogfish and whale are the interesting examples of convergent evolution in animals as both of them have more or less similar body organization.
Q.90
Darwin in his 'Natural Selection Theory' did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution ?
(A)
Survival of the fittest
(B)
Parasites and predators as natural enemies
(C)
Discontinuous variations
(D)
Struggle for existence
(C)

Solution

In any population, there is always competition for space and food resources.
Q.91
Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution ?
(A)
Variations, natural selection, overproduction, constancy of population size
(B)
Overproduction, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection
(C)
Variations, constancy of population size, overproduction, natural selection
(D)
Overproduction, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection
(B)

Solution

According to Darwinism there is differential reproduction, followed by struggle for existence, suitable variations are selected by nature-natural selection.
Q.92
Which one of the following is categorised under living fossils ?
(A)
Cycas
(B)
Metasequoia
(C)
Pinus
(D)
Selaginella
(A)

Solution

Cycas and Ginkgo are often considered as the living fossil because they are one of the few representative of once a large group of plants (which was once a well flourished group) and possess traits of extinct pteridosperms and other gymnosperms.
Q.93
Random genetic drift in a population probably results from
(A)
Constant low mutation rate
(B)
Interbreeding within this population
(C)
Large population size
(D)
Highly genetically variable individuals
(B)