NEET-UG 2008

AIPMT 2008

Physics (Maximum Marks: 192)
  • This section contains 48 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination of volume of the sphere will be
(A)
8%
(B)
2%
(C)
4%
(D)
6%
(D)

Solution

As we know,





Error in the dimension of the volume is = 3 2% = 6 %
Q.2
Which two of the following five physical parameters have the same dimensions ?
1.  Energy density
2.  Refractive index
3.  Dielectric constant
4.  Young's modulus
5.  Magnetic field
(A)
1 and 4
(B)
1 and 5
(C)
2 and 4
(D)
3 and 5
(A)

Solution

Energy density =

Young's Modulus(Y) =

[Y] = =
Q.3
A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10 ms1 to 20 ms1 while passing through a distance 135 m in t second. The value of t is
(A)
12
(B)
9
(C)
10
(D)
1.8
(B)

Solution

v2 = u2 + 2s



         =

         =

         =

         = m/s2





=

= = 9 m/s
Q.4
The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration m s2, in the third second is
(A)
m
(B)
m
(C)
6 m
(D)
4 m
(A)

Solution

distance travelled in nth seconds

S(n th) = u +

Here u = 0, = m s2, n = 3

S(3 rd) = = m
Q.5
A particle shows distance - time curve as given in this figure. The maximum instaneous velocity of the particle is around the point

AIPMT 2008 Physics - Motion in a Plane Question 13 English
(A)
D
(B)
A
(C)
B
(D)
C
(D)

Solution

The slope of the graph is maximum at C and hence the instantaneous velocity is maximum at C.
Q.6
AIPMT 2008 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 23 English

Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only along the y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is
(A)
(B)
N
(C)
0.5 N
(D)
1.5 N
(C)

Solution

The components of 1N and 2N forces along + x axis = 1 cos 60° + 2 sin 30°



AIPMT 2008 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 23 English Explanation

The component of 4 N force along – x-axis



Therefore, if a force of 0.5N is applied along + x-axis, the resultant force along x-axis will become zero and the resultant force will be obtained only along y-axis.
Q.7
A roller coaster is designed such that riders experience ''weightlessness'' as they go round the top of a hill whose radius of curvature is 20 m. The speed of the car at the top of the hill is between
(A)
16 m/s and 17 m/s
(B)
13 m/s and 14 m/s
(C)
14 m/s and 15 m/s
(D)
15 m/s and 16 m/s
(C)

Solution

For the riders to experience weightlessness at the top of the hill, the weight of the rider must be balanced by the centripetal force.

AIPMT 2008 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 40 English Explanation

i.e.,



Hence, the speed of the car should be between 14 ms–1 and 15 ms–1.
Q.8
Sand is being dropped on a conveyer belt at the rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to keep the belt moving with a constant velocity of m/s will be :
(A)
newton
(B)
zero
(C)
M newton
(D)
2 M newton
(C)

Solution



As v is a constant,

    

But

To keep the conveyer belt moving at v m/s, force needed = vM newton.
Q.9
Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional forces are 10% of energy. How much power is generated by the turbine ? (g = 10 m/s2)
(A)
12.3 kW
(B)
7.0 kW
(C)
8.1 kW
(D)
10.2 kW
(C)

Solution

It is seen that input power to turbine will be the potential energy due to water falling in a second which is equal to

mgh = 15×10×60

= 9000 watt

Now power generated by turbine is 10% less than above value equal to

(9000 – 900) watt = 8100 watt

= 8.1 kW
Q.10
A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v making an angle of 45o with the horizontal. When the particle lands on the level ground the magnitude of the change in its momentum will be :
(A)
(B)
zero
(C)
2mv
(D)
mv /
(A)

Solution

The magnitude of the resultant velocity at the point of projection and the landing point is same.
AIPMT 2008 Physics - Center of Mass and Collision Question 40 English Explanation
Clearly, change in momentum along horizontal (i.e along x-axis)

= mvcos – mvcos = 0

Change in momentum along vertical (i.e. along y–axis) = mv sin – (–mv sin)

= 2 mvsin = 2mv × sin 45°

=

Hence, resultant change in momentum =
Q.11
A shell of mass 200 gm is ejected from a gun of mass 4 kg by an explosion that generates 1.05 kJ of energy. The initial velocity of the shell is :
(A)
40 ms1
(B)
120 ms1
(C)
100 ms1
(D)
80 ms1
(C)

Solution

As per laws of conservation of momentum and energy, if v and V represents initial velocity of shell of mass m and recoil velocity of gun of mass M respectively, then

mv + MV = 0





Here (–) sign shows that recoil velocity of gun is opposite to velocity of shell.

The energy of explosion is used to impart kinetic energy to shell and gun so that we have

(mv2 + MV2) = 1.05 × 103

[0.2v2 + (4v2 / 400)] = 1.05 ×103

v2 = 104

v = 100 m/s
Q.12
A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its midpoint into two halves so that the angle between them is 90o. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis passing through the bending point and perpendicular to the plane defined by the two halves of the rod is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

Total mass = M, total length = L
Moment of inertia of OA about O = Moment of inertia of OB about O.

M.I total =
Q.13
The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, each of same mass and radius, around their respective axes is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

M.I. of a circular disc,

M.I. of a circular ring = MR2.

Ratio of their radius of gyration =

1 :
Q.14
On a new scale of temperature (which is linear) and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling points of water are 39oW and 239oW respectively. What will be the temperature on the new scale, corresponding to a temperature of 39oC on the Celsius scale ?
(A)
200oW
(B)
139oW
(C)
78oW
(D)
117oW
(D)

Solution

W is the temperature on new scale corresponding to 39ºC on ºC scale.

So, (C – 0)/(100 – 0) = (W – 39)/(239 – 39)

C/100 = (W – 39)/200

W = (C/100) × 200 + 39

= (39/100) × 200 + 39

= 78 + 39 = 117

So, temperature on new scale is 117°W corresponding to 39°C.
Q.15
If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added, change in internal energy and the work done in a closed cyclic process, then
(A)
E = 0
(B)
Q = 0
(C)
W = 0
(D)
Q = W = 0
(A)

Solution

Internal energy depends only on the initial and final states of temperature and not on the path. In a cyclic process, as initial and final states are the same, change in internal energy is zero. Hence E is U, the change in internal energy.
Q.16
At 10oC the value of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal gas divided by it pressure is x. At 110oC this ratio is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

PV = nRT















Q.17
Two simple harmonic motions of angular frequency 100 and 1000 rad s1 have the same displacement amplitude. The ratio of their maximum acceleration is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

Maximum acceleration of a particle in the simple harmonic motion is directly proportional to the square of angular frequency i.e.



a1 : a2 = 1 : 102.
Q.18
The wave described by y = 0.25 sin(10x 2t), where x and y are in metres and t in seconds, is a wave travelling along the
(A)
+ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz and wavelength = 0.2 m.
(B)
ve x direction with amplitude 0.25 m and wavelength = 0.2 m.
(C)
ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz.
(D)
+ve x direction with frequency Hz and wavelength = 0.2 m.
(A)

Solution

y = 0.25sin(10x – 2t)







The sign is negative inside the bracket. Therefore this wave travels in the positive x-direction.
Q.19
Two periodic waves of intensities 1 and 2 pass through a region at the same time in the same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

Other factors such as and v remaining the same, I = A2 constant K, or A =

On superposition

and









Q.20
A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of period T and the equation of motion is given by x = a sin(t + /6). After the elapse of what fraction of the time period the velocity of the point will be equal to half of its maximum velocity?
(A)
T/3
(B)
T/12
(C)
T/8
(D)
T/6
(B)

Solution

We have

Velocity,

Maximum velocity = a
According to question,



or



Q.21
A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge +Q. The electric field at the centre O of the ring due to the charge on the part AKB of the ring is E. The electric field at the centre due to the charge on the part ACDB of the ring is

AIPMT 2008 Physics - Electrostatics Question 50 English
(A)
E along KO
(B)
3E along OK
(C)
3E along KO
(D)
E along OK
(D)

Solution

By the symmetry of the figure, the electric fields at O due to the portions AC and BD are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. So, they cancel each other. AIPMT 2008 Physics - Electrostatics Question 50 English Explanation
Similarly, the field at O due to CD and AKB are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. Therefore, the electric field at the centre due to the charge on the part ACDB is E along OK.
Q.22
The electric potential at a point in free space due to charge Q coulomb is Q 1011 volts. The electric field at that point is
(A)
volt/m
(B)
120Q 1022 volt/m
(C)
volt/m
(D)
volt/m
(C)

Solution



= Q × 1011 volt    …(i)



= V/R = Q × 1011 × × 1011    from ...(i)

= × Q × 1022 volt/m
Q.23
AIPMT 2008 Physics - Current Electricity Question 81 English
In the circuit shown, the current through the 4 resistor is 1 amp when the points P and M are connected to a d.c. voltage source. The potential difference betwen the points M and N is
(A)
0.5 volt
(B)
3.2 volt
(C)
1.5 volt
(D)
1.0 volt
(B)

Solution

As the P.D. between 4 and 3 (in parallel), are the same,

4 × 1 amp = 3 × i1

Total resistance of 4 and 3 = 12/7 .

Current in MQP (upper one) =



Current in MNP =

P.D. across

P.D. across 1 = 3.2 volt.
Q.24
A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten percent. Its new resistance and specific resistance become respectively
(A)
both remain the same
(B)
1.1 times, 1.1 times
(C)
1.2 times, 1.1 times
(D)
1.21 times, same
(D)

Solution

  

but the area also decreases by 0.1.

mass = , mass.



Length increases by 0.1, resistance increases, area decreases by 0.1, then also resistance will increase. Total increase in resistance is approximately 1.2 times, due to increase in length and decrease in area. But specific resistance does not change.
Q.25
A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 cm of potentiometer wire, respectively with and without being short circuited through a resistance of 10 . Its internal resistance is
(A)
2.0 ohm
(B)
zero
(C)
1.0 ohm
(D)
0.5 ohm
(C)

Solution

Here , hence the lengths 110 cm and 100 cm are interchanged.

Without being short-circuited through R, only the battery E is balanced.

   ...(i)

When R is connected across E,

   ...(ii)

Dividing (i) by (ii), we get



100 R + 100 r = 110 R

10 R = 100 r

  ( R = 10)

r = 1.
Q.26
A current of 3 amp. flows through the 2 resistor shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the 5 resistor is

AIPMT 2008 Physics - Current Electricity Question 77 English
(A)
1 watt
(B)
5 watt
(C)
4 watt
(D)
2 watt
(B)

Solution

Clearly, 2 , 4 and ( 1 + 5) resistors are in parallel. Hence, potential difference is same across each of them.

I1 × 2 = I2 × 4 = I3 × 6

AIPMT 2008 Physics - Current Electricity Question 77 English Explanation
Given I1 = 3A     I1 × 2 = I3 × 6

Given I1 = 3A.

I1 × 2 = I3 × 6 provides



Now, the potential across the 5 resistor is
V = I3 × 5 = 1 × 5 = 5V.

the power dissipated in the 5 resistor

Q.27
An electric kettle takes 4 A current at 220 V. How much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water from temperature 20oC ? The temperature of boiling water is 100oC
(A)
12.6 min
(B)
4.2 min
(C)
6.3 min
(D)
8.4 min
(C)

Solution

Power = 220 V × 4 A = 880 watts. = 880 J/s.
Heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg water through 80°C

= ms.T × 4.2 J/cal

= 1000 g × 1 cal/g × 80 × 4.2 J/cal.

Time taken =

= 382 s = 6.3 min.
Q.28
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is

   ...(i)

Potential difference between the plates is

V = Ed    ...(ii)

The energy stored in the capacitor is

   (Using (i) and (ii))

Q.29
A galvanometer of resistance 50 is connected to a battery of 3 V along with a resistance of 2950 in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. In order to reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in series should be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

Total initial resistance

= RG + R1 = (50 + 2950) = 3000



Current =

If the deflection has to be reduced to 20 divisions, current i = 1 mA as the full deflection scale for 1 mA = 30 divisions.





But the galvanometer resistance = 50

Therefore the resistance to be added

= (4500 – 50) = 4450 .
Q.30
A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic forces on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3 respectively and are in the plane of the paper and along the directions shown, the force on the segment QP is
AIPMT 2008 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 45 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

According to the figure the magnitude of force on the segment QM is F3 – F1 and PM is F2.

AIPMT 2008 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 45 English Explanation
Therefore, the magnitude of the force on

segment PQ is
Q.31
A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic field of induction . After 3 seconds the kinetic energy of the particle will be
(A)
T
(B)
4 T
(C)
3 T
(D)
2 T
(A)

Solution

When a charged particle having a given K.E., T enters in a field of magnetic induction, which is perpendicular to its velocity, it takes a circular trajectory. It does not increase in energy, therefore T is the K.E.
Q.32
Curie temperature above which
(A)
paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic material
(B)
ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
(C)
ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic material
(D)
paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
(C)

Solution

Curie temperature is the temperature above which ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic material.
Q.33
A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of 2 ampere is passed through it, the resulting magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 103 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is
(A)
1.0 henry
(B)
4.0 henry
(C)
2.5 henry
(D)
2.0 henry
(A)

Solution

Total number of turns in the solenoid,

N = 500 Current, I = 2A.

Magnetic flux linked with each turn = 4 × 10–3 Wb

Self inductance of coil :

L = = 1 H
Q.34
A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction in such a way that its axis makes an angle of 60o with The magnetic flux linked with the disc is
(A)
0.08 Wb
(B)
0.01 Wb
(C)
0.02 Wb
(D)
0.06 Wb
(C)

Solution

Given B =

= 60o

Area normal to the plane of the disc

= r2 cos60o =

Flux = B × normal area

= = 0.02 Wb
Q.35
In an a.c. circuit the e.m.f. () and the current

(i)  at any instant are given respectively by
= E0sint,    = 0sin(t )

The average power in the circuit over one cycle of a.c. is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

Average power =
Q.36
The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity 0 and permeability 0 is given by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in vacuum is =
Q.37
Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of the combination is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution



Power P =
Q.38
A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing sunlight on a piece of paper using an equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm. The diameter of the sun is 1.39 109 m and its mean distance from the earth is 1.5 1011 m. What is the diameter of the sun's image on the paper ?
(A)
6.5 105 m
(B)
12.4 104 m
(C)
9.2 104 m
(D)
6.5 104 m
(C)

Solution

size of image
size of object


Size of image = Size of object

=

= 9.2 ×10–4 m

Diameter of the sun’s image = 9.2 ×10–4 m
Q.39
If M(A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus proton and neutron respectively in units of u (1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2) and BE represents its bonding energy in MeV, then
(A)
M(A, Z) = ZMp + (A Z)Mn BE
(B)
M(A, Z) = ZMp + (A Z)Mn + BE/c2
(C)
M(A, Z) = ZMp + (A Z)Mn BE/c2
(D)
M(A, Z) = ZMp + (A Z)Mn + BE
(C)

Solution

Mass defect = ZMp + (A –Z)Mn – M(A, Z)

= ZMp + (A –Z)Mn – M(A, Z)

M(A, Z) = ZMp + (A Z)Mn
Q.40
Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants and respectively. If initially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that X2 will be 1/e after a time
(A)
1/4
(B)
e/
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

X1 = N0e–5t
X2 = N0et

Given =

=

e–4t = e-1

t =
Q.41
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. When its electron is in the first excited state, its excitation energy is
(A)
10.2 eV
(B)
0
(C)
3.4 eV
(D)
6.8 eV
(A)

Solution

En =

E1 = -13.6 eV

E2 = = -3.4 eV

E = ( – 3.4) – ( – 13.6) = 10.2 eV.
Q.42
Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio of 1 : 3. The ratio of their nuclear densities would be
(A)
(B)
1 : 1
(C)
1 : 3
(D)
3 : 1
(B)

Solution

A1 : A2 = 1 : 3

Their radii will be in the ratio

: = 1 : 31/3

: = :

=

= 1 : 1
Q.43
The work function of a surface of a photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of the incident radiation for which the stopping potential is 5 V lies in the
(A)
infrared region
(B)
X-ray region
(C)
Ultraviolet region
(D)
Visible region
(C)

Solution

= 6.2 eV.

Kmax = 5 eV;

h = 11.2 eV = E

= = = 1107
Q.44
A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity of 3 106 m s1. The velocity of the particle is
(A)
3 1031 ms1
(B)
(C)
2.7 1018 ms1
(D)
9 102 ms1
(C)

Solution

de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron moving with velocity ν,

=

So, e =

Wavelength of particle of mass 1 mg moving with velocity ν.

p =

As given, e = p

=

v = =
Q.45
In the phenomenon of electric discharge through gases at low pressure, the coloured glow in the tube appears as a result of
(A)
collisions between the charged particles emitted from the cathode and the atoms of the gas
(B)
collision between different electrons of the atoms of the gas
(C)
excitation of electrons in the atoms
(D)
collision between the atoms of the gas
(A)

Solution

In the phenomenon of electric discharge tube through gases at low pressure, the coloured glow in the tube appears as a result of collisions between the charged particles emitted from cathode and the atoms of the gas.
Q.46
If the lattice parameter for a crystalline structure is 3.6 , then the atomic radius in fcc crystal is
(A)
2.92
(B)
1.27
(C)
1.81
(D)
2.10
(B)

Solution

The atomic radius in a f.c.c. crystal is =

Atomic radius = = 1.27
Q.47
The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9% negative feedback is 10. The voltage gain without feedback will be
(A)
1.25
(B)
100
(C)
90
(D)
10
(B)

Solution

Negative feedback is applied to reduce the output voltage of an amplifier. If there is no negative feedback, the value of output voltage could be very high. In the options given, the maximum value of voltage gain is 100. Hence it is the correct option.
Q.48
A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation that can be absorbed by the material is nearly
(A)
1 1014 Hz
(B)
20 1014 Hz
(C)
10 1014 Hz
(D)
5 1014 Hz
(D)

Solution

Energy gap Eg = 2.0 eV

Eg = 2.0 × 1.6 × 10–19 J

Eg = hf

f = frequency of radiation

f =

=

= 5 1014 Hz
Chemistry (Maximum Marks: 200)
  • This section contains 50 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71% and H, 9.67%. The empirical formula of the compound would be
(A)
CHO
(B)
CH4O
(C)
CH3O
(D)
CH2O
(C)

Solution

Element % Atomic mass mole ratio simple ratio
C 38.71 12
H 9.67 1
O 51.62 16

Hence empirical formula of the compound would be CH3O
Q.2
How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO and 3.2 g HCl ?
(A)
0.011
(B)
0.029
(C)
0.044
(D)
0.333
(B)

Solution

PbO + 2HCl PbCl2 + H2O
n mol 2n mol n mol
mol mol
0.029 mol 0.087 mol

Formation of moles of lead(II) chloride depends upon the no. of moles of PbO which acts as a limiting reagent here. So no of moles of PbCl2 formed will be equal to the no of PbO (i.e 0.029)
Q.3
What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measuread at 0oC and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1 L of propane gas (C3H8) measured under the same conditions ?
(A)
5 L
(B)
10 L
(C)
7 L
(D)
6 L
(A)

Solution

C3H8 + 5O2 3CO2 + 4H2O (balanced equation)
1 vol. 5 vol. 3 vol. 4 vol.

According to the above equation 1 vol. or 1 litre of propane requires to 5 vol. or 5 litre of O2 to burn completely.
Q.4
The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum, which is equal to 1 1018 g cm s1. The uncertainty in electron velocity is (mass of an electron is 9 1028 g)
(A)
1 105 cm s1
(B)
1 1011 cm s1
(C)
1 109 cm s1
(D)
1 106 cm s1
(C)

Solution

=
Q.5
If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

According to Heisenberg uncertainty principle

or m

(m)2 ( = )

Q.6
Number of moles of MnO required to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic medium will be
(A)
7.5 moles
(B)
0.2 moles
(C)
0.6 moles
(D)
0.4 moles
(C)

Solution

The balanced ionic equation for oxidation of ferrous oxalate by MnO4 in acidic medium is as follows :

3MnO4- + 5FeC2O4 + 24H+

3Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 12H2O + 5Fe3+

Thus, 5 moles of FeC2O4 require 3 moles of MnO4-.

So, 1 mole of FeC2O4 requires

= = 0.6 moles of MnO4-
Q.7
Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density = 1 g cm3) is
(A)
3.0 1023 cm3
(B)
5.5 1023 cm3
(C)
9.0 1023 cm3
(D)
6.023 1023 cm3
(A)

Solution

1 mole of water contains 6.023 × 1023 molecules of water

6.023 × 1023 molecules of water weigh = 18 g

So, 1 molecule of water weighs =

Now, volume of 1 molecule of water

=
Mass of 1 molecule of water
Density of water
.

=

= 3 10-23 cm3
Q.8
If a gas expands at constant temperature, it indicates that
(A)
kinetic energy of molecules remains the same
(B)
number of the molecules of gas increases
(C)
kinetic energy of molecules decreases
(D)
pressure of the gas increases.
(A)

Solution

Kinetic energy of a gas is expressed as

K.E =

Thus, on expansion of fixed amount of gas at constant temperature the kinetic energy remains constant.
Q.9
The values of for the reactions,

X Y + Z      . . . .(i)
A 2B       . . . .(ii)

are in the ratio 9 : 1. If degree of dissociation of X and A be equal, then total pressure at equilibrium (i) and (ii) are in the ratio
(A)
36 : 1
(B)
1 : 1
(C)
3 : 1
(D)
1 : 9
(A)

Solution

Given

X Y + Z      . . . .(i)

A 2B       . . . .(ii)

Let the total pressure for reaction (i) and (ii) be P1 and P2 respectively, then



X Y + Z
Initial mole 1 0 0
At equilibrium 1 -


Total number of moles at equilibrium

= 1 - + + = 1 +

KP1 = =

A 2B
Initial mole 1 0
At equilibrium 1 - 2


Total number of moles at equilibrium

= 1 - + 2 = 1 +

KP2 = =





Q.10
The value of equilibrium constant of the reaction
HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
is 8.0. The The equilibrium constant of the reaction
H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) will be
(A)
16
(B)
1/8
(C)
1/16
(D)
1/64
(D)

Solution

HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g),

For this reaction, K = 8.0

Reversing the equation,

H2(g) + I2(g) HI(g) ......(1)

For this reaction, K1 =

H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)

We get this equation by multiplying equation (1) by 2,

For this reaction, K2 = =
Q.11
If the concentration of OH ions in the reaction
Fe(OH)3(s) Fe3+(aq) + 3OH(aq)
is decreased by 1/4 times, then equilibrium concentration of Fe3+ will increase by
(A)
64 times
(B)
4 times
(C)
8 times
(D)
16 times
(A)

Solution

Fe(OH)3(s) Fe3+(aq) + 3OH(aq)

Equilibrium constant, Kc =

We know, equilibrium constant remains same at constant temperature.

Now, let the increase in concentration of Fe3+ be x times.

Kc =

=

Kc = Kc

= 1

x = 64
Q.12
The dissociation equilibrium of a gass AB2 can be represented as :
2AB2(g) 2AB(g) + B2(g)
The degree of dissociation is x and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure P is
(A)
(2Kp/P)1/2
(B)
(Kp/P)
(C)
(2Kp/P)
(D)
(2Kp/P)1/3
(D)

Solution

2AB2(g) ⇌ 2AB(g) + B2(g)
Initial mole 2 0 0
At equilibrium 2(1 - x) 2x x


Amount of moles at equilibrium = 2(1 – x) + 2x + x = 2 + x



=

=

Kp =

( 1 – x ≈ 1 and 2 + x ≈ 2)

x =

x =
Q.13
Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H+ ion concentration in the mixture?
(A)
3.7 103 M
(B)
1.11 103 M
(C)
1.11 104 M
(D)
3.7 104 M
(D)

Solution

We know, pH = – log[H+]

For pH = 3, 3 = – log [H+]

[H+] = 10–3 M

For pH = 4 , 4 = – log [H+]

[H+] = 10–4 M

For pH = 5, 5 = – log [H+]

[H+] = 10–5 M

Total concentration of [H+]

M =

M(V1 +V2 + V3) = M1V1 + M2V2 + M3V3

As V1 = V2 = V3 = V

M(3V) = (M1 + M2 + M3)V

3M = (10–3 + 10–4 + 10–5)

=

= 3.7 104 M
Q.14
Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2, Cl2 and HCl are 434, 242 and 431 kJ mol1 respectively. Enthalpy of formation of HCl is
(A)
93 kJ mol1
(B)
245 kJ mol1
(C)
93 kJ mol1
(D)
245 kJ mol1
(A)

Solution

H2 + Cl2 HCl, Hf = ?

Hreaction = [ (B.E)H2 + (B.E)Cl2] - (B.E)HCl

= [217 + 121] – 431

= 338 – 431 = – 93 kJ mol–1
Q.15
For the gas phase reaction,

PCl5(g)   PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

which of the following conditions are correct ?
(A)
H < 0 and S < 0
(B)
H > 0 and S < 0
(C)
H = 0 and S < 0
(D)
H > 0 and S > 0
(D)

Solution

H = E + ngRT

ng = (1 + 1) – (1) = 1

H = E + RT

Thus, H is a positive quantity i.e., ∆H > 0. Now one mole of gaseous reactant dissociate into two moles of gaseous products thus, entropy increases i.e., S > 0.
Q.16
Which of the following are not state functions ?
(I) q + w     (II) q
(III) w        (IV) H TS
(A)
(I), (II) and (III)
(B)
(II) and (III)
(C)
(I) and (IV)
(D)
(II), (III) and (IV)
(B)

Solution

Enthalpy (H = q + W) and Gibbs energy, (G = H –TS) are state functions which depend only on the initial and final states of system.

While, heat (q) and work done (W) are the path function which depends on the path followed in bringing the change between two states of the system.
Q.17
Kohlrausch's law states that at
(A)
Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to conductance of an electrolyte whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
(B)
Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
(C)
Finite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
(D)
Infinite dilution each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte depending on the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte.
(A)

Solution

Kohlrausch’s law states that the equivalent conductance of an electrolyte at infinite dilution is equal to the sum of the equivalent conductance of the component ions.

= a + c

where, a = equivalent conductance of the anion

c = equivalent conductance of the cation.
Q.18
On the basis of the following Eo values, the strongest oxidizing agent is
[Fe(CN)6]4 [Fe(CN)6]3 + e;  Eo = 0.35 V

Fe2+ Fe3+ + e;  Eo = 0.77 V
(A)
Fe3+
(B)
[Fe(CN)6]3
(C)
[Fe(CN)6]4
(D)
Fe2+
(A)

Solution

Substances which have higher reduction potential are stronger oxidizing agent.

[Fe(CN)6]4 [Fe(CN)6]3 + e;  Eo = 0.35 V

Fe2+ Fe3+ + e;  Eo = 0.77 V

Higher the +ve reduction potential, stronger will be the oxidising agent. Oxidising agent oxidises other compounds and gets itself reduced easily.
Q.19
Standard free energies of formation (in kJ/mol) at 298 K are 237.2, 394.4 and 8.2 for H2O(l), CO2(g) and pentane (g) respectively. The value of Eocell for the pentane-oxygen fuel cell is
(A)
1.0968 V
(B)
0.0968 V
(C)
1.968 V
(D)
2.0968 V
(A)

Solution

At Anode:

C5H12 + 10H2O 5CO2 + 32H+ + 32e-

At Cathode:

8O2 + 32H+ + 32e- 16H2O
-------------------------------------------------
C5H12(g) + 8O2(g) 5CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)

G = 5×GCO2 + 6 G(H2O) – [G(C5H12) +8 × GO2 ]

= 5 × (– 394.4) + 6 × (–237.2) – (– 8.2 + 0)

= – 3387 kJ mol–1

= – 3387 × 103 J mol–1

G = - nFEocell

From the overall equation we find n = 32

– 3387 × 103 = -32 96500 Eocell

Eocell = = 1.0968 V
Q.20
The rate constants k1 and k2 for two different reactions are 1016 e2000/T and 1015 e1000/T, respectively.
The temperature at which k1 = k2 is
(A)
2000 K
(B)
(C)
1000 K
(D)
(B)

Solution

k1 = 1016

k2 = 1015

On taking log of both the equations, we get





As k1 = k2

=

T =
Q.21
The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid solution is represented by this equation.
CH3COCH3(aq) + Br2(aq)  
     CH3COCH2Br(aq) + H+(aq) + Br(aq)
These kinetic data were obtained for given reaction concentrations.
Initial concentrations, M
[CH3COCH3 [Br2] [H+]
0.30 0.05 0.05
0.30 0.10 0.05
0.30 0.10 0.10
0.40 0.05 0.20

Initial rate, disappearance of Br2, Ms1
5.7105
5.7105
1.2104
3.1104

Based on these data, the rate equation is
(A)
Rate = k[CH3COCH3][Br2][H+]2
(B)
Rate = k[CH3COCH3][Br2][H+]
(C)
Rate = k[CH3COCH3][H+]
(D)
Rate = k[CH3COCH3][Br2]
(C)

Solution

From the first two experiments, it is clear that when concentration of Br2 is doubled, the initial rate of disappearance of Br2 remains unaltered. So, order of reaction with respect to Br2 is zero. The probable rate law for the reaction will be : k[CH3COCH3 ][H+].
Q.22
If stands for the edge length of the cubic systems: simple cubic, body centred cubic and face centred cubic, then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

For Simple cubic : r+ + r =

For Body centred : r+ + r =

For Face centered: r+ + r =

Ratio of radii of the three will be

=
Q.23
Percentage of free space in a body centred cubic unit cell is
(A)
34%
(B)
28%
(C)
30%
(D)
32%
(D)

Solution

The ratio of volumes occupied by atoms in unit cell to the total volume of the unit cell is called as packing fraction or density of packing. For body centred cubic structure, packing fraction = 0.68 i.e., 68% of the unit cell is occupied by atoms and 32% is empty.
Q.24
With which one of the following elements silicon should be doped so as to give p-type of semiconductor?
(A)
Selenium
(B)
Boron
(C)
Germanium
(D)
Arsenic
(B)

Solution

The semiconductors formed by the introduction of impurity atoms containing one elecron less than the parent atoms of insulators are termed as p-type semiconductors. Therefore silicon containing 14 electrons has to be doped with boron containing 13 electrons to give a p-type semi-conductor.
Q.25
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A)
The number of carbon atoms in a unit cell of diamond is 4
(B)
The number of Bravais lattices in which a crystal can be categorized is 14
(C)
The fraction of the total volume occupied by the atoms in a primitive cell is 0.48.
(D)
Molecular solids are generally volatile.
(C)

Solution

Packing fraction for a cubic unit cell is given by

f =

where a = edge length, r = radius of cation and anion.

Efficiency of packing in simple cubic or primitive cell = π/6 = 0.52 or 52 %

It means 52 % of unit cell is occupied by atoms and 48 % is empty.
Q.26
Which one of the following arrangements does not give the correct picture of the trends indicated against it ?
(A)
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Bond dissociation energy
(B)
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Electronegativity
(C)
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Oxidizing power
(D)
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Electron gain enthalpy
(A, D)

Solution

For Diatomic molecules (X2) of halogens the bond dissociation energy decreases in the order:

Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

The oxidising power, electronegativity and relativity decrease in the order:

F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2

Order of Electron gain enthalpy of halogens

Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2

The low value of electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is probably due to small size of fluorine atom.
Q.27
The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is
(A)
NO < NO2 < NO
(B)
NO < NO < NO2
(C)
NO < NO < NO2
(D)
NO < NO2 < NO
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 74 English Explanation
We know that higher the number of lone pair of electron on central atom, greater is the lp – lp repulsion between Nitrogen and oxygen atoms. Thus smaller is bond angle.

The correct order of bond angle is

NO < NO2 < NO
Q.28
Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

Molecular orbital configuration of NO (15 electrons) is



Nb = 10

Na = 5

BO = = 2.5

Molecular orbital configuration of (17 electrons) is



Nb = 10

Na = 7

BO = = 1.5

Molecular orbital configuration of (14 electrons) is



Nb = 10

Na = 4

BO = = 3

Configuration of (3 electrons) is =

Bond order = (2 1) = 0.5

Correct order is :

Q.29
Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solutions will record the highest pH?
(A)
MgCl2
(B)
CaCl2
(C)
SrCl2
(D)
BaCl2
(D)

Solution

Equimolar solutions of the given chlorides when prepared in water forms their respective hydroxides.

SrCl2 + 2H2O Sr(OH)2 + 2HCl

BaCl2 + 2H2O Ba(OH)2 + 2HCl

MgCl2 + 2H2O Mg(OH)2 + 2HCl

CaCl2 + 2H2O Ca(OH)2 + 2HCl

Be(OH)2 is amphoteric, but the hydroxides of other alkaline earth metals are basic. The basic strength increases down the group. Hence higher the basic character higher will be the pH.
Q.30
The alkali metals form salt-like hydrides by the direct synthesis at elevated temperature. The thermal stability of these hydrides decreases in which of the following orders?
(A)
NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH
(B)
LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
(C)
CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH
(D)
KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH
(B)

Solution

The stability of alkali metal hydrides decreases from Li to Cs. It is due to the fact that M–H bonds becomes weaker with increase in size of alkali metals as we move down the group from Li to Cs. Thus the order of stability of hydrides is

LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
Q.31
The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous solution is
(A)
Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+
(B)
Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(C)
K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(D)
Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
(D)

Solution

Smaller the size of an ion, greater will be the degree of hydration. So, degree of hydration is highest for Li+ and that is smallest for Cs+. Therefore, Li+ holds the water molecules in its hydration sphere and Cs+ ion holds the least water molecules.

Hence, the correct ionic mobility in aqueous medium is :

Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
Q.32
The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3) consists of
(A)
1 and 1 bond
(B)
2 and 1 bond
(C)
1 and 2 bonds
(D)
2 and 2 bonds
(B)

Solution

O3 molecule can be represented as

AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - p-Block Elements Question 44 English Explanation
Q.33
The correct order of decreasing second ionisation enthalpy of Ti(22), V(23), Cr(24) and Mn(25) is
(A)
Mn > Cr > Ti > V
(B)
Ti > V > Cr > Mn
(C)
Cr > Mn > V > Ti
(D)
V > Mn > Cr > Ti
(C)

Solution

Ti ; Z (22) is 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d2

V ; Z (23) is 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d3

Cr ; Z (24) is 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s1

Mn ; Z (25) is 1s22s22p63s23d54s2

The second electron in all the cases (except Cr) is taken out from 4s-orbital and for Cr it is taken from completely half filled 3d-orbital. The force required for removal of second electron will be more for Mn than others (except for Cr) due to having more positive charge. Based on this we find the correct order Mn > V > Ti.

i.e. Cr > Mn > V > Ti.
Q.34
In which of the following coordination entities the magnitude of o (CFSE in octahedral field) will be maximum?
(At. No. Co = 27)
(A)
[Co(CN)6]3
(B)
[Co(C2O4)3]3
(C)
[Co(H2O)6]3+
(D)
[Co(NH3)6]3+
(A)

Solution

In all the given options the central metal atom is same and contain same number of d electrons. Thus, CFSE is decided by ligands. In case of strong field ligand, CFSE is maximum, CN is a strong field ligand hence is [Co(CN)6]3– so CFSE is maximum.
Q.35
Which of the following complexes exhibits the highest paramagnetic behaviour?
where gly = glycine, en = ethylenediamine and bpy = bipyridyl moities.
(At. nos. Ti = 22, V = 23, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
(A)
[Co(ox)2(OH)2]
(B)
[Ti(NH3)6]3+
(C)
[V(gly)2(OH)2(NH3)2]+
(D)
[Fe(en)(bpy)(NH3)2]2+
(A)

Solution

In [Co(ox)2(OH)2]

Co+5 = [Ar] 3d4 (4 unpaired electrons)

OX and OH are weak field ligands.

In [Ti(NH3)6]3+

Ti+3 = [Ar] 3d1 (one unpaired electron)

In [V(gly)2(OH)2(NH3)2]+

V+5 = [Ar] 4r03d0 (no unpaired electron)

In [Fe(en)(bpy)(NH3)2]2+

Fe+2 = [Ar] 3d6 (4 unpaired electrons)

But due to presence of strong field ligand like NH3, bpy and en thus Fe+2 contains no unpaired electron.

Complex [Co(ox)2(OH)2] has maximum number of unpaired electrons, thus show maximum paramagnetism.
Q.36
Green chemistry means such reactions which
(A)
are related to the depletion of ozone layer
(B)
study the reactions in plants
(C)
produce colour during reactions
(D)
reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals.
(D)

Solution

Green chemistry may be defined as the programme of developing new chemical products and chemical processes or making improvements in the already existing compounds and processes so as to make them less harmful to human health and environment. This means the same as to reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals.
Q.37
Base strength of
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 72 English
is in the order of
(A)
(i) > (iii) > (ii)
(B)
(i) > (ii) > (iii)
(C)
(ii) > (i) > (iii)
(D)
(iii) > (ii) > (i)
(B)

Solution

Weaker the acid, strongest is its conjugate base. Among alkane, alkene and alkyne, alkyne are most acidic and alkanes are least acidic, so the order of base strength is :

(i) > (ii) > (iii)
Q.38
Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack?
(A)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 71 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 71 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 71 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 71 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

Groups like, –Cl and –NO2 shows –I effect. –I groups attached to the benzene ring decrease the electron density in the benzene ring and hence less reactive towards electrophilic attack.

On the other hand, –OH not only shows –I effect but also +M effect which predominates the –I character and electron density is increased in the benzene ring which facilitates electrophilic attack.
Q.39
How many stereoisomers does this molecule have?

CH3CHCHCH2CHBrCH3
(A)
8
(B)
2
(C)
4
(D)
6
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 44 English Explanation

Both geometrical isomerism (cis-trans form) and optical isomerism is possible in the given compound.

No. of optical isomer = 2n = 21 = 2
(where n = no. of asymmetric carbon)

Hence total no. of stereoisomers = 2 + 2 = 4
Q.40
The stability of carbanions in the following.
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 70 English
is in the order of
(A)
(iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i)
(B)
(i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(C)
(i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(D)
(ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)
(C)

Solution

The carbonion which have more s-character will be more stable. Thus, the order of stability is :

(i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Q.41
In the hydrocarbon,
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 37 English
The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence
(A)
sp, sp2, sp3
(B)
sp3, sp2, sp
(C)
sp2, sp, sp3
(D)
sp, sp3, sp2
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 37 English Explanation

The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively.
Q.42
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 38 English
A (predominantly) is
(A)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 38 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 38 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 38 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 38 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 38 English Explanation
We know that in case of an unsymmetrical alkene there is the possibility of forming two products. In such cases the formation of major product is decided on the basis of Markownikoffs rule which is rationalized in terms of stability of the carbocation. Also 3o carbocation is more stable than 2o carbocation and 2o carbocation is more stable than 1o carbocation.
Q.43
In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type
R Br + Cl RCl + Br
which one of the following has the highest relative rate?
(A)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 19 English Option 1
(B)
CH3CH2Br
(C)
CH3CH2CH2Br
(D)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 19 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

SN2 mechanism is followed in case of primary and secondary halides i.e., SN2 reaction is favoured by small groups on the carbon atom attached to halogens so

CH3 – X > R – CH2 – X > R2CH – X > R3C – X
Q.44
A strong base can abstract an -hydrogen from
(A)
ketone
(B)
alkane
(C)
alkene
(D)
amine
(A)

Solution

As the carbonyl carbon is electron deficient so most susceptible to attack by ncleophilic reagent or base.

Thus -hydrogen is the easily obstructed from ketones by a base.
Q.45
The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of
(A)
Acid anhydride > Amide > Ester > Acyl chloride
(B)
Acyl chloride > Ester > Acid anhydride > Amide
(C)
Acyl chloride > Acid anhydride > Ester > Amide
(D)
Ester > Acyl chloride > Amide > Acid anhydride.
(C)

Solution

The more the basic character of the leaving group, the lesser is the reactivity the basic character follows the order

NH2 > OR > RCOO > Cl

Hence, the relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution follow the order

Acyl halides > Acid anhydride > Ester > Amide.
Q.46
Acetophenone when reacted with a base, C2H5ONa,   yields a stable compound which has the structure
(A)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 60 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 60 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 60 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 60 English Option 4
(C)

Solution

This reaction is known as aldol condensation.

C2H5ONa C2H5O- + Na+

AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 60 English Explanation 1 AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 60 English Explanation 2
Q.47
In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was obtained.
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 29 English
The structure of C would be
(A)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 29 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 29 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 29 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 29 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2008 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 29 English Explanation
Q.48
Which one of the following statements is not true?
(A)
Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and styrene.
(B)
Natural rubber is a, 1,4-polymer of isoprene.
(C)
In vulcanization, the formation of sulphur bridges between different chains make rubber harder and stronger.
(D)
Natural rubber has the trans-configuration at every double bond.
(D)

Solution

Natural rubber is cis-1, 3 polyisoprene and has only cis-configuration about the double bond.
Q.49
Which of the following is an amine hormone?
(A)
Insulin
(B)
Progesterone
(C)
Thyroxine
(D)
Oxypurin
(C)

Solution

Thyroxine is an amino hormone.
Q.50
In DNA, the complimentary bases are
(A)
adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine
(B)
uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine
(C)
adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
(D)
adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil.
(C)

Solution

DNA contains two types of nitrogeneous bases

Purine Adenine (A) and guanine (G)

Pyrimidine Cytosine (C) and thymine (T)

The purine and pyrimidine bases pair only in certain combination. Adenine pairs with thymine (A : T) by two hydrogen bonds and guanine with cytosine (G : C) by three hydrogen bonds.
Biology (Maximum Marks: 368)
  • This section contains 92 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the:
(A)
proplastids
(B)
peroxisomes
(C)
glyoxysomes
(D)
mitochondria
(C)

Solution

In germinating seeds, fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the glyoxysomes.
Glyoxylate cycle occurs in tissues rich in fats, such as those of germinating seeds; the enzymes involved in the cycle, which have not been found in mammals, are contained in organelles called glyoxysomes.
Q.2
The two sub-units of ribosome remain united at a critical ion level of :
(A)
magnesium
(B)
manganese
(C)
calcium
(D)
copper
(A)

Solution

The two subunits of ribosome remain united at a critical ion level of magnesium. The presence of magnesium and its amount plays an important role in the appearance and structure of the ribosomes. If magnesium is absent in the medium, the large particles fall apart to display a group of smaller particles.
Q.3
Vacuole in a plant cell:
(A)
is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
(B)
is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances
(C)
lacks membrane and contains air
(D)
Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
(B)

Solution

In a plant cell, vacuole may be defined as a non-living reservoir, bounded by a differentially or selectively permeable membrane, the tonoplast. It is filled with a highly concentrated solution called vascular sap or cell sap which contains many dissolved solutes such as organic acids, soluble carbohydrates, soluble nitrogenous compounds as nitrates, enzyme, tannins, chlorides, phosphates, amino acids, alkaloids and anthocyanin pigments.
Q.4
Keeping in view the "fluid mosaic model" for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid monolayer to the other (described as flipflop movement)?
(A)
Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
(B)
While lipids can rarely flip-flop proteins cannot
(C)
While proteins can flip-flop, lipids cannot
(D)
neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
(B)

Solution

According to fluid mosaic model there is rapid internal motion involving flexing within each lipid molecule a rapid lateral diffusion of the lipids is possible and a slow ‘flip-flop’ motion, i.e., a transfer of lipid molecules from one side of the bilayer to the other, is also possible. The lipid molecules might also rotate about their axes. The proteins of the membrane are concerned with the enzymatic activity of the membrane, with transport of molecules, and with a receptor function whereas, the lipid bilayer provides the permeability barrier.
Q.5
Modern detergents contain enzyme preparations of
(A)
thermoacidophiles
(B)
thermophiles
(C)
acidophiles
(D)
alkaliphiles.
(D)

Solution

Modern detergents contain enzyme preparation of alkaline protease which are called alkaliphiles, for removing protein stain.
Q.6
A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is
(A)
-ketoglutarate
(B)
Malate
(C)
malonate
(D)
oxaloacetate.
(C)

Solution

Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase, which is an enzyme involved in the citric acid cycle. Malonate is structurally similar to succinate, the natural substrate of succinic dehydrogenase. Therefore, malonate can bind to the active site of the enzyme and prevent succinate from binding, which inhibits the enzyme's activity. This leads to a decrease in the production of ATP, which can have a negative impact on cellular respiration.
Q.7
Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of
(A)
Pseudomonas
(B)
Saccharomyces
(C)
Pythium
(D)
Xanthomonas.
(C)

Solution

Cellulose is a major component of cell wall of Pythium. Pythium is a genus of parasitic Oomycete. Because this group of organisms were once classified as fungi, they are sometimes still treated as such. Pythium, like others in the family Pythiaceae, are usually characterized by their production of coenocytic hyphae, hyphae without separations. Oogonia generally contain a single oospore. Antheridia contain an elongated and club shaped antheridium.
Q.8
Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plants storage organs. Which of the following five properties of starch (1 5) make it useful as a storage material?
(1)  Easily translocated
(2)  Chemically non-reactive
(3)  Easily digested by animals
(4)  Osmotically inactive
(5)  Synthesized during photosynthesis
The useful properties are
(A)
(1), (3) and (5)
(B)
(1) and (5)
(C)
(2) and (3)
(D)
(2) and (4).
(D)

Solution

Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant storage organs. It is a chemically non-reactive and osmotically inactive polysaccharide with a molecular weight. Carbohydrates perform a vital role in living organisms. Starch and other polysaccharides serve as energy storage in plants, particularly in seeds, tubers, etc. which provide a major energy source for animals, including humans.
Q.9
Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action?
(A)
Pollen exine
(B)
Leaf cuticle
(C)
Cork
(D)
Wood fibre
(A)

Solution

Pollen exine is resistant to enzyme action. The hard outer layer called the exine is made up of sporopollenin which is one of the most resistant organic material known. It can withstand high temperatures and strong acids and alkali. No enzymes that degrade sporopollenin are so far known.
Q.10
Unisexuality of flowers prevents
(A)
geitonogamy, but not xenogamy
(B)
autogamy and geitonogamy
(C)
autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(D)
both geitonogamy and xenogamy.
(C)

Solution

Unisexuality or dicliny is a condition in which two types of unisexual flowers are present i.e., staminate (male flower) and pistillate (female flower). The plant may be monoecious or dioecious. This is a device for cross pollination (or xenogamy). Both xenogamy and geitonogamy (i.e. transfer of pollen from anther of one flower to stigma of another flower of either the same or genetically similar plant) are included under allogamy/cross pollination. Autogamy or self pollination (i.e. transfer of pollen from anther to stigma of the same flower) occurs in bisexual flower.
Q.11
Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes ?
(A)
Nucellus and antipodal cells
(B)
Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
(C)
Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
(D)
Egg cell and antipodal cells
(D)

Solution

Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus has haploid number of chromosomes. While all other plant structures have diploid number of chromosomes.
Q.12
What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into ovule?
(A)
In brings about opening of the pollen tube.
(B)
It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg.
(C)
It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid.
(D)
It prevents entry of more than one pollen tuve into the embryo sac.
(B)

Solution

Filiform apparatus helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid in ovule.
Filiform apparatus is in form of finger like projection comprising a core of micro fibrils enclosed in a sheath. The filiform apparatus resembles transfer cells" meant for short distance movement of metabolites. The filiform apparatus responsible for the absorption of food from the nucleus.
Q.13
Which one of the following proved effective for biological control of nematodal disese in plants?
(A)
Pisolithus tinctorius
(B)
Paecilomyces lilacinus
(C)
Pseudomonas cepacia
(D)
Gliocladium virens
(B)

Solution

Paecilomyces lilacinus proved effective for biological control of nematodal diseases in plant.
Q.14
Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by:
(A)
Bradyrhizobium
(B)
Frankia
(C)
Clostridium
(D)
Azorhizobium
(B)

Solution

The most common symbiotic association of legume and bacteria on roots is as nodules, which are small outgrowth on the roots. The microbe Frankia is symbiont in root nodules of several non-legume plants like Casurina and Alnus. Both Rhizobium and Frankia are free living in soil but as symbiont can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
Q.15
Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful microorganism for:
(A)
biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens
(B)
reclamation of wastelands
(C)
gene transfer in higher plants
(D)
bioremediation of contaminated soils
(A)

Solution

Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful microorganism for biological control of soil borne plant pathogens. Trichoderma harzianum is a fungus that is also used as a fungicide. It is used for foliar application, seed treatment and soil treatment for suppression of various disease causing fungal pathogens. Commercial biotechnological products such as 3 Tac have been useful for treatment of Botrytis, Fusarium, Penicillium sp. It is also used for manufacturing enzymes.
Q.16
Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop from:
(A)
plerome
(B)
periblem
(C)
phellogen
(D)
dermatogen
(A)

Solution

Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop from plerome. Plerome is a central core of primary meristem which gives rise to all cells of the stele from the pericycle inward.
Q.17
The length of different internodes in a culm of sugarcane is variable because of:
(A)
shoot apical meristem
(B)
position of axillary buds
(C)
size of leaf lamina at the node below each internode
(D)
intercalary meristem
(D)

Solution

The length of different internodes in a culm of sugarcane is variable because of intercalary meristem. Intercalary meristem is not a part of apical meristem. It occurs in the internodes of grasses (sugarcane) between leaf nodes and enables longitudinal growth of the stem.
Q.18
The rupture and fractionation do not usually occur in the water column in vessel/tracheids during the ascent of sap because of
(A)
weak gravitational pull
(B)
transpiration pull
(C)
lignified thick walls
(D)
cohesion and adhesion.
(D)

Solution

Rupture and fractionation do not usually occur in the water column in vessel/ tracheids during the ascent of sap because of cohesion and tension. The water molecules have a great mutual attraction to each other or tremendous cohesive power which is sometimes as much as 350 atmospheres. Thus, the transpiration pull develops a negative pressure in the uppermost xylem cells. It is transmitted from there into the xylem of stems, and then to the roots.
Q.19
The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor is called
(A)
glycolysis
(B)
fermentation
(C)
aerobic respiration
(D)
photorespiration
(B)

Solution

The energy-releasing metabolic process in which the substrate is oxidized without an external electron acceptor is called :

Option B : Fermentation.

Fermentation is a metabolic process that occurs in the absence of an external electron acceptor, like oxygen. In fermentation, the organic substrate itself acts as the electron donor and acceptor. This process allows for the partial oxidation of glucose (or other substrates) under anaerobic conditions, resulting in the production of energy in the form of ATP, along with various end products like ethanol or lactic acid, depending on the type of fermentation.

To clarify the other options :

  • Option A : Glycolysis is the process of breaking down glucose into pyruvate, yielding a small amount of energy. It occurs in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions and is not dependent on an external electron acceptor. However, it is not synonymous with fermentation.

  • Option C : Aerobic respiration is a metabolic process that requires an external electron acceptor, typically oxygen, for the complete oxidation of substrates like glucose to produce energy.

  • Option D : Photorespiration is a process in plants that occurs in light and consumes oxygen while producing carbon dioxide, but it is not primarily an energy-releasing process like fermentation.
Q.20
The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed because
(A)
a proton gradient forms across the inner membrane
(B)
there is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane toward adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
(C)
high energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins
(D)
ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space.
(A)

Solution

The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposed by Mitchell, explains the process of ATP formation and states that it is linked to development of a proton gradient across a membrane. ATP synthase, required for ATP synthesis is located in F1 particles present in the inner mitochondrial membrane and becomes active only when there is high concentration of proton on F0 side as compared to F1 side. The flow of proton through F0 channel induces F1 particle to function as ATP synthase and the energy of proton gradient produces ATP by attaching a phosphate radical to ADP.
Q.21
Gel electrophoresis is used for:
(A)
cutting of DNA into fragments
(B)
separation of DNA fragments according to their size
(C)
construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors
(D)
isolation of DNA molecule
(B)

Solution

Gel electrophoresis is a technique to separation of DNA fragments according to their size. DNA is negatively charged so in gel tank when electricity is passed, DNA move towards positive electrode.
Q.22
The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with:
(A)
Exonucleases
(B)
Endonucleases
(C)
DNA ligase
(D)
DNA polymerase
(C)

Solution

The construction of the first recombinant DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a gene encoding antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of the so-called ‘molecular scissors’ – restriction enzymes. The cut piece of DNA was then linked with the plasmid DNA. This plasmid DNA acts as vector to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with the enzyme DNA ligase, which acts on cut DNA molecules and joins their ends. This makes a new combination of circular autonomously replicating DNA created in vitro and is known as recombinant DNA.
Q.23
Which one of the following is not observed in biodiversity hotspots ?
(A)
Endenism
(B)
Lesser inter-specific competition
(C)
Accelerated species loss
(D)
Species richness
(B)

Solution

Lesser inter-specific competition is not observe in biodiversity hotspots, levels of species richness and high degree of endemism. Initially 25 biodiversity hotspots were identified but subsequently nine more have of biodiversity hotspots in the world to 34. These hotspots are also regions of accelerated habitat loss.
Q.24
World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was held in:
(A)
South Africa
(B)
Sweden
(C)
Brazil
(D)
Argentina
(A)

Solution

World Summit on sustainable development (2002) was held in Johannesburg, South Africa, 190 countries pledged their commitment to achieve by 2010, a significant in reduction the current rate of biodiversity loss at global, regional and local levels.
Q.25
The table below gives the populations (in thousands) of ten species (A-J) in four areas (a-d) consisting of the number of habitats given within brackets against each. Study the table and answer the question which follows: AIPMT 2008 Biology - Biodiversity and Conservation Question 56 English Which area out of a to d shows maximum species diversity?
(A)
b
(B)
d
(C)
c
(D)
a
(B)

Solution

Species richness refers to the number of species per unit area. Species evenness is the relative abundance with which each species is represented in an area. Thus variation in the number of species, kinds of species as well as the number of individuals per species lead to greater diversity. Area(d) and number of habitats (12) shows the maximum species diversity.
Q.26
Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species
(A)
Alternaria
(B)
Erwinia
(C)
Xanthomonas
(D)
Pseudomonas.
(C)

Solution

Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species of Xanthomonas. Mature rice plant are infected by these bacteria, lesion begins as water soaked stripes on the leaf blades and eventually would increase in length and width becoming yellow to grayish-white until the entire leaf dries up.
Q.27
In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements in true about archaea?
(A)
Archaea completely differ from both prokaryyotes and eukaryotes.
(B)
Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes.
(C)
Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects.
(D)
Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(D)

Solution

A domain of prokaryotic organisms containing the archaebacteria including the methanogens, which produce methane; the thermoacidophilic bacteria, which live in extremely hot and acidic environments, & the halophilic bacteria, which can only function at high salt concentrations are abundant in the world’s oceans.
Q.28
Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify
(A)
backteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
(B)
bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
(C)
archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
(D)
archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled.
(C)

Solution

Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones.
Q.29
The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses a number of
(A)
berries
(B)
mericarps
(C)
achenes
(D)
samaras.
(C)

Solution

Syconus develop from hypanthodium type of inflorescence. The flask shaped fleshy receptacle encloses female flower which produces small achene like fruitlets and has a small pore protected by scale leaves. E.g., syconus of fig (Ficus carica).
Q.30
Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the sead of
(A)
pea
(B)
maize
(C)
coconut
(D)
castor.
(A)

Solution

In pea, endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed. The endosperm is completely absorbed by the growing embryo and the food reserve gets stored in the cotyledons. Such seeds are called non endospermic or exalbuminous.
Q.31
The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior ovary and has seeds with succulent testa in
(A)
guava
(B)
cucumber
(C)
pomegranate
(D)
orange.
(C)

Solution

In pomegranate, the whole fruit is covered by a hard rind made up of exocarp and a part of mesocarp. It develops from multilocular syncarpous inferior ovary. Mesocarp forms plate like infolding (i.e. chambered) and the seeds are covered by endocarp and contain bright red succulent testa.
Q.32
Replum is present in the ovary of flower of
(A)
sun flower
(B)
pea
(C)
lemon
(D)
mustard
(D)

Solution

Replum is present in the ovary of flower of mustard. A false septun called replum develops between the two parietal placentae in mustard and other members of family Brassicaceae. The ovary becomes bilocular.
Q.33
Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is
(A)
berry
(B)
cremocarp
(C)
caryopsis
(D)
cypsella.
(D)

Solution

Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is cypsela. Cypsela is also called inferior, false or pseudocarpic achene, the thin fruit wall (developed from pericarp and thalamus)is attached to the seed at one point but the fruits develops from an inferior, unilocular and uniovuled ovary, e.g., sunflower, marigold. Some cypsela develop pappus for dispersal e.g. Soncus, Taraxacum.
Q.34
The C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than C3 plants because
(A)
the CO2 efflux is not prevented
(B)
they have more chloroplasts
(C)
the CO2 compensation point is more
(D)
CO2 generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase.
(B)

Solution

The C4 pathway allows photosynthesis to occur at very low concentrations of carbon dioxide as PEP carboxylase has an extremely high affinity for carbon dioxide. This pathway also works well at high temperatures and light intensity, enabling efficient photosynthesis in tropical plants.
Q.35
In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis during CO2 fixation occurs in
(A)
bundle sheath
(B)
guard cells
(C)
epidermal cells
(D)
mesophyll cells.
(D)

Solution

C4 plants show kranz anatomy, i.e., the mesophyll is undifferentiated and its cells occur in concentric layers around vascular bundle, which is surrounded by large sized bundle sheath cells, in a wreath like manner. In this type of plants, the initial fixation of CO2 occur in mesophyll cell. The primary acceptor (phosphoenol pyruvate) combines with CO2 to form oxaloacetic acid which later reduces to malic acid. Malic acid is then translocated to bundle sheath cell for further decarboxylation.
Q.36
Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II are accepted first by
(A)
quinone
(B)
ferredoxin
(C)
cytochrome-b
(D)
cytochrome-f.
(A)

Solution

Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II are accepted first by quinone. Photosystem II is a photosynthetic pigment system along with some electron carriers that are located in the appressed part of the grana thylakoids. Photosystem II has chlorophyll a, b and carotenoids. Other components of PS II are phaeophytin, plastoquinone (PQ), cytochrome complex and blue coloured copper containing plastocyanin.
Q.37
Which one of the following conditions in humans is correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality/linkage?
(A)
Klinfelter's syndrome — 44 autosomes + XXY
(B)
Colour-blindness — Y-linked
(C)
Down syndrome — 44 autosomes + XO
(D)
Erythroblastosis foetalis — X-linked
(A)

Solution

Klinefelter's syndrome is a genetic disorder affecting men in which an individual gains an extra X chromosome, so that the usual Karyotype of XY is replaced by one of XXY. Symptoms of Klinefelter's syndrome named after us physician H.P. Klinefelter, include female characteristics (such as breast enlargement).
So, the corresponding genotype will be AaBb.
Q.38
Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because:
(A)
all mutations, whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids
(B)
mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than in diploids
(C)
haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids
(D)
haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids
(A)

Solution

Haploid plants, are always pure because they possess only one set of chromosomes. So, the mutations are expressed very easily in haploid plants as compared to diploid plants.
Q.39
In the DNA molecule:
(A)
the total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
(B)
there are two strands which run antiparallel one in 5'→ 3' direction and other in 3'→ 5'
(C)
there are two strands which run parallel in the 5'→ 3' direction
(D)
the proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism
(B)

Solution

In the DNA molecule, there are two strands which run anti parallel one is 5' - 3' direction and other in 3' -5' direction, the two chains are held together by hydrogen bonds between their bases. Adenine (A), a purine of one chain his exactly opposite thymine (T), a pyramidine of the other chain. Similarly, cytosine (C), a pyrimidine lies opposite guanine (G), a purine. This allows a sort of lock & key arrangment between large sized purine & small sized pyrimidine. It is strengthened by the appearance of hydrogen bonds between the two.
Q.40
Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it?
(A)
Thymine, Uracil — Pyrimidines
(B)
Guanine, Adenine — Purines
(C)
Uracil, Cytosine — Pyrimidines
(D)
Adenine, Thymine — Purines
(D)

Solution

Purine is an organic nitrogenous base sparingly soluble in water, that gives rise to a group of biologically important derivatives, notably adenine and guanine, which occur in nucleotides and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA).
Q.41
Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the particular amino acid ?
(A)
UUA, UCA — Leucine
(B)
AUG, ACG — Start/Methionine
(C)
UAG, UGA — Stop
(D)
GUU, GCU — Alanine
(C)

Solution

GCU indicates alanine but GUU indicates valine.
Stop codons are UAG, UGA and UAA AUG is the most common start codon which codes for methionine.
UUA indicates leucine but UCA indicates serine.
Q.42
Polysome is formed by
(A)
several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(B)
many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum
(C)
a ribosome with several subunits
(D)
ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
(A)

Solution

Polysome (Polyribosome) is a complex formed by several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA molecule in the process of translation.
Q.43
Which one of the following is linked to the discovery of Bordeaux mixture as a popular fungicide ?
(A)
Downy mildew of grapes
(B)
Bacterial leaf blight of rice
(C)
Loose smut of wheat
(D)
Black rust of wheat
(A)

Solution

Downy mildew of grapes disesase is linked to the discovery of Bordeux mixture as a popular fungicide. Bordeux mixture was discovered by Millardet in France in 1882. Bordeux mixture is prepared by dissolving 40g of copper sulphate and 40 g of calcium hydroxide in 5 litres of water. Bordeux mixture is used primarily as a fungicide, it was first used to control downy mildew disease of grape-vine caused by a fungus, Plasmopara viticola. The first pesticide to be used commercially was bordeux mixture.
Q.44
Consider the following four measures (1-4) that could be taken to successfully grow chickpea in an area where bacterial blight disease is common:
(i) Spray with Bordeaux mixture
(ii) Control of the insect vector of the disease pathogen
(iii) Use of only disease-free seeds
(iv) Use of varieties resistant to the disease
Which two of the above measures can control the disease ?
(A)
(i) and (ii)
(B)
(i) and (iv)
(C)
(ii) and (iii)
(D)
(iii) and (iv)
(B)

Solution

Use of only disease free seeds and use of disease resistant varieties are the most important control measures that could be taken to successfully grow chickpea in an area where bacterial blight disease is common.
Q.45
Cry I endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against:
(A)
Mosquitoes
(B)
Flies
(C)
Nematodes
(D)
Boll worms
(D)

Solution

Cry endotoxin obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against bollworms. A bollworm is a common term for any larva of a moth that attacks the fruiting bodies of certain crops, especially cotton.
Q.46
Main objective of production/use of herbicide resistant GM crops is to:
(A)
eliminate weeds from the field without the use of manual labour
(B)
eliminate weeds from the field without the use of herbicides
(C)
encourage eco-friendly herbicides
(D)
reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles for health safety
(A)

Solution

Genetic engineering has helped to develop such transgenic crop plants which are resistant to herbicides so that they are not damaged when farmers spray herbicides in the fields. Herbicide resistant plants have been developed in such a way that they continue to produce normal crop yield and at the same time remain unaffected by the activity of herbicides. These plants also reduces the use of weeding labour, farmer’s cost and increases yield.
Q.47
A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing countries is
(A)
Flavr Savr tomatoes
(B)
Bt soybean
(C)
Starlink maize.
(D)
Golden rice
(D)

Solution

Golden rice is a transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing countries. Golden rice or miracle rice is rich in vitamin A or β-carotene and iron. Decaffeinated coffee are also valuable achievements of gene transfer technology.
Q.48
Human insulin is being commercially produced from a transgenic species of:
(A)
Escherichia
(B)
Mycobacterium
(C)
Rhizobium
(D)
Saccharomyces
(A)

Solution

Human insulin is being commercially produced from a transgenic species of Escherichia coli. E. coli is a bacterium that is commonly found in the lower intestine of warm blooded animals. The bacteria can also be grown easily and its genetics are comparatively simple and easily manipulated, making it one of the best studied prokaryotic model organisms, and an important species in biotechnology.
Q.49
Consider the following four statements (1-4) about certain desert animals such as kangaroo-rat.
(i) They have dark colour and high rate of reproduction and excrete solid urine
(ii) They do not drink water, breathe at a slow rate to conserve water and have their body covered with thick hairs
(iii) They feed on dry seeds and do not required drinking water
(iv) They excrete very concentrated urine and do not use water to regulate body temperature
Out of these four, which two are correct-
(A)
(i) and (ii)
(B)
(ii) and (iii)
(C)
(iii) and (i)
(D)
(iii) and (iv)
(D)

Solution

Characteristics of certain desert animals such as kangaroo, rat are -
• They feed on dry seeds and do not require drinking water.
• They excrete very concentrated urine and do not use water to regulate body temperature.
Q.50
Quercus species are the dominant component in:
(A)
Temperate deciduous forests
(B)
Alpine forests
(C)
Scrub forests
(D)
Tropical rain forests
(A)

Solution

Species richness refers to the number of species per unit area. Species evenness is the relative abundance with which each species is represented in an area. Thus variation in the number of species, kinds of species as well as the number of individuals per species lead to greater diversity. Area(d) and number of habitats (12) shows the maximum species diversity.
Q.51
According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for greatest harm to human health?
(A)
2.5 or less
(B)
1.5 or less
(C)
1.0 or less
(D)
5.2-2.5
(A)

Solution

The central pollution control board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1981. It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forest, of the provisions of the Environments (protection) Act, 1986. Principal functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the water (prevention and control of pollution) act, 1974, and the Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1981.
(i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the states by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution. (ii) to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
According to CPCB, 2.5 or less particulate size in diameter (in micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for greatest harm to human health.
Q.52
A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within a few days. Consider the following reasons for this?
(i) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in the crops in the vicinity
(ii) the area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft
(iii) The lake water turned green and stinky
(iv) Phytoplankton populations in the lake declined initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis
Which two of the above were the main causes of fish mortality in the lake?
(A)
(i), (ii)
(B)
(iii), (iv)
(C)
(i), (iii)
(D)
(ii), (iii)
(A)

Solution

Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in the crops in the vicinity and the lake water turned green and stinky. Due to this, lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within a few days.
Q.53
Which one of the following is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total of 4) greenhouse gases that contribute to the total global warming ?
(A)
CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
(B)
CO2 40%, CFCs 30%
(C)
N2O 6%, CO2 86%
(D)
Methane 20%, N2O 18%
(A)

Solution

CFC 14%, Methane 20% is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total of 4) green house gases that contribute to the total global warming. A regular assessment of abundance of green house gases and their impact on global environment is being made by IPCC (Inter-Governmental Panel on Climate Change). The various green house gases are CO2 ( warming effect 60%), CH4 (effect 20%), chlorofluorocarbons or CFCS (14%) and nitrous oxide (N2O), 6%). Others of minor significance are water vapours and ozone.
Q.54
Select one of the following pairs of important features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms.
(A)
Perianth and two integuments
(B)
Embryo development and apical meristem
(C)
Absence of resin duct and leaf venation
(D)
Presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia
(D)

Solution

In gymnosperm except Order Gnetales (Gnetum) xylem consist of xylem parenchyma and tracheids with bordered pits but lacks vessels. So, Gnetales are the most advanced among gymnosperms. They lack archegonia in female gametophyte thus showing similarity with angiosperm and act as connecting link between the two.
Q.55
In which one of the following male and female gametophytes do not have free living independent existance?
(A)
Polytrichum
(B)
Cedrus
(C)
Pteris
(D)
Funaria
(B)

Solution

Male and female gametophytes of Cedrus do not have free living independent existence. Cedrus belongs to conifer.
Q.56
Which one of the following is heterosporous?
(A)
Adiantum
(B)
Equisetum
(C)
Dryopteris
(D)
Salvinia
(D)

Solution

The sporophyte of pteridophyte produces meiospores inside sporangia, which may be homosporous (e.g., Equisetum, Adiantum, Dryopteris, etc.) or heterosporous (e.g., Salvinia, Selaginella etc.).
Q.57
Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated in
(A)
annul plants
(B)
floral parts
(C)
vessels and tracheid differentiation leaf abscission.
(D)
leaf abscission.
(C)

Solution

Senescence is an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering plant, indicated in lead abscission. Senescence is the changes that occur in an organism between maturity and death, i.e., ageing.

Characteristically there is a deterioration in functioning as the cells become less efficient in maintaining and replacing vital cells components.
Q.58
Importance of day length in flowering of plants was first shown in
(A)
cotton
(B)
Petunia
(C)
Lemna
(D)
tobacco.
(D)

Solution

Photoperiodism was first studied by Garner and Allard (1920). They observed that “Maryland Mammoth” variety of tobacco could be made to flower in summer by reducing the light hours with artificial darkening. It could be made to remain vegetative in winter by providing extra light.
Q.59
About 70% of total global carbon is found in:
(A)
Grasslands
(B)
Agroecosystems
(C)
Oceans
(D)
Forests
(C)

Solution

About 70% of total global carbon is found in oceans. This oceanic reservoir regulates the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Atmosphere contains only about one percent of total global carbon.
Q.60
The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in nature is due to their:
(A)
low moisture content
(B)
poor nitrogen content
(C)
anaerobic environment around them
(D)
low cellulose content
(A)

Solution

Low moisture content will lead to decrease in number of decomposers because decomposers need an optimum moisture for their growth and functioning.
Q.61
Consider the following statements concerning food chains:
(i) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of vegetation
(ii) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of deers
(iii) The length of food chains is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy loss
(iv) The length of food chains may vary from 2 to 8 trophic levels
Which of two of the above statements are correct ?
(A)
(iii), (iv)
(B)
(ii), (iii)
(C)
(i), (iv)
(D)
(i), (ii)
(B)

Solution

Removal of 80% tigers (i.e., tertiary consumer) from an area resulted in decreased growth of vegetation because there will be increased numbers of primary consumers which feeds on green plant. Removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of deers on which carnivores depends. The length of food chain is generally limited to 3-4 trophic level due to energy loss because all the food available at one level is neither eaten nor used by animals at the next level and a lot of the energy is lost in respiration to drive the organisms metabolism so less energy is left to support higher trophic level.
Q.62
Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified ?
(A)
Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
(B)
Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions
(C)
Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
(D)
Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
(A)

Solution

Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations. Hashish is a preparation of Cannabis composed of the compressed trichomes collected from the Cannabis plant. Psychoactive effects vary between types of Hashish but are usually the same as those of other Cannabis preparations such as marijuana. Hashish is generally prohibited to the same extent as all other forms of cannabis. It is consumed in much the same way as Cannabis buds, used by itself in miniature smoking pipes, vapourized, hot knifed, or smoked in joints mixed with tobacco, Cannabis buds or other herbs.
Q.63
Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/ prevention/ treatment) in Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidium
(B) Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized food
(C) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
(D) Syphilis (iv) Use oval rehydration
(A)
A = (ii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (iii)
(B)
A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(C)
A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(D)
A = (ii), B = (iii), C = (iv), D = (i)
(D)

Solution

Amoebiasis : Use only sterilized food and water
Diphtheria : DPT Vaccine
Cholera : Use oral rehydration therapy
Syphilis : Treponema pallidum
Q.64
Which type of white blood cells are connected with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin?
(A)
Eosinophils
(B)
Monocytes
(C)
Neutrophils
(D)
Basophils
(D)

Solution

Basophil is a type of white blood cell (leucocyte) that has a lobed nucleus surrounded by granular cytoplasm. Basophils are produced continually by stem cells in the red bone marrow & move about in an amoeboid fashion. Like, mast cells, they produce histamine and heparin as part of the body’s defences at the site of an infection or injury.
Q.65
In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to
(A)
stimulation of the sino auricular node
(B)
pressure difference between the post caval and atrium
(C)
pushing open of the venous valves
(D)
suction pull.
(B)

Solution

Due to the pressure difference between the post caval and atrium, the blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium. Diastolic right atrium has less pressure and post caval has high pressure, thus blood moves from post caval to right atrium.
Q.66
The most active phagocytic white blood cells are
(A)
cosinophils and lymphocytes
(B)
neutrophils and monocytes
(C)
neutrophils and eosinophils
(D)
lymphocytes and macrophages,
(B)

Solution

Phagocytes are cells that are able to engulf and breakdown foreign particles, cell debris and disease producing microorganisms. Neutrophils and monocytes (type of white blood cells) are the most active phagocytic cells.
Q.67
Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of a single loop of human cochlea. AIPMT 2008 Biology - Neural Control and Coordination Question 18 English Which one of the following options correctly represents the names of three different parts?
(A)
B : Tectorial membrane, C : Perilymph, D: secretory cells
(B)
A : Perilymph, B : Tectorial membrane, C: Endolymph
(C)
C : Endolymph, D : Sensory hair cells, A : Serum
(D)
D : Sensory hair cells, A : Endolymph B : Tectorial membrane.
(B)

Solution

The diagramnatic cross section of a single loop of human cochlea represents the three different parts-
A- Perilymph
B- Tertorial membrane
C-Endolymph
Cochlea arises from sacculus. It is spirally coiled duct. It is also known as Lagena.
It is connected with sacculus by duct of reuniens.
Q.68
Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because
(A)
it is composed of enucleated cells
(B)
it is a non-living layer
(C)
its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
(D)
it has no blood supply.
(D)

Solution

Cornea is a transparent portion that forms the anterior one-sixth of the eye ball. The cornea admits and helps to focus light waves as they enter the eye. The cornea is avascular (i.e., has no blood supply). This part of eye absorbs oxygen from the air. The cornea was one of the first organs to be successfully transplanted because it lacks blood vessels.
Q.69
Which one of the following is the correct difference between rod cells and cone cells of our retina?
(A)
Rod cells Cone cells
Overall function Vision in poor light Colour vision and
detailed vision in
bright light
(B)
Rod cells Cone cells
Distribution More concentrated in
centre of retina
Evenly distributed all
over ratina
(C)
Rod cells Cone cells
Visual acuity High Low
(D)
Rod cells Cone cells
Visual pigment
contained
Iodopsion Rhodopsin
(A)

Solution

Rod cell is a type of light-sensitive receptor cell present in the retina of vertebrates. Rods contain the pigment rhodopsin and are essential for vision in dim light. They are not evenly distributed on the retina, being absent in the fovea and occupying all of the retinal margin. Cone cell is a type of light-sensitive receptor cell, found in the retina of all diurnal vertebrates. Cones are specialized to transmit information about colour and are responsible for the visual acuity of the eye. They function best in bright light. They contain pigment iodopsin. They are not evenly distributed on the retina.
Q.70
During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of
(A)
K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
(B)
Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(C)
K+ ions from extracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
(D)
Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid.
(B)

Solution

Total sum of physio-electrochemical changes that takes place along the length of nerve fibre is known as nerve impulse.
Change in potential due to stimulation of nerve fibre is called action potential. During propagation of nerve impulse, Na+ enters inside so ( +ve) charge is formed inside the membrane. K+ ions come out.
Q.71
Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter:
(i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe
(ii) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years
(iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives
(iv) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception
Which two of the above statement are correct?
(A)
(i), (iii)
(B)
(i), (ii)
(C)
(iii), (iv)
(D)
(ii), (iii)
(A)

Solution

Intrauterine devices like copper T are effective contraceptives for birth control. It suppresses sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of the sperm. Medical termination of pregnancy or induced abortion is voluntary or intentional termination of pregnancy before full term of foetus. It is comparatively safe upto 12 weeks (the first trimester) of pregnancy.
Q.72
Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of action (1-4) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow:
Method Mode of Action
(1) The pill (a) Prevents sperms
reaching cervix
(2) Condom (b) Prevents implantation
(3) Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovaulation
(4) Coppe (d) Semen contains no sperms
(A)
1 = (b), 2 = (c), 3 = (a), 4 = (d)
(B)
1 = (c), 2 = (d), 3 = (a), 4 = (b)
(C)
1 = (c), 2 = (a), 3 = (d), 4 = (b)
(D)
1 = (d), 2 = (a), 3 = (b), 4 = (c)
(C)

Solution

A. The pill — Prevents ovulation
B. Condom — Prevents sperm reaching cervix
C. Vasectomy — Semen contains no sperms
D. Copper-T — Prevent implantation.
Q.73
Which one of the following is the true description about an animal concerned?
(A)
Frog — Body divisible into three regions-head, neck and trunk
(B)
Rat — Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one
(C)
Earthworm — The alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, gizzard and intestine
(D)
Cockroach — 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
(D)

Solution

There are 10 pairs of spiracles in cockroach. Two pairs are thoracic in which first pair is known as mesothoracic, lying infront of the mesothorax between the bases of first and second pair of legs and are the largest. The second pair is called metathoracic. Abdominal spiracles are eight pairs. The first pair is dorsal in position and lies on the lateral margins of the first abdominal tergum. The remaining are situated on the sides of their corresponding segments on the pleura between the terga and sterna. Spiracles are meant for intake of fresh air and release of foul air.
Q.74
Earthworms have no skeleton but during burrowing the anterior end becomes turgid and acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to:
(A)
coelomic fluid
(B)
gut peristalsis
(C)
blood
(D)
setae
(A)

Solution

Earthworms have no skeleton but during burrowing, anterior end becomes turgid and acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to coelomic fluid. The coelom is filled with an alkaline milky coelomic fluid. This coelomic fluid contains water, salts, proteins and 4 types of cells namely amoebocytes, mucocytes, circular cells and chloragogen cells.
Q.75
What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?
(A)
In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin.
(B)
Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin.
(C)
Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin.
(D)
Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen.
(A)

Solution

If the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor, in the absence of HCI secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin.
Q.76
Which one of the following is the correct matching of the site of action on the given substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the end product?
(A)
Small intestine : Proteins amino acids
(B)
Stomach : Fats micelles
(C)
Duodenum : Triglycerides monoglycerides
(D)
Small intestine : Starch disaccharide (maltose)
(D)

Solution

Small intestine- Starch disaccharide (maltose)
Small intestine is the portion of the alimentary canal between the stomach and large intestine. It is subdivided into the duodenum, jejunum and ileum. It plays an essential role in the final digestion and absorption of food.
Q.77
The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of
(A)
both calcitonin and parathormone
(B)
calcitonin
(C)
parathormone
(D)
thyroxine.
(C)

Solution

A peptide hormone secreted by the parathyroid gland in response to low levels of calcium in the blood. It acts to maintain normal blood levels of calcium by increasing the number of osteoclasts, which break down the bone matrix and release calcium into the blood. It also increases the reabsorption of calcium and magnesium ions in the kidney tubules, so that their concentration is maintained in the blood.
Q.78
Which one of the following pair of organs includes only the endocrine glands?
(A)
Thymus and testes
(B)
Adrenal and ovary
(C)
Parathyroid and adrenal
(D)
Pancreas and parathyroid
(C)

Solution

Parathyroid and adrenal glands are the endocrine glands because they manufacture hormones and secretes them directly into the blood stream to act at distant sites in the body. Thyroid and pituitary are its other examples.
Q.79
Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstruation?
(A)
The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is called menarche
(B)
At menopause in the female, there is especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic hormones
(C)
The menstrual fluid can easily clot
(D)
During normal menstruation about 40 ml blood is lost
(C)

Solution

In human female, the periodic discharge of blood, mucus and cellular debris from uterine wall from non-pregnant women of sexual maturity is known as menstrual cycle. Few hours before the start of mensuration, the spiral arterioles constrict one by one resulting into the blanch mucosa. The mucosa shrinks and the death of the blood deprived tissues takes place. Blood clotting doesn’t occur due to presence of fibrinolysin.
Q.80
In human adult females oxytocin:
(A)
causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
(B)
stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
(C)
stimulates growth of mammary glands
(D)
is secreted by anterior pituitary
(A)

Solution

In human adult female oxytocin is a hormone released by the pituitary gland (neurohypophysis) that causes contraction of the uterus during labour and stimulates milk flow from the breasts by causing contraction of muscle fibres in the milk ducts.
Q.81
In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the:
(A)
secondary spermatocytes
(B)
spermatogonia
(C)
primary spermatocytes
(D)
spermatids
(A)

Solution

During embryonic development the primordial germ cells migrate to the testis where they become spermatogonia. At puberty the spermatogonia proliferate rapidly by mitosis. Some undergo growth phase to become primary spermatocytes that further undergo through meiotic division I to become secondary spermatocytes. After completion of meiotic division II the secondary spermatocytes produce spermatids which differentiate to form spermatozoa.
Q.82
Which extraembryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus?
(A)
Yolk sac
(B)
Amnion
(C)
Chorion
(D)
Allantois
(B)

Solution

Amnion is an extraembryonic membrane in human prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus. Amnion is a membrane that encloses the embryo of reptiles, birds and mammals within the amniotic cavity. This cavity is filled with amniotic fluid, in which the embryo is protected from dessication and external pressure.
Q.83
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Phylum Annelida?
(A)
Pseudocoelom
(B)
Ventral nerve cord
(C)
Closed circulatory system
(D)
Segmentation
(A)

Solution

Phylum Annelida comprises invertebrates, which are segmented worms having cylindrical soft bodies showing metameric segmentation. These are triploblastic animals showing bilateral symmetry. A true coelom is present which is filled with coelomic fluid containing cells. Annelids are perhaps the first animals to have a true schizocoelic coelom.
Q.84
Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics?
(A)
echinodermata - pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilization
(B)
Mollusca - normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or veliger larva
(C)
Arthropoda - body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by tracheae
(D)
Chordata - notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary openings to the outside.
(C)

Solution

Mollusca mostly oviparous and a few viviparous. The development may be direct or indirect with trochophore, velliger and glochidium.
Q.85
Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological feature?
(A)
Animals Morphological features
Scorpion, spider, ventral solid central cockroach
nervous system
(B)
Animals Morphological features
Cockroach, locust,
Taenia
metameric segmentation
(C)
Animals Morphological features
Liver fluke, sea anemone,
sea cucumber
bilateral symmetry
(D)
Animals Morphological features
Centipede, prawn, sea
urchin
jointed appendages
(A)

Solution

Scorpion, spider and cockroach belong to Phylum Arthropoda and are invertebrates. They possess ventral solid central nervous system which consists of a dorsal brain connected with a nerve ring to a double ventral nerve cord.
Q.86
Ascaris is characterized by
(A)
presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism
(B)
presence of true coelom and metamerism (metamerisation)
(C)
absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism
(D)
presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism.
(D)

Solution

Ascaris is a common parasite found in the large intestine of man. It is world wide in distribution. The number of worms may be 500 or more in a single host. Ascaris is characterised by presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism.
Q.87
Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs to the category of organs mentioned against it?
(A)
Nephridia of earthworm and Malpighian tubules of cockroach - excretory organs
(B)
wings of honey bee and wings of crow homologous organs
(C)
Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita - analogous organs
(D)
Nictitating membrane and blind spot in human eye - vestigial organs
(A)

Solution

Nephridia of earthworm and malphigian tubules of cockroach belongs to excretory organs. Earthworm has a well developed excretory system which is composed of large number of minute, coiled and glandular segmentally arranged excretory tubules called the nephridia. Malphigian tubules of cockroach are extremely fine yellowish unbranched thread like structure present at the function of midgut and hindgut.
Q.88
Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry?
(A)
Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract
(B)
Eggs with a calcareous shell
(C)
Scales on their hind limbs
(D)
Four-chambered heart
(C)

Solution

Birds have originated from some ancestral reptilian stalk. These two classes have so many features in common that link the two groups. The evidence of reptilian ancestry of birds is furnished by their comparative anatomy, embryology and palaeontology.

One of the features is that all birds have horny epidermal scales confined to the lower parts of their legs and feet, which are exactly like the epidermal scales of the reptiles.
Q.89
Darwin's finches are a good example of –
(A)
Convergent evolution
(B)
Adaptive radiation
(C)
Connecting link
(D)
Industrial melanism
(B)

Solution

Darwin finches a good example of adaptive radiation. Adaptive radiation is a process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and radiating to other areas of geography.
Q.90
Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are examples of:
(A)
analogous organs
(B)
homologous organs
(C)
vestigial organs
(D)
retrogressive evolution
(B)

Solution

The organs which have the same fundamental structure but are different in function are called homologous organs. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita both arises in the axillary position, but have different functions.
Q.91
Which one of the following scientist's name is correctly matched with the theory put fourth by him?
(A)
Mendel — Theory of pangenesis
(B)
deVries — Natural selection
(C)
Pasteur — Inheritance of acquired characters
(D)
Weismann — Theory of continuity of germplasm
(D)

Solution

Theory of continuity of germplasm was put forward by August Weismann. According to this, the characters influencing the germ cells are only inherited. There is a continuity of germplasm but the somataplasm is not transmitted to the next generation hence it doesn’t carry characters to next generation.
Q.92
Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life?
(A)
They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings
(B)
They were able to reproduce
(C)
They were partially isolated from the surruounding
(D)
They could maintain an internal environment
(B)

Solution

Coacervate is an aggregate of macromolecules such as proteins, lipids and membrane, and contain enzymes that are capable of converting substance such as glucose into more complex molecules, such as starch. Coacervate droplets arise spontaneously under appropriate conditions and may have been the prebiological systems from which living organisms originated.