NEET-UG 2010

AIPMT 2010 Prelims

Physics (Maximum Marks: 208)
  • This section contains 52 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
The dimension of , where is permittivity of free space and E is electric field, is
(A)
ML2T2
(B)
ML1T2
(C)
ML2T1
(D)
MLT1
(B)

Solution

= Energy density of an electric field E

Also Energy density = = =
Q.2
A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x = (t + 5)1. The acceleration of particle is proportional to
(A)
(velocity)3/2
(B)
(distance)2
(C)
(distance)2
(D)
(velocity)2/3
(A)

Solution

x =

v = = .......(i)

= = = 2x3 .......(ii)

(distance)3

From equation (i), we get



Putting this in equation (ii), we get

= -2

(velocity)3/2
Q.3
A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 seconds another ball is thrown downwards from the same platform with a speed v. The two balls meet at t = 18 s. What is the value of v?
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
(A)
75 m/s
(B)
55 m/s
(C)
40 m/s
(D)
60 m/s
(A)

Solution

From the question, we can say

distance moved by 1st ball in 18 s = distance moved by 2nd ball in 12 s.

So, distance moved by 1st ball in 18 s

= = 1620 m

and distance moved by 2nd ball in 12 s

=

1620 =

= 75 m/s
Q.4
A particle has initial velocity and has acceleration Its speed after 10 s is
(A)
7 units
(B)
units
(C)
8.5 units
(D)
10 units
(B)

Solution

,  





vx = ux + ax 10 = 3 + 4 = 7 units

and vy = 4 + 0.3 10 = 4 + 3 = 7 units

units
Q.5
Six vectors, through have the magnitudes and directions indicated in the figure. Which of the following statements is true ?

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Physics - Motion in a Plane Question 14 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Using the law of vector addition, () is as shown in the fig.

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Physics - Motion in a Plane Question 14 English Explanation
Q.6
A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure.

The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is . The acceleration of the cart that will prevent the block from falling satisfies

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Physics - Laws of Motion Question 24 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Forces acting on the block are as shown in the fig. Normal reaction N is provided by the force ma due to acceleration

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Physics - Laws of Motion Question 24 English Explanation
N = m

For the block not to fall, frictional force,





Q.7
An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of 2 m/s. The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What is the power of the engine?
(A)
400 W
(B)
200 W
(C)
100 W
(D)
800 W
(D)

Solution

Here,

Mass per unit length of water, = 100 kg/m

Velocity of water, v = 2 m/s

Power of the engine, P = v3 = (100 kg/m) (2 m/s)3

= 800 W
Q.8
A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head on with another stationary ball of double the mass. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, then their velocities (in m/s) after collision will be
(A)
0, 1
(B)
1, 1
(C)
1, 0.5
(D)
0, 2
(A)

Solution

Here, m1 = m, m2 = 2m, u1 = 2 m/s, u2 = 0

Coefficient of restitution, e = 0.5
Let v1 and v2 be their respective velocities after collision.
Applying the law of conservation of linear momentum, we get

m1u1 + m2u2 = m1 v1 + m2 v2

m × 2 + 2m × 0 = m × v1 + 2m × v2

or 2m = mv1 + 2mv2 or 2 = (v1 + 2v2) ...(i)

By definition of coefficient of restitution,



or e(u1 – u2) = v2 – v1 0.5(2 – 0) = v2 – v1 ...(ii)

Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
v1 = 0 m/s, v2 = 1 m/s
Q.9
Two particles which are initially at rest, move towards each other under the action of their internal attraction. If their speeds are v and 2v at any instant, then the speed of centre of mass of the system will be :
(A)
2v
(B)
zero
(C)
1.5 v
(D)
v
(B)

Solution

If no external force actson a system of particles, the centre of mass remains at rest. So, speed of centre of mass is zero.
Q.10
A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity . A coin is placed at a distance r from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is . The coin will revolve with the record if
(A)
r = g2
(B)
r <
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

The coin will revolve with the record, if Force of friction Centrifugal force



Q.11
A circular disk of moment of inertia is rotating in a horizontal plane, about its symmetry axis, with a constant angular speed . Another disk of moment of inertia is dropped coaxially onto the rotating disk. Initially the second disk has zero angular speed. Eventually both the disks rotate with a constant angular speed . The energy lost by the initially rotating disc to friction is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

As no external torque is applied to the system, the angular momentum of the system remains conserved.

Li = Lf

According to given problem,



    ...(i)

Initial energy,    ...(ii)

Final energy,    ...(iii)

Substituting the value of from equation (i) in equation (iii), we get

Final energy,

   ...(iv)

Loss of energy, E = Ei – Ef

    (Using (ii) and (iv))



Q.12
A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity free space at a height of 10 m above the floor. He throws a stone of 0.5 kg mass downwards with a speed 2 m/s. When the stone reaches the floor, the distance of the man above the floor will be
(A)
9.9 m
(B)
10.1 m
(C)
10 m
(D)
20 m
(B)

Solution

Since the man is in gravity free space, force on man + stone system is zero.

Therefore centre of mass of the system remains at rest. Let the man goes x m above when the stone reaches the floor, then

Mman × x = Mstone × 10



x = 0.1 m

Therefore final height of man above floor = 10 + x = 10 + 0.1 = 10.1 m
Q.13
A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The magnitude of the gravitational potential at a point sutuated at a/2 distance from the centre, will be :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Here, Mass of a particle = M
Mass of a spherical shell = M
Radius of a spherical shell = a
Let O be centre of a spherical shell.
Gravitational potential at point P due to particle at O is



Gravitational potential at point P due to spherical shell is



Hence, total gravitational potential at point P is V = V1 + V2



Q.14
The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If the speed of satellite A is 3V, then the speed of satellite B will be
(A)
(B)
6
(C)
12
(D)
(B)

Solution

Orbital velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius a is given by







= 2v1 = 6V
Q.15
A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal contact with two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts an amount of heat Q in time t. The metallic rod is melted and the material is formed into a rod of half the radius of the original rod. What is the amount of heat conducted by the new rod, when placed in thermal contact with the two reservoirs in time t?
(A)
(B)
(C)
2Q
(D)
(B)

Solution

The amount of heat flows in time t through a cylindrical metallic rod of length L and uniform area of cross-section with its ends maintained at temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 > T2) is given by

   ...(i)

where K is the thermal conductivity of the material of the rod.
Area of cross-section of new rod

   ...(ii)

As the volume of the rod remains unchanged

AL = A'L'

where L' is the length the new rod

   ...(iii)

= 4L     (Using (ii))

Now, the amount of heat flows in same time t in the new rod with its ends maintained at the same temperatures T1 and T2 is given by

   ...(iv)

Substituting the values of A' and L' from equations (ii) and (iii) in the above equation, we get


   (Using (i))
Q.16
The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to the direction of incidence, received at a distance R from the centre of a star of radius r, whose outer surface radiates as a black body at a temperature TK is given by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

According to the Stefan Boltzmann law, the power radiated by the star whose outer surface radiates as a black body at temperature T K is given by




where, r = radius of the star
= Stefan’s constant

The radiant power per unit area received at a distance R from the centre of a star is

Q.17
Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at temperature toC, the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the incident rays) at a distance R from the centre of the sun is
where is the Stefan's constant.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Power radiated by the sun at t°C



Power received by a unit surface

Q.18
If U and W represent the increase in internal energy and work done by the system respectively in a thermodynamical process, which of the following is true ?
(A)
U = W, in an adiabtic process
(B)
U = W, in an isothermal process
(C)
U = W, in an adiabatic process
(D)
U = W, in an isothermal process
(A)

Solution

By first law of thermodynamics,



In adiabatic process,



In isothermal process,

Q.19
The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a strong of negligible mass is T. If along with it another mass M is also suspended, the period of oscillation will now be
(A)
T
(B)
(C)
2T
(D)
(D)

Solution







    (where T1 =T)
Q.20
The displacement of a particle along the x-axis is given by x = asin2t. The motion of the particle corresponds to
(A)
simple harmonic motion of frequency /
(B)
simple harmonic motion of frequency
(C)
non simple harmonic motion
(D)
simple harmonic motion of frequency
(C)

Solution



   



Velocity,

Acceleration,

For the given displacement x = ,

is not satisfied.

Hence, the motion of the particle is non simple harmonic motion.

Note : The given motion is a periodic motion with a time period

Q.21
A transverse wave is represented by
y = Asin(t kx). For what value of the wavelength is the wave velocity equal to the maximum particle velocity ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
2
(D)
(C)

Solution

y = A sin (t–kx)

Particle velocity,





wave velocity =



i.e, But

Q.22
A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beats per second with the vibrating string of a piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per sec when the tension in the piano string is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was
(A)
510 Hz
(B)
514 Hz
(C)
516 Hz
(D)
508 Hz
(D)

Solution

Let the frequencies of tuning fork and piano string be and respectively.



= 516 Hz or 508 Hz

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Physics - Waves Question 35 English Explanation

Increase in the tension of a piano string increases its frequency.

If = 516 Hz, further increase in , resulted in an increase in the beat frequency. But this is not given in the question.

If = 508 Hz, further increase in resulted in decrease in the beat frequency. This is given in the question. When the beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per second. Therefore, the frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was 508 Hz.
Q.23
Two positives ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be (e being the charge on an electron)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

According to Coulomb’s law, the force of repulsion between the two positive ions each of charge q, separated by a distance d is given by







   ...(i)

Since, q = ne
where, n = number of electrons missing from each ion
e = magnitude of charge on electron



   (Using (i))

=
Q.24
A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field (volt/m) acting along the same plane at an angle with the horizontal side of the square as shown in figurre.

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Physics - Electrostatics Question 54 English
The electric flux linked to the surface, in units of volt m is
(A)
EL2
(B)
EL2cos
(C)
EL2sin
(D)
zero
(D)

Solution

Electric flux, = EA cos , where = angle between E and normal to the surface.

Here,

= 0
Q.25
A potentiometer circuit is set up as shown. The potential gradient, across the potentiometer wire, is k volt/cm and the ammeter, present in the circuit, reads 1.0 A when two way key is switched off. The balance points, when the key between the terminals (i) 1 and 2 (ii) 1 and 3, is plugged in, are found to be at length 1 cm and 2 cm respectively. The magnitudes, of the resistors R and X, in ohms, are then, equal, respectively, to

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Physics - Current Electricity Question 86 English
(A)
and
(B)
and
(C)
and
(D)
and
(B)

Solution

(i) When key between the terminals 1 and 2 is plugged in,

P.D. across R = IR =

R = as I = 1A

(ii) When key between terminals 1 and 3 is plugged in,

P.D. across (X + R) = I(X + R) =

X + R =

X =

R = and X =
Q.26
Consider the following two statements.
(A)  Kirchoff's junction law follows from the conservation of charge.
(B)  Kirchhoff's loop law follows from the conservation of energy.

Which of the following is correct?
(A)
Both (A) and (B) are wrong
(B)
(A) is correct and (B) is wrong
(C)
(A) is wrong and (B) is correct
(D)
Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D)

Solution

Kirchhoff’s junction law or Kirchhoff’s first law is based on the conservation of charge.

Kirchhoff’s loop law or Kirchhoff’s second law is based on the conservation of energy.

Hence both statements (A) and (B) are correct.
Q.27
A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value C1, is charged by a source of potential difference 4V. When another parallel combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C2, is charged by a source of potential difference V, it has the same (total) energy stored in it. as the first combination has. The value of C2. in terms of C1, is then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

A series combination of n1 capacitors each of capacitance C1 are connected to 4V source.

Total capacitance of the series combination of the capacitors is

1/Cs = 1/C1 + 1/C1 + 1/C1 .... upto n1 terms = n1/C1

Cs = C1/n1

Total energy stored in a series combination of the capacitors is

Us = (1/2) Cs (4V)2 = (1/2) (C1/n1) (4V)2    …(1)

Now a parallel combination of n2 capacitors each of capacitance C2 are connected to V source

Total capacitance of the parallel combination of capacitors is

Cp = C1 + C2 + ... + upto n2 terms = n2C2

Cp = n2C2

Total energy stored in a parallel combination of capacitors is

Up = (1/2)CpV2 = (1/2)(n2C2 )(V)2    ...(ii)

According to the given problem, Us = Up

(1/2) (C1/n1)(4V)2 = (1/2)(n2C2)(V)2

C1 × 16/n1 = n2C2

C2 = 16 × C1 / (n1 × n2)
Q.28
A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 ohm and gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30 volt range, the resistance required to be added will be
(A)
900
(B)
1800
(C)
500
(D)
1000
(A)

Solution

Let the resistance to be added be R, then

30 = Ig (r + R)

R =

=

= 1000 - 100 = 900
Q.29
A square current carrying loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop. If the force on one arm of the loop is the net force on the remaining three arms of the loop is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

When a current carrying loop is placed in a magnetic field, the coil experiences a torque given by . Torque is maximum when = 90o,i.e., the plane of the coil is parallel to the field

Forces and acting on the coil are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. As the forces and have the same line of action their resultant effect on the coil is zero. The two forces and are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. As the two forces have different lines of action, they constitute a torque. Thus, if the force on one arc of the loop is , the net force on the remaining three arms of the loop is - F.
Q.30
A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 ohm and gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30 volt range, the resistance required to be added will be
(A)
900
(B)
1800
(C)
500
(D)
1000
(A)

Solution

Here,
Resistance of galvanometer, G = 100

Current for full scale deflection, Ig = 30 mA = 30 × 10–3 A

Range of voltmeter, V = 30 V

To convert the galvanometer into an voltmeter of a given range, a resistance R is connected in series with it as shown in the figure.

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 56 English Explanation
From figure, V = Ig(G + R)



= 1000 – 100 = 900
Q.31
Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency Hz. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the center of the ring is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

When the ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency f Hz, the current flowing in the ring is

I = = qf

Magnetic field at the centre of the ring is

B = =
Q.32
Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has
(A)
low retentivity and high coercive force
(B)
high retentivity and high coercive force
(C)
low retentivity and low coercive force
(D)
high retentivity and low coercive force
(C)

Solution

Electromagnet are made of soft iron because  soft iron has low retentivity and low coercive force  or low coercivity.
Q.33
A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet executes oscillations with a time period of 2 sec in earth's horizontal magnetic field of 24 microtesla. When a horizontal field of 18 microtesla is produced opposite to the earth's field by placing a current carrying wire, the new time period of magnet will be
(A)
1 s
(B)
2 s
(C)
3 s
(D)
4 s
(D)

Solution

The time period T of oscillation of a magnet is given by

T =

As I, B remains the same here

So T

or

T2 =

= = 4 s
Q.34
A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane perpendicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm s1. The induced emf when the radius is 2 cm, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2
(B)

Solution

Constant rate at which radius of the loop shrinks

m s-1

Magnetic flux linked with the loop is

= BAcos = B(r2)cos0o = Br2

The magnitude of the induced emf is

|e| =

= 0.025 2 2 10-2 1 10-3

= 10-6 V

=
Q.35
A 220 volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0 ampere at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drwn by the primary windings of the transformer is
(A)
3.6 ampere
(B)
2.8 ampere
(C)
2.5 ampere
(D)
5.0 ampere
(D)

Solution

Efficiency of the transformer,
=
Output power
Input power




Ip = = 5 A
Q.36
In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Physics - Alternating Current Question 48 English
(A)
150V, 2.2A
(B)
220V, 2.2A
(C)
220V, 2.0A
(D)
100V, 2.0A
(B)

Solution

As VL = VC = 300 V, resonance will take place

VR = 220 V

Current, I = = 2.2 A

Hence, the reading of the voltmeter V3 is 220 V and the reading of ammeter A is 2.2 A.
Q.37
Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves ?
(A)
Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same time.
(B)
The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors.
(C)
Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave.
(D)
These waves do not require any material medium for propagation.
(C)

Solution

In an electromagnetic wave it is observed that electric and magnetic vectors are perpendicular to each other and are perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave.
Q.38
A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive index , falls on a surface separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence of 45o. For which of the following value of the ray can undergo total internal reflection ?
(A)
= 1.33
(B)
= 1.40
(C)
= 1.50
(D)
= 1.25
(C)

Solution

For total internal reflection, sini sinC

where, i = angle of incidence, C = critical angle

But, sinC =

sini





Q.39
A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter d forms an image of intensity I. Aperture of diameter in central region of lens is covered by a black paper. Focal length of lens and intensity of image now will be respectively
(A)
and
(B)
and
(C)
and
(D)
and
(C)

Solution

By covering aperture, focal length does not change. But intensity is reduced by times, as aperture diameter is covered.

I' = I - =

New focal length = f

and intensity =
Q.40
The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as N0 counts per minute at t = 0 and N0/e counts per minute at t = 5 minutes. The time (in minutes) at which the activity reduces to half its value is
(A)
(B)
(C)
5log102
(D)
5loge 2
(D)

Solution

Now N = N0et

= N0e–5t

= per minute

Further, = N0e–λ(t)

t = = 5loge 2
Q.41
The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is 13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state will be
(A)
13.6 eV
(B)
27.2 eV
(C)
54.4 eV
(D)
6.8 eV
(A)

Solution

Energy of a H-like atom in it's nth state is given by,

En =

For, first excited state of He+, n = 2, Z = 2

EHe+ = = -13.6 eV
Q.42
The mass of a Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy per nucleon of nucleus is nearly
(A)
46 MeV
(B)
5.6 MeV
(C)
3.9 MeV
(D)
23 MeV
(B)

Solution

For nucleus,

Mass defect, M = 0.042 u

1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2

M = 0.042 × 931.5 MeV/c2 = 39.1 MeV/c2

Number of nucleons in is 7.

Binding energy per nucleon,

Ebn = = 5.6 MeV
Q.43
The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is 13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state will be
(A)
13.6 eV
(B)
27.2 eV
(C)
54.4 eV
(D)
6.8 eV
(A)
Q.44
An alpha nucleus of energy mv2 bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to
(A)
(B)
v2
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Kinetic energy of alpha nucleus is equall to electrostatic potential energy of the system of the alpha particle and the heavy nucleus. That is,



dmin
Q.45
The potential difference that must be applied to stop the fastest photoelectrons emitted by a nickel surface, having work functions 5.01 eV, when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must be
(A)
2.4 V
(B)
1.2 V
(C)
2.4 V
(D)
1.2 V
(B)

Solution

According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation

eVs = h -

eVs = -

= - 5.01

= 6.2 eV – 5.01 eV = 1.2 eV

Stopping potential, Vs = 1.2 V

The potential difference that must be applied to stop photoelectrons = – Vs = – 1.2 V
Q.46
A source S1 is producing, 1015 photons per second of wavelength 5000 . Another source S2 is producing 1.02 1015 photons per second of wavelength 5100 . Then, (power of S2)/(power of S1) is equal to
(A)
1.00
(B)
1.02
(C)
1.04
(D)
0.98
(A)

Solution

Power of S2
Power of S1
= =

= = 1
Q.47
A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed electric (E) and magnetic fields (B). The fields are adjusted such that the beam is not deflected. The specific charge of the cathode rays is given by

(Where V is the potential difference between cathode and anode)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

Force on electron due to = Force on electron due magnetic field to electric field

Bev = eE

v = .......(1)

If V is the potential difference between the anode and the cathode, then

= eV

.....(2)

Substituting the value of v from equation (1) in equation (2), we get

Q.48
To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit which of the following input will be correct ?

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 90 English
(A)
A 1,  B 0,  C 0
(B)
A 1,  B 0,  C 1
(C)
A 1,  B 1,  C 0
(D)
A 0,  B 1,  C 0
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 90 English Explanation

The Boolen expression for the given combination is

output Y = (A + B) · C

So it is clear that Y = 1, when A = 1, B = 0 and C = 1
Q.49
A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 and an output impedance of 200 . The power gain of the amplifier is
(A)
500
(B)
1000
(C)
1250
(D)
50
(C)

Solution

Voltage gain= × Impedance gain

50 = β × (200/100)

= 25

Power gain = × Voltage gain

= 25 × 50 = 1250
Q.50
Which one of the following bonds produces a solid that reflects light in the visible region and whose electrical conductivity decreases with temperature and has high melting point ?
(A)
metallic bonding
(B)
van der Waal's bonding
(C)
ionic bonding
(D)
covalent bonding
(A)

Solution

In case of metal, conductivity decreases with increase in temperature and metal has high melting point.
Q.51
The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is
(A)
junction diode
(B)
integrated circuit
(C)
junction transistor
(D)
zener diode
(B)

Solution

Integrated circuit can act as a complete electronic circuit.
Q.52
Which one of the following statement is false ?
(A)
Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type semiconductor.
(B)
Majority carries in a n-type semiconductor are holes.
(C)
Minority carries in a p-type semiconductor are electrons.
(D)
The resistance of intrinisic semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature.
(B)

Solution

In a n-type semiconductors, electrons are majority carriers and holes are minority carriers.
Chemistry (Maximum Marks: 208)
  • This section contains 52 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is (NA = 6.02 1023 mol1)
(A)
6.026 1022
(B)
1.806 1023
(C)
3.600 1023
(D)
1.800 1022
(B)

Solution

No. of atoms

= NA No. of moles 3

= 6.023 1023 0.1 3

= 1.806 1023
Q.2
25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 is dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates completely, molar concentration of sodium ion, Na+ and carbonate ions, CO are respectively (Molar mass of Na2CO3 = 106 g mol1)
(A)
0.955 M and 1.910 M
(B)
1.910 M and 0.955 M
(C)
1.90 M and 1.910 M
(D)
0.477 M and 0.477 M
(B)

Solution

Given in the question that molar mass of Na2CO3 = 106 g

Molarity of solution =

= 0.9547 M = 0.955 M

Na2CO3 2Na+ +

[Na+] = 2[Na2CO3] = 2 0.955 = 1.910 M

[] = [Na2CO3] = 0.955 M
Q.3
In which of the following equilibrium Kc and Kp are not equal?
(A)
2NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g)
(B)
SO2(g) + NO2(g) SO3(g) + NO(g)
(C)
H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
(D)
2C(s) + O2(g) 2CO2(g)
(D)

Solution

As we know, Kp = Kc × (RT)ng

So, for reaction having same number of gaseous moles on reactants and products side will have same value of Kc and Kp otherwise their values are different.

For reaction, 2NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g)

ng = 2 – 2 = 0

Kp = Kc × (RT)0

Kp = Kc

For reaction, SO2(g) + NO2(g) SO3(g) + NO(g)

ng = 2 – 2 = 0

Kp = Kc × (RT)0

Kp = Kc

For reaction, H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)

ng = 2 – 2 = 0

Kp = Kc × (RT)0

Kp = Kc

For reaction, H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)

ng = 2 – 2 = 0

Kp = Kc × (RT)0

Kp = Kc

For reaction, 2C(s) + O2(g) 2CO2(g)

ng = 2 – 3 = -1

Kp = Kc × (RT)-1

Kp Kc
Q.4
If pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12, the value of its Ksp is
(A)
4.00 106 M3
(B)
4.00 107 M3
(C)
5.00 106 M3
(D)
5.00 107 M3
(D)

Solution

Ba(OH)2 Ba2+ + 2OH
At equilibrium x 2x


pH = – log[H+]

12 = – log [H+]

[H+] = 10–12

As, [H+][OH ] = 10–14

10–12 [OH ] = 10–14

[OH ] = 10–2

As [OH ] = 2x = 10–2 then x = 5.0 × 10–3

Now, Ksp = [Ba2+][OH ]2

Ksp = (5 × 10–3) (10–2)2 = 5.0 × 10–7
Q.5
In a buffer solution containing equal concentration of B and HB, the Kb for B is 1010. The pH of buffer solution is
(A)
10
(B)
7
(C)
6
(D)
4
(D)

Solution

pOH = pKb + log

pOH = - log Kb + log

pOH = –log10–10 + log 1

[As conc. of HB and B are same]

pOH = 10

pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 10 = 4
Q.6
What is [H+] in mol/L of a solution that is 0.20 M in CH3COONa and 0.10 M in CH3COOH? Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 105
(A)
3.5 104
(B)
1.1 105
(C)
1.8 105
(D)
9.0 106
(D)

Solution

CH3COOH and CH3COONa constitute to form an acidic buffer.

pH = pKa + log

pH = –log(1.8 × 10–5) + log

= 4.74 + log 2

= 4.74 + 0.3010 = 5.041

Now, pH = – log[H+]

5.041 = – log[H+]

[H+] = 10–5.041 = 9.0 × 106 mol L–1
Q.7
A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point of the solution obtained will be (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol1)
(A)
0.372oC
(B)
0.520oC
(C)
+ 0.372oC
(D)
0.570oC
(A)

Solution

Depression in freezing point,

Tf = Kf m

m =

=

Tf = 1.86

= 0.372 oC

Tf = 0 - 0.372 oC = - 0.372 oC
Q.8
An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which change will cause the vapour pressure of the solution to increase?
(A)
Addition of NaCl
(B)
Addition of Na2SO4
(C)
Addition of 1.00 molal KI
(D)
Addition of water
(D)

Solution

Addition of solute decreases the vapour pressure as some sites of the surface are occupied by solute particles resulting in decreased surface area. However, addition of solvent, i.e., dilution increases the surface area of the liquid surface, thus results in increased vapour pressure. Hence, addition of water to the aqueous solution of (1 molal) KI results in increased vapour pressure.
Q.9
For an endothermic reaction, energy of activation is Ea and enthalpy of reaction is H (both of these in kJ/mol). Minimum value of Ea will be
(A)
less than H
(B)
equal to H
(C)
more than H
(D)
equal to zero
(C)

Solution

Here,

Ea = activation energy of forward reaction

E’a = activation energy of backward reaction

H = enthalpy of the reaction AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Thermodynamics Question 69 English Explanation
From the given diagram it is clear that

Ea = E’a + H

Ea > H
Q.10
Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 J K1 mol1 respectively. For the reaction

1/2X2 + 3/2Y2 XY3, H = 30 kJ,

to be at equilibrium, the temperature should be
(A)
750 K
(B)
1000 K
(C)
1250 K
(D)
500 K
(A)

Solution

Given reaction is :

X2 + Y2 ⇌ XY3

We know,

So =

= 50 - (30 + 60) = -40 J K-1 mol-1

At equilibrium Go = 0

Ho = TSo

= = 750 K
Q.11
For the reduction of silver ions with copper metal, the standard cell potential was found to be + 0.46 V at 25oC. The value of standard Gibb's energy, Go will be
(F = 96500 C mol1)
(A)
89.0 kJ
(B)
89.0 J
(C)
44.5 kJ
(D)
98.0 kJ
(A)

Solution

The cell reaction

Cu + 2Ag+ Cu2+ + 2Ag

We know, G° = – nFE°cell

= – 2 × 96500 × 0.46 = – 88780 J

= – 88.780 kJ = – 89 kJ
Q.12
An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to
(A)
increase in ionic mobility of ions
(B)
100% ionisation of electrolyte at normal dilution
(C)
increase in both i.e., number of ions and ionic mobility of ions
(D)
increase in number of ions.
(A)

Solution

Dilution of strong electrolytes increases ionisation, hence ionic mobility of ions increases which in turn increases equivalent conductance of the solution.
Q.13
During the kinetic study of the reaction, 2A + B C + D, following results were obtained
Run [A]/mol L1 [B]/mol L1 Initial rate of formation
of D/mol L1 min1
I. 0.1 0.1 6.0103
II. 0.3 0.2 7.2102
III. 0.3 0.4 2.88101
IV. 0.4 0.1 2.40102

Based on the above data which one of the following is correct?
(A)
Rate = k[A]2[B]
(B)
Rate = k[A][B]
(C)
Rate = k[A]2[B]2
(D)
Rate = k[A][B]2
(D)

Solution

Rate = k[A]x [B]y

For the given situations

(I) rate = k(0.1)x (0.1)y = 6.0103

(II) rate = k(0.2)x (0.3)y = 7.2102

(III) rate = k(0.3)x (0.4)y = 2.88101

(IV) rate = k(0.4)x (0.1)y = 2.40102

Dividing eq. (I) by eq. (IV) we get





x = 1

On dividing eq. (II) by eq. (III) we get





y = 2

Rate = k[A][B]2
Q.14
For the reaction N2O5(g)   2NO2(g) + 1/2O2(g)
the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given as 6.25 103 mol L1 s1. The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as
(A)
6.25 103 mol L1 s1 and
6.25 103 mol L1 s1
(B)
1.25 102 mol L1 s1 and
3.125 103 mol L1 s1
(C)
6.25 103 mol L1 s1 and
3.125 103 mol L1 s1
(D)
1.25 102 mol L1 s1 and
6.25 103 mol L1 s1
(B)

Solution

N2O5(g)   2NO2(g) + 1/2O2(g)





= 2 6.25 10 mol l-1 sec-1

= 1.25 102 mol L1 s1



=

= 3.125 103 mol L1 s1
Q.15
AB crystallizes in a body centered cubic lattice with edge length '' equal to 387 pm. The distance between two oppositely charged ions in the lattice is
(A)
335 pm
(B)
250 pm
(C)
200 pm
(D)
300 pm
(A)

Solution

For a bcc lattice, 2(r+ + r) =

r+ + r = = 335 pm
Q.16
The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species is
(A)
Ca2+ > K+ > S2 > C
(B)
C > S2 > Ca2+ > K+
(C)
S2 > Cl > K+ > Ca2+
(D)
K+ > Ca2+ > Cl > S2
(C)

Solution

For isoelectronic species, ionic radius increases when there is increase in negative charge. It happens because effective nuclear charge on the atom (Zeff) decreases.

Same when ionic radius decreases with increase in positive charge as Zeff increases.
Q.17
Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with negative sign for the elements O, S, F and C ?
(A)
C < F < O < S
(B)
O < S < F < C
(C)
F < S < O < C
(D)
S < O < C < F
(B)

Solution

Cl atom has the highest electron affinity in the periodic table. F is a member of group 17 has highest electron gain enthalpy than S which is a group 16 element. This is turn is higher than the electron affinity of O atom. Thus,

Cl > F > S > O

Q.18
In which of the following pairs of molecules/ ions, the central atoms have sp2 hybridisation ?
(A)
NO and NH3
(B)
BF3 and NO
(C)
NH and H2O
(D)
BF3 and NH
(B)

Solution

The hybridisation of the central atom can be calculated as

H =

For BF3, H = sp2 hybridisation

For NO2-, H = sp2 hybridisation
Q.19
Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?
(A)
Be2+
(B)
Be2
(C)
B2
(D)
Li2
(B)

Solution

Be2 does not exists

Be2 has an electronic configuration of :



Bond order =

Thus, Be2 does not exists
Q.20
In which one of the following species the central atom has the type of hybridization which is not the same as that present in the other three ?
(A)
SF4
(B)
I3
(C)
SbCl52
(D)
PCl5
(C)

Solution

The hybridisation of the central atom can be calculated as

H =

Applying that formula we find that all the given species except [SbCl5]2- have central atom with sp3d ( corresponding to H = 5) hybridisation. In [SbCl5]2- Sb is sp3d2 hybridized.
Q.21
Property of the alkaline earth metals that increases with their atomic number
(A)
solubility of their hydroxides in water
(B)
solubility of their sulphates in water
(C)
ionization energy
(D)
electronegativity
(A)

Solution

On moving down the group, basic nature of these hydroxides increases due to low ionization enthalpies because M-O bond in MOH is weak and thus break to give OH ions in the solution.
Q.22
Which of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has hydration enthalpy higher than the lattice enthalpy?
(A)
CaSO4
(B)
BeSO4
(C)
BaSO4
(D)
SrSO4
(B)

Solution

The hydration enthalpy of BeSO4 is higher than its lattice energy. Within group 2, the hydration energy decreases down the group while lattice energy is almost the same.
Q.23
Which one of the following compounds is a peroxide?
(A)
KO2
(B)
BaO2
(C)
MnO2
(D)
NO2
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - s-Block Elements Question 30 English Explanation
Q.24
The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is
(A)
Cl2O < ClO2 < ClO
(B)
ClO2 < Cl2O < ClO
(C)
Cl2O < ClO < ClO2
(D)
ClO < Cl2O < ClO2
(D)

Solution

The correct order of increasing bond angles is

ClO < Cl2O < ClO2
Q.25
The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence
(A)
BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3
(B)
BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(C)
BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
(D)
BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
(B)

Solution

In BF3, p-p overlap between B and F is maximum due to identical size and energy of p-orbitals, so electron deficiency in boron of BF3 is neutralized partially to the maximum extent by back donation. Also, the tendency to back donate decreases from F to I. So the order will be:

BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
Q.26
Which one of the following molecular hydrides acts as a Lewis acid?
(A)
NH3
(B)
H2O
(C)
B2H6
(D)
CH4
(C)

Solution

Among the given molecules, only diborane(B2H6) is electron deficient i.e., it does not complete octet.

Thus, it acts as a Lewis acid.

NH3 and H2O being electron rich species behave as Lewis base.
Q.27
Oxidation states of P in H4P2O5, H4P2O6, H4P2O7 are respectively
(A)
+3, +5, +4
(B)
+5, +3, +4
(C)
+5, +4, +3
(D)
+3, +4, +5
(D)

Solution

The oxidation state can be calculated as :

H4P2O5 : +4 + 2x + 5(– 2) = 0 2x – 6 = 0 x = +3

H4P2O6 : +4 + 2x + 6(– 2) = 0 2x – 8 = 0 x = +4

H4P2O7 : +4 + 2x + 7(– 2) = 0 2x – 10 = 0 2x = 10 x = +5
Q.28
Which of the following pairs has the same size?
(A)
Fe2+, Ni2+
(B)
Zr4+, Ti4+
(C)
Zr4+, Hf4+
(D)
Zn2+, Hf4+
(C)

Solution

Due to lanthanide contraction, the size of Zr and Hf (atom and ions) become nearly similar.
Q.29
Which of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar]3d6?
(At. nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
(A)
Ni3+
(B)
Mn3+
(C)
Fe3+
(D)
Co3+
(D)

Solution

The electronic configuration of the given ions is :

Ni3+ : [Ar]3d74s0

Mn3+ : [Ar]3d44s0

Fe3+ : [Ar]3d54s0

Co3+ : [Ar]3d64s0

Thus, Co3+ is the ion with the desired configuration.
Q.30
Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solutions?
(A)
La3+ (Z = 57)
(B)
Ti3+ (Z = 22)
(C)
Lu3+ (Z = 71)
(D)
Se3+ (Z = 21)
(B)

Solution

La3+ : 54 e = [Xe]

Ti3+ : 19 e = [Ar] 4s03d1 (Colour)

Lu3+ : 68 e = [Xe] 4f14

Sc3+ : 18 e = [Ar]

As ions which have unpaired electrons exhibit colour in solution.

Ti3+ has an outer electronic configuration of 4s03d1 , i.e., 1 unpaired electron. Thus its solution will be coloured.
Q.31
The existance of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ is due to
(A)
linkage isomerism
(B)
geometrical isomerism
(C)
coordination isomerism
(D)
ionization isomerism.
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 72 English Explanation
Q.32
Which of the following complex ions is not expected to absorb visible light?
(A)
[Ni(CN)4]2
(B)
[Cr(NH3)6]3+
(C)
[Fe(H2O)6]2+
(D)
[Ni(H2O)6]2+
(A)

Solution

A transition metal complex absorbs visible light only if it has unpaired electrons.

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 74 English Explanation

Pairing occur because CN is a strong field ligand. Thus, [Ni(CN)4]2– does not contain any unpaired electron so it does not absorb visible light.

All other in the option contains pair of electrons thus absorb visible light.
Q.33
Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is
(A)
1.8 0
(B)
1.6 0 + P
(C)
1.2 0
(D)
0.6 0
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 73 English Explanation

CFSE = [(– 3 0.4) + (1 0.6)] 0 = – 0.60
Q.34
Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism?
(A)
[Ni(NH3)4(H2O)2]2+
(B)
[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(C)
[Ni(NH3)2Cl2]
(D)
[Ni(en)3]2+
(C)

Solution

In [Ni(NH3)2Cl2] is in sp3 hybridisation, thus tetrahedral in shape. Hence the four ligands are not different to exhibit optical isomerism.
Q.35
In the following the most stable conformation of n-butane is
(A)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 51 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 51 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 51 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 51 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

The anti-conformation is the most stable conformation of n-butane. In this, the bulky methyl groups are as far apart as possible thereby keeping steric repulsion at a minimum.
Q.36
Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent?
(A)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 78 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 78 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 78 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 78 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

+R effect of -OH group is greater than of -OCH3 group. That is why it is highly reactive towards electrophilic substitutions.
Q.37
Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons by
(A)
oxidation
(B)
cracking
(C)
distillation under reduced pressure
(D)
hydrolysis
(B)

Solution

On cracking or pyrolysis, the hydrocarbon with higher molecular mass gives a mixture of hydrocarbons having lower molecular masses. Hence, liquid hydrocarbons can be converted into a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons. (Lower hydrocarbons exist in gaseous state while higher ones are in liquid state or solid state.)
Q.38
In a set of reactions, ethylbenzene yielded a product D.
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 42 English
D would be
(A)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 42 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 42 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 42 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 42 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 42 English Explanation
Q.39
The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 gives X and reaction in presence of light gives Y. Thus, X and Y are
(A)
X = Benzal chloride, Y = o-chlorotoluene
(B)
X = m-chloroluene, Y = p-chlorotoluene
(C)
X = o- and p-chlorotoluene, Y = Trichloromethyl benzene
(D)
X = Benzyl chloride, Y = m-chlorotoluene
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 43 English Explanation 1 AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 43 English Explanation 2
Q.40
Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?
(A)
C6H5CH(C6H5)Br
(B)
C6H5CH(CH3)Br
(C)
C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br
(D)
C6H5CH2Br
(C)

Solution

SN1 reactions involve the formation of carbocations, hence higher the stability of intermediate carbocation, more will be reactivity of the parent alkyl halide. The tertiary carbocation formed from (c) is stabilized by two phenyl groups and one methyl group, hence most stable.
Q.41
The correct order of increasing reactivity of
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 21 English
CX bond towards nucleophile in the following compounds is
(A)
I < II < IV < III
(B)
II < III < I < IV
(C)
IV < III < I < II
(D)
III < II < I < IV
(A)

Solution

The order of reactivity is dependent on the stability of the intermediate carbocation formed by cleavage of C—X bond. The 3° carbocation formed in III will be more stable than its 2° homologue (IV) which in turn will be more stable than arenium ion (I). Moreover, the aryl halide has a double bond character in the C—X bond which makes the cleavage more difficult. On other hand II will be more reactive than I due to presence of electron withdrawing —NO2 group. C—X bond becomes weak and undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction

So Correct order is I < II < IV < III.
Q.42
Given are cyclohexanol (I), acetic acid (II), 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol (III) and phenol (IV). In these the order of decreasing acidic character will be
(A)
III > II > IV > I
(B)
II > III > I > IV
(C)
II > III > IV > I
(D)
III > IV > II > I
(A)

Solution

As we know that phenols and carboxylic acids are more acidic than aliphatic alcohols thus cyclohexanol is least acidic.

On the other hand III is more acidic than IV because of the presence of three highly electron with drawing NO2 groups on the benzene ring which makes the OH bond extremely polarized. This facilitates the release of H+.

In acetic acid the electron withdrawing

group polarizes the O-H bond and increases the acid strength.

Thus, acetic acid is more acidic than phenol or cyclohexanol.

Thus, the order of acidic strength will be

III > II > IV > I
Q.43
Among the following four compounds
(i)  Phenol
(ii)  Methyl phenol
(iii)  Meta-nitrophenol
(iv)  Para-nitrophenol

The acidity order is
(A)
(iv) > (iii) > (i) > (ii)
(B)
(iii) > (iv) > (i) > (ii)
(C)
(i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii)
(D)
(ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
(A)

Solution

In phenols, the presence of electron releasing groups decrease the acidity, whereas presence of electron withdrawing groups increase the acidity, compared to phenol.

Among the meta and para-nitrophenols, the latter is more acidic as the presence of –NO2 group at para position stabilises the phenoxide ion to a greater extent than when it is present at meta position. Thus, correct order of acidity is :

(iv) > (iii) > (i) > (ii)
Q.44
Which of the following compounds has the most acidic nature?
(A)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 29 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 29 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 29 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 29 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

Phenol is most acidic among the given options. In phenol, the electron withdrawing phenyl ring polarises the O-H bond thereby facilitating the release of H+.

In option (A) the -I effect of phenyl ring is diminished by -CH2 group.

Moreover, the phenolate ion is stabilised by resonance.
Q.45
Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds?
(A)
Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(B)
Cannizzaro reaction
(C)
Wurtz reaction
(D)
Friedel-Crafts acylation
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 84 English Explanation 1 AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 84 English Explanation 2
Here you can see no new C–C bond is formed in Cannizzaro reaction.
Q.46
Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is
(A)
CH3COOCH3
(B)
CH3CONH2
(C)
CH3COOCOCH3
(D)
CH3COCl
(D)

Solution

CH3COCl is most susceptible to nucleophilic attack. The susceptibility of a substrate towards nucleophilic attack depends on how good a leaving group is attached to it. Cl is a weak base and therefore a good leaving group.
Q.47
Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately. Which one of these would yield methyl amine?
(A)
NaOH/Br2
(B)
Sodalime
(C)
Hot conc.H2SO4
(D)
PCl5
(A)

Solution

Among the given reagents only NaOH/ Br2 converts -CONH2 group to -NH2 group. This is known as Hofmann bromamide reaction.

CH3-CONH2 + NaOH +Br2

    CH3NH2 + NaBr + Na2CO3 + H2O
Q.48
Aniline in a set of the following reactions yielded a coloured product Y.
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 31 English
The structure of 'Y' would be
(A)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 31 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 31 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 31 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 31 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 31 English Explanation
Q.49
Which of the following statements about primary amines is false?
(A)
Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl amines.
(B)
Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols.
(C)
Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols.
(D)
Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia.
(C)

Solution

Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to form diazonium salt. AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 39 English Explanation
Q.50
Which of the following structures represents neoprene polymer?
(A)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Polymers Question 15 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Polymers Question 15 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Polymers Question 15 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Polymers Question 15 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

Neoprene is :
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Chemistry - Polymers Question 15 English Explanation

It is a polymer of chloroprene.
Q.51
Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutaroation?
(A)
(+) Sucrose
(B)
(+) Lactose
(C)
(+) Maltose
(D)
() Fructose
(A)

Solution

Sucrose does not show mutarotation.

Only those sugars which have a free aldehyde or ketone group are capable of showing mutarotation.
Q.52
Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer drug?
(A)
Promethazine
(B)
Valium
(C)
Naproxen
(D)
Mifepriston
(B)

Solution

Valium is a tranquilizer.
Biology (Maximum Marks: 396)
  • This section contains 99 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?
(A)
Endoplasmic reticulum
(B)
Plasmodesmata
(C)
Plasmalemma
(D)
Plastoquinones
(B)

Solution

Plasmodesmata are the structures present between two adjacent cells that permits the transport and communication between them. They are the fine cytoplasmic strands that connect the protoplasts of adjacent plant cells by passing through the cell walls.
Q.2
Which one of the following has its own DNA?
(A)
Dictyosome
(B)
Mitochondria
(C)
Peroxisome
(D)
Lysosome
(B)

Solution

Mitochondria has its own DNA. It is a structure within cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells that carries out aerobic respiration. It is the site of Kreb’s cycle and ETS.
Therefore, it is also called as cell’s energy production site.
Q.3
The main area of variuos types of activites of a cell is –
(A)
Cytoplasm
(B)
Plasma membrane
(C)
Nucleus
(D)
Mitochondrian
(A)

Solution

Cytoplasm is granular, crystallo-colloidal complex that forms the living protoplasm of a cell excluding its nucleus. It consists of proteins, nucleic acids, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, minerals, waste metabolites and all the organelles. It is the main area for various types of activities of a cell like respiration, nutrition, storage, etc.
Q.4
The plasma membrane consists mainly of –
(A)
proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
(B)
phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
(C)
proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
(D)
proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules
(C)

Solution

Plasma membrane comprises of mainly proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer. Protein molecules occur at places both inside and outer side of the lipid bilayer.
Q.5
Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively? AIPMT 2010 Prelims Biology - Cell Cycle and Cell Division Question 47 English
(A)
A Prophase, B Anaphase
(B)
A Metaphase, B Telophase
(C)
A Telophase, B Metaphase
(D)
A Late anaphase, B Prophase
(D)

Solution

The figure A represents late anaphase while figure B represents prophase stage of mitosis.
Q.6
During mitosis, ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at
(A)
late prophase
(B)
early metaphase
(C)
late metaphase
(D)
early prophase.
(A)

Solution

Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under the microscope, do not show Golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope.
Q.7
Wind pollinated flowers are
(A)
small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains
(B)
small, producing large number of dry pollen grains
(C)
large producing abundant nectar and pollen
(D)
small, producing nectar and dry pollen.
(B)

Solution

Pollination by wind is called anemophily and such plants in which pollination occurs by wind are called anemophilous plants. Anemophilous plants are characterized by small flowers, pollens present in large number which are small, dry and light in weight (carried upto 1300 Km by wind), number of ovules generally reduced in ovary (biological significance), feathery or brushy stigma (to receive the pollen). Grasses and palms are generally anemophilous.
Q.8
Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise form
(A)
synergids
(B)
maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
(C)
antipodal cells
(D)
diploid egg.
(B)

Solution

Apomixis is an asexual type of reproduction in which the plant embryos grow from egg cells without being fertilized by pollen-the male part of the plant. In citrus, apomictic embryos arise from maternal sporophytic tissue like nucellus and integuments in ovule. This type of embryony is called adventive embryony.
Q.9
Transfer of pollen grains from the another to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called
(A)
xenogamy
(B)
geitonogamy
(C)
karyogami
(D)
autogamy.
(B)

Solution

Geitonogamy is the process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant. Example, maize
Q.10
Select the correct statement from the following:
(A)
Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle
(B)
Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic bacteria
(C)
Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane
(D)
Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste
(B)

Solution

Activated sludge is a process for treating sewage and industrial wastewaters using air and a biological floc composed of bacteria and protozoans. During the process, the primary effluent is taken to aeration tank that contain large number of aerobic heterotrophic microbes. They form flocs that digest a lot of organic matter. As the biological oxygen demand of waste water is reduced, it is passed into settling tank to undergo sedimentation. The sediment of the settling tank is called activated sludge that is a rich source of aerobic bacteria. Hence, the statement (b) is correct.
Biogas is produced by anaerobic breakdown of biomass with the help of methanogenic bacteria. It is made up of methane, carbon dioxide with traces of nitrogen, hydrogen sulphide and hydrogen.
Methanobacterium is an anaerobic bacterium that is found in rumen of cattle and is helpful in the breakdown of cellulose.
Q.11
The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is –
(A)
Azospirillum
(B)
Frankia
(C)
Rhizobium
(D)
Oscillatoria
(A)

Solution

Azospirillum is an anaerobic nitrogen fixing bacteria which forms loose association with roots of some plants. Inoculation of paddy fields with these bacteria helps in increasing yield and saving of nitrogen fertilizers.
Q.12
Which one of the following not used in organic farming ?
(A)
Earthworm
(B)
Oscillatoria
(C)
Snail
(D)
Glomus
(C)

Solution

Organic farming involves use of organic wastes and other biological material along with beneficial microbes to release nutrients to crop to increase the soil fertility in an ecofriendly, and pollution tree environment. Glomus, earthworm and Oscillatoria can be used in organic farming while snail cannot.
Q.13
A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant diseases is –
(A)
Bacillus thuringiensis
(B)
Trichoderma
(C)
Glomus
(D)
Baculovirus
(B)

Solution

The natural method of pest and pathogen control involving use of viruses, bacteria and other insects (which are their natural predators and pests) is called biocontrol or biological control. For example, free living fungus Trichoderma exerts biocontrol over several plant pathogens for the control of plant diseases. Baculoviruses (mostly of genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus) are also used as biocontrol agents but they are used for the control of insects and arthropods. Bacillus thuringiensis is a soil bacterium which is used as biopesticide. Glomus species are the most common fungal partners of mycorrhiza residing in the roots of higher plants.
Q.14
Which one of the folliwng is not a lateral meristem ?
(A)
Interfascicular cambium
(B)
Intercalary meristem
(C)
Intrafascicular cambium
(D)
Phellogen
(B)

Solution

Meristem is classified on the basis of position in plant bodies into lateral meristem, apical meristem and intercalary meristem. Lateral meristem is present on the lateral sides, e.g., vascular cambium (fascicular and interfascicular cambium) and cork cambium (phellogen).
Q.15
Heartwood differs from sapwood in –
(A)
Having dead and non-conducting elements
(B)
Being susceptible to pests and pathogens
(C)
Presence of rays and fibres
(D)
Abscence of vessels and parenchyma
(A)

Solution

Heartwood differs from sapwood in having dead and non-conducting elements. In old trees, the inner region that comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls is called heartwood. Heartwood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support to the stem. On the other hand, the peripheral region, which is lighter in colour is called sapwood. It is involved in the conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.
Q.16
The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are :
(A)
Fibres
(B)
Transfusion tissue
(C)
Vessels
(D)
Tracheids
(D)

Solution

Tracheids are chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms. They are devoid of protoplasm and hence dead.
The wall constituting the tracheids is hard, thick and lignified. These are elongated cells with tapering ends.
Q.17
An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is
(A)
molybdenum
(B)
copper
(C)
manganese
(D)
zinc.
(A)

Solution

Molybdenum is a micronutrient which is required in very minute amount by the plants. It is responsible for nodulation in legumes. It is part of nitrate reductase enzyme which helps in nitrogen fixation.
Q.18
Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?
(A)
Molybdenum
(B)
Magnesium
(C)
Zinc
(D)
Boron
(B)

Solution

Magnesium is a macronutrient. Micronutrients are essential elements that are required by plants in small amounts. They include Fe, Cu, B, Mo, Mn, Cl, and Ni. Macronutrients, on the other hand, are those essential elements that are required by plants in larger amounts. The examples include C, H, O, N, S, P, K, Ca and Mg.
Q.19
The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor is called
(A)
glycolysis
(B)
fermentation
(C)
aerobic respiration
(D)
photorespiration.
(B)

Solution

Fermentation is the process of deriving energy from the oxidation of organic compounds such as carbohydrates and using an endogenous electron acceptor not external or exogenous, which is usually an organic compound, as opposed to respiration where electrons are donated to an exogenous electron acceptor, such as oxygen via an electron transport chain.
Q.20
Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which –
(A)
recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
(B)
remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
(C)
restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
(D)
make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
(D)

Solution

Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that makes cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule. They acts as molecular scissors. They recognise specific base sequence at palindrome sites in DNA duplex and cut its strands.
Q.21
Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for –
(A)
Purification of the product
(B)
Availability of oxygen throughout the process
(C)
Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
(D)
Addition of preservatives to the product
(B)

Solution

Stirred-tank bioreactors are a type of bioreactor used in industrial processes, including in the production of biotechnological products. The main features and functions of stirred-tank bioreactors can be assessed in relation to the options provided :

  • Option A: Purification of the product: Stirred-tank bioreactors are primarily used for the cultivation of microorganisms or cells and the production of biochemical products, not for the purification of these products. Purification usually occurs in separate downstream processing steps.

  • Option B: Availability of oxygen throughout the process: This is the primary purpose of a stirred-tank bioreactor. These bioreactors are equipped with an agitation system that helps to mix the contents thoroughly, ensuring uniform distribution of nutrients and maintaining oxygen availability throughout the culture medium. This is particularly important for aerobic microbial processes, where oxygen is a critical component.

  • Option C: Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel: Stirred-tank bioreactors are typically designed for aerobic processes, where oxygen availability is crucial. They are not intended to create anaerobic conditions. While they can be adapted for anaerobic processes, their main design feature is to ensure good mixing and oxygen transfer in aerobic cultures.

  • Option D: Addition of preservatives to the product: The addition of preservatives is not a function of stirred-tank bioreactors. These reactors are designed for the cultivation and production phase of bioprocesses, and the addition of preservatives is a separate consideration that would typically occur after the bioreactor stage, in product processing and formulation.

Given these considerations, the most accurate answer is Option B: Availability of oxygen throughout the process. Stirred-tank bioreactors are specifically designed to ensure efficient mixing and oxygen transfer, which are critical for the growth and productivity of aerobic microbial or cell cultures.

Q.22
Which of the following are used in gene cloning ?
(A)
Mesosomes
(B)
Nucleoids
(C)
Lomasomes
(D)
Plasmids
(D)

Solution

Plasmid is a small circular double stranded DNA molecule present in the cytoplasm of the bacterial cell. It can replicate independently of bacterial chromosome. Due to this characteristic of plasmid, it is used as the vector (vectors are for the transferring of a piece of DNA to target gene) in gene cloning.
Q.23
Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms ?
(A)
Retrovirus
(B)
Salmonella typhimurium
(C)
Rhizopus nigricans
(D)
Baculovirus
(A)

Solution

Retrovirus as has the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells. Hence, it can used as a vector for cloning desirable genes into animal cells.
Q.24
DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive moleculer is called –
(A)
Clone
(B)
Probe
(C)
Plasmid
(D)
Vector
(B)

Solution

DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called Probe. They are used to detect the presence of complementary sequences in nucleic acid samples. Probes are used for identification and isolation of DNA and RNA.
Q.25
Study the four statements (a–d) given below and select the two correct ones out of them –
(a) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers
(b) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates
(c) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species
(d) Production of chemicals such as nicotine, strychnine by the plants are metaboilic disorders
The two correct stament are-
(A)
b and c
(B)
a and d
(C)
c and d
(D)
a and b
(D)

Solution

Predator and prey evolve together. The prey is part of the predator’s environment, and the predator dies if it does to get food, so it evolves whatever is necessary in order to eat the prey. Likewise, the predator is part of the prey’s environment, and the prey dies if it is eaten by the predator, so it evolves whatever is necessary to avoid being eaten. So, predators cannot lead to the extinction of prey species.
Nicotine is an alkaloid found in the night shade family of plants (Solanaceae) that constitutes approximately 0.6–3.0% of dry weight of tobacco, with biosynthesis taking place in the roots and accumulation occurring in the leaves. Strychnine is an alkaloid plant toxin extracted chiefly from Nux vomica; formerly used as a stimulant. These are not metabolic disorder products but are metabolic wastes.
Q.26
Which one of the following is an example of ex situ conservation ?
(A)
Sacred groves
(B)
Wild life sanctuary
(C)
National park
(D)
Seed bank
(D)

Solution

Ex-situ conservation is the conservation of selected organism in places outside their natural homes. They include off site collection and gene banks.
In situ conservation, on the other hand, is the conservation of endangered species in their natural habitat. Biosphere reserves, national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and sacred groves all are examples of In situ conservation.
Q.27
Virus envelope is known as
(A)
capsid
(B)
virion
(C)
nucleoprotein
(D)
core.
(A)

Solution

The nucleic acid of a virus is surrounded by a protein coat called the capsid. The capsid is composed of protein subunits called capsomeres. In some viruses, the capsid is covered by an envelope, which usually consists of some combination of lipids, proteins and carbohydrates.
Q.28
Single-celled eukaryotes are included in
(A)
protista
(B)
fungi
(C)
archaea
(D)
monera.
(A)

Solution

Single celled eukaryotes are included in protista. Protista includes all unicellular and colonial eukaryotes except green and red algae. It is also known as kingdom of unicellular eukaryotes.
Q.29
Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH 2) habitats belong to the two groups
(A)
eubacteria and archaea
(B)
cyanobacteria and diatoms
(C)
protists and mosses
(D)
liverworts and yeasts.
(A)

Solution

There are two major groups of monerans archaebacteria (ancient bacteria) and eubacteria (true bacteria). Eubacteria is of further two types – bacteria and cyanobacteria. Thermoacidophiles are a type of archaebacteria which live in extremely acidic environment (pH 2) that have extremely high temperatures (upto 110°C).

They are found in hot sulphur springs. Some of the eubacteria are also famous for living under the most hostile environment like salt pans, petroleum pans, spilled oil, hot springs, sulphur springs, snow, etc.
Q.30
Membrane-bound organelles are absent in
(A)
Saccharomyces
(B)
Streptococcus
(C)
Chlamydomonas
(D)
Plasmodium.
(B)

Solution

Membrane bound organelles are absent in Streptococcus. It is a bacterium that is included under kingdom Monera.

Monerans are prokaryotes which lack membrane bound organelles like mitochondria, E.R, Golgi etc. Saccharomyces, Chlamydomonas and Plasmodium are eukaryotes that have membrane bound organelles.
Q.31
One of the free-living, anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is
(A)
Beijernickia
(B)
Rhodospirillum
(C)
Rhizobium
(D)
Azotobacter.
(B)

Solution

Rhodospirillum is a free-living, anaerobic nitrogen fixer bacteria. It can synthesize its food in presence of light under anaerobic conditions.

Beijernickia and Azotobacter are free living aerobic nitrogen fixing bacteria. Rhizobium is a symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria.
Q.32
Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of
(A)
guava
(B)
plum
(C)
brinjal
(D)
cucumber.
(B)

Solution

A flower in which floral parts arise from around the ovary is called perigynous. In this, the ovary is half inferior and half superior. It can be seen in the flowers of plum, peach etc.
Q.33
The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons?
(A)
Cotyledon
(B)
Endosperm
(C)
Aleurone layer
(D)
Plumule
(A)

Solution

Scutellum is the modified cotyledon observed in a grain of wheat or maize. It lies between embryo and the endosperm.
Q.34
The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosa sinensis) is
(A)
monadelphous
(B)
diadelphous
(C)
polyandrous
(D)
polyadelphous.
(A)

Solution

Hibiscus belongs to family Malvaceae. It possess numerous stamens that are called monadelphous.
Q.35
Keel is characteristic of the flowers of
(A)
gulmohur
(B)
Cassia
(C)
Calotropis
(D)
bean
(D)

Solution

Keel is the characteristic of the flowers of family papilionaceae. For example, bean, gram, pea etc.

The flowers of this family have butterfly shaped corolla. The outermost petals of these flowers are the largest and is called vexillum, the two largest petals are similar and have wings and the two anterior petals called keel are fused enclosing stamens and carpels.
Q.36
C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants due to
(A)
higher leaf area
(B)
presence of larger number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells
(C)
presence of thin cuticle
(D)
lower rate of photorespiration.
(D)

Solution

Rate of net photosynthesis in C3 plants is 15-35 mg CO2 /dm2 /hr while in C4 plants it 40-80 mg CO2 /dm2 /hr. This variation in rate is due to photorespiration. Photorespiration is an inhibitory process which decreases the rate of photosynthesis. In excess of oxygen RuBP carboxylase converts to RuBP oxygenase. As a result glycolate synthesis is enhanced and leads to begin photorespiration. Photorespiration is negligible or absent in C4 plants and present only in C3 plants. So C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient.
Q.37
PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of
(A)
bryophyte
(B)
gymnosperm
(C)
angiosperm
(D)
alga.
(D)

Solution

Phosphoglyceric and (PGA) is the first stable product of photosynthesis. It was first discovered by Calvin, Benson and their colleagues in Chlorella, (algae).
Q.38
ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I. It has three alleles – IA, IB and i. Since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes can occur –
(A)
One
(B)
Two
(C)
Three
(D)
Four
(D)

Solution

The three alleles in ABO blood groups in humans can produce six different genotypes and four different phenotypes. AIPMT 2010 Prelims Biology - Principles of Inheritance and Variation Question 138 English Explanation
Q.39
Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross –
(A)
Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
(B)
Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombination
(C)
Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations
(D)
Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones
(B)

Solution

Linkage is the phenomenon of certain genes staying together during inheritance through generations without any change or separation due to their being present on the same chromosome. Linked genes occur in the same chromosome. Strength of the linkage between two genes is inversely proportional to the distance between the two i.e., two linked genes show higher frequency of crossing over (recombination) if the distance between them is higher and lower frequency if the distance is small.
Q.40
Which one of the following symbols and its representation, used in human pedigree analysis is correct –
(A)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Biology - Principles of Inheritance and Variation Question 139 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Biology - Principles of Inheritance and Variation Question 139 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Biology - Principles of Inheritance and Variation Question 139 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2010 Prelims Biology - Principles of Inheritance and Variation Question 139 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

A record of inheritance of certain genetic traits for two or more generations presented in the form of a diagram or family tree is called pedigree. In a pedigree a square represents the male, a circle the female, solid (blackened) symbol shows the trait under study or affected individual; unaffected or normal individual by an open or clear symbol and a cross or shade (of any type) in the symbol signifies the carrier of a recessive allele. Words can also be used in place of symbols. Parents are shown by horizontal line while their offsprings are connected to it by a vertical line. The offsprings are then shown in the form of a horizontal line below the parents and numbered with arabic numerals.
Q.41
The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by –
(A)
Pedigree analysis
(B)
Back cross
(C)
Test cross
(D)
Dihybrid cross
(C)

Solution

Test cross is the cross of an individual with an individual having recessive phenotype. It is used to determine the genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype, that means to determine whether the individual exhibiting dominating characters are homozygous or heterozygous.
Q.42
Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?
(A)
Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and the other recessive
(B)
Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation
(C)
The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
(D)
Factors occur in pairs
(B)

Solution

According to Mendel’s law of Dominance, out of two contrasting allelomorphic factors only one expresses itself in an individual. The factor that expresses itself is called dominant while the other which has not shown its effect in the heterozygous individual is termed as recessive. The option (c) in the given question cannot be explained on the basis of law of dominance. It can only be explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of independent assortment, according to which in a dihybrid cross, the two alleles of each character assort independently of the alleles of other character and separate at the time of gamete formation.
Q.43
Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d) statements given below about lac operon.
(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it
(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds with the operator region
(c) The z-gene codes for permease
(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod
The correct statements are :
(A)
(b) and (d)
(B)
(a) and (b)
(C)
(b) and (c)
(D)
(a) and (c)
(A)

Solution

Jacob and Monod proposed the lac operon of E. coli. The lac operon contains a promoter, an operator, and three structural genes called z, y, and a, coding for the enzyme, β galactosidase, permease and transacetylase respectively. The lac regulator gene, designated as i gene, codes for repressor. In the absence of the inducer, the repressor binds to the lac operator, preventing RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter and thus transcribing the structural gene.
Q.44
The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being –
(A)
Specific
(B)
Degenerate
(C)
Ambiguous
(D)
Universal
(C)

Solution

Genetic code is non ambiguous. There is no ambiguity for a particular codon. A particular codon will always code for the same amino acid, where ever it is found.
Q.45
Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?
(A)
5' _____ CG TTCG ______ 3'
3' ______ATGGTA ______5'
(B)
5'______GAATTC ______3'
3'______CTTAAG______5'
(C)
5'______CACGTA______3'
3'______CTCAGT______5'
(D)
5'______GATATG ______3'
3'______CTACTA ______5'
(B)

Solution

Palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA molecule are groups of bases that form the same sequence when read in both forward and backward direction. In the given question, only option (b) represents a palindromic sequence, that can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme.
Q.46
Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology ?
(A)
Mucor
(B)
HIV
(C)
Chlamydomonas
(D)
Pea
(B)

Solution

HIV viruses does not follow central dogma. Central dogma is a one way flow of information from DNA to mRNA and then to protein.
Q.47
An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice
(A)
gives high yield but has no characteristic atoms
(B)
Does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones
(C)
is completely resistant to all insect pests and disease of paddy
(D)
gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A
(D)

Solution

An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A.
Q.48
Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing –
(A)
transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac disease
(B)
Animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power
(C)
transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans
(D)
transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee
(C)

Solution

Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of how genes contribute to the development of diseases. These are specially made to serve as models for human diseases so that investigation of new treatments for diseases is made possible. Today transgenic models exist for many human diseases such as cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s. Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine.
Q.49
Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are –
(A)
High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests
(B)
High yield and resistance to bollworms
(C)
Long fibre and resistance to aphids
(D)
Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests
(B)

Solution

Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and incorporated into cotton plant. The genetically modified crop is called Bt cotton. Bt cotton has the following useful characteristics: pest resistance, herbicide tolerance, high yield and resistance to bollworm infestation.
Q.50
Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins and proteins is called –
(A)
Biofortification
(B)
Biomagnification
(C)
Micorpropagation
(D)
Somatic hybridisation
(A)

Solution

Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamin and minerals is called biofortification. This is most practical aspect to improve the health of people.
Q.51
The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for:
(A)
Enhancing shelf life
(B)
Insect-resistance
(C)
Drought-resistance
(D)
Enhancing mineral content
(B)

Solution

The genetically modified brinjal in India has been developed for insect resistance. Bt brinjal is a transgenic brinjal that is developed by inserting a crystal gene from the Bacillus thuringiensis into the brinjal’s genome. This process of insertion is accomplished using Agrobacterium mediated recombination.
Q.52
The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of response of organisms to abiotic factors. What do a, b and c represent respectively – AIPMT 2010 Prelims Biology - Organisms and Populations Question 64 English
(A)
(a) partial regulator, (b) regulator, (c) conformer
(B)
(a) conformer, (b) regulator, (c) partial regulator
(C)
(a) regulator, (b) conformer, (c) partial regulator
(D)
(a) regulator, (b) partial regulator, (c) conformer
(C)

Solution

Some organisms are able to maintain homeostasis by physiological (sometimes behavioural also) means which ensures constant body temperature, constant osmotic concentration, etc. They are known as regulators. A majority of animals and plants cannot maintain a constant internal environment. Their body temperature changes with the ambient temperature. These animals and plants are simply conformers. During the course of evolution, the costs and benefits of maintaining a constant internal environment are taken into consideration. Some species have evolved the ability to regulate, but only over a limited range of environmental conditions, beyond which they simply conform. They are known as partial regulators.
Q.53
Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?
(A)
Mortality
(B)
Sex-ratio
(C)
Stratification
(D)
Natality
(C)

Solution

Stratification is one of the characteristics of biological community. Natality, mortality, age, structure and sex ratio are basic characteristics of a population.
Q.54
A renewable exhaustible natural resource is –
(A)
Forest
(B)
Minerals
(C)
Coal
(D)
Petroleum
(A)

Solution

Exhaustible resources are those natural resources that are likely to be exhausted due to their continuous use. Forest is a renewable exhaustible resource that can be produced again and again. Coal, petroleum and minerals are non-renewable exhaustible natural resources that cannot be produced again.
Q.55
The two gases making highest relative contribution to the green house gases are –
(A)
CFC5 and N2O
(B)
CO2 and N2O
(C)
CO2 and CH4
(D)
CH4 and N2O
(C)

Solution

The gases that makes highest relative contribution to the green house gases are carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4).
Q.56
dB is a standard abbreviation used of the quantitative expression of –
(A)
the dominant Bacillus in a culture
(B)
the density of bacteria in a medium
(C)
a certain pesticide
(D)
a particular pollutant
(D)

Solution

dB is a standard abbreviation for the quantitative expression of noise. Unwanted sound is called noise. Generally sound above 80 dB is noise.
Q.57
Male and female gametophytes are independent and free-living in
(A)
mustard
(B)
castor
(C)
Pinus
(D)
Sphagnum.
(D)

Solution

Sphagnum is a bryophyte in which male and female gametophytes are independent and free living. In Pinus (a gymnosperm), mustard and castor (angiosperms), the main plant body is sporophytic. Gametophyte is highly reduced and is completely dependent on sporophyte.
Q.58
Algae have cell wall made up of:
(A)
cellulose, galactans and mannans
(B)
hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(C)
pectins, cellulose and proteins
(D)
cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins.
(A)

Solution

Majority of algae (eukaryotes) possess a definite cell wall containing cellulose and other carbohydrates. In algal cell wall, different chemical components are present which vary widely among different groups (e.g., xylan, mannan, galactan, alginic acid, silica, agar, pectin, carrageenin, etc.,).

Cell wall of blue-green algae is made up of micro-peptides (proteins). This micro-peptide is not found in eukaryotic algae
Q.59
Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of
(A)
thigmotaxis
(B)
thigmonasty
(C)
thigmotropism
(D)
thermotaxis.
(C)

Solution

The coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of thigmotropism. Thigmotropism is the growth movement in response to touch. The stems and tendrils of the climbers are positively thigmotrophic in their response.
Q.60
Photoperiodism was first characterised in
(A)
tobacco
(B)
potato
(C)
tomato
(D)
cotton.
(A)

Solution

Photoperiodism is the response to duration and timings of light and dark period. It was first studied by W.W. Garner and H.A. Allard (1920) in tobacco. They observed that Maryland Mammoth variety of tobacco could be made to flower in summer by reducing the light hours with artificial darkening.
Q.61
Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of
(A)
gibberellin
(B)
phytochrome
(C)
cytokinins
(D)
auxin.
(D)

Solution

Phototrophic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of auxin. The experiments conducted by Charles Darwin concluded that the tip of coleoptile of canary grass contain auxin that causes the bending of the entire coleoptile towards the light source.
Q.62
The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called –
(A)
Standing crop
(B)
Net primary productivity
(C)
Gross primary productivity
(D)
Secondary productivity
(B)

Solution

The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called net primary productivity. It is equal to the rate of organic matter created by photosynthesis minus the rate of respiration and other losses.
Q.63
Infectious proteins are present in –
(A)
Viroids
(B)
Gemini viruses
(C)
Satellite viruses
(D)
Prions
(D)

Solution

Prions are named by Stanley Prusiner (got Nobel Prize in 1997). Prions are infectious agents which are made of proteins only (without nucleic acid). Prions are the causal agents of scrapie disease of sheep.
Q.64
Ringworm in humans is caused by :
(A)
Fungi
(B)
Viruses
(C)
Bacteria
(D)
Nematodes
(A)

Solution

The correct answer is: Option A - Fungi.

Ringworm, also known as tinea, is not caused by a worm but by a fungal infection of the skin. It is called "ringworm" because the infection can cause a ring-shaped, red, itchy rash on the skin. The fungi that cause ringworm are known as dermatophytes, and they live on the dead outer layer of skin, hair, and nails. They thrive in warm, moist environments, which is why they are commonly found in places like locker rooms and swimming pools and can be spread through direct contact with an infected person or animal or through contact with contaminated objects or surfaces.

There are different types of fungi that can cause ringworm, including Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton. These fungi can infect various parts of the body and lead to conditions such as athlete's foot (tinea pedis), jock itch (tinea cruris), scalp ringworm (tinea capitis), and ringworm of the body (tinea corporis).

Ringworm treatment usually involves antifungal medicines that can be taken orally or applied topically to the affected area. It is important to follow a healthcare provider's instructions for treatment to prevent the spread of the infection to others and to clear up the infection completely.

Q.65
Widal test is used for the diagnosis of –
(A)
Tuberculosis
(B)
Malaria
(C)
Typhoid
(D)
Pneumonia
(C)

Solution

Widal test is carried out to test typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhii bacteria. Typhoid vaccine is available.
Q.66
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS ?
(A)
The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers
(B)
AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition
(C)
The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person
(D)
Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection
(A)

Solution

AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome) is caused by HIV retrovirus. The virus destroys the helper T lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers.
Q.67
Select the correct statement from the ones given below :
(A)
Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
(B)
Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
(C)
Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
(D)
Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
(D)

Solution

Morphine is potent opioid analgesic that is often given to persons (who have undergone surgery) as a pain killer. It is mainly used to relieve severe and persistent pain. It is administrated by mouth, injection or suppositories.
Q.68
If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?
(A)
The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down
(B)
The 'pacemaker' will stop working
(C)
The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
(D)
The flow of blood into the pulmonary artey will be reduced
(D)

Solution

Tricuspid valve is the valve in the heart between the right atrium and right ventricle. It consists of three cusps that channel the flow of blood from the atrium to the ventricle. When the right ventricle contracts, forcing blood into the pulmonary artery, the tricuspid valve closes the aperture to the atrium, thereby preventing any backflow of blood. The valve reopens to allow blood to flow from the atrium into the ventricle. Thus, if tricuspid valve is partially nonfunctional the flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.
Q.69
Which two of the following changes (i iv) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high altitudes (3, 500 m or more)?
(i)  Increase in red blood cell size
(ii)  Increase in red blood cell production
(iii)  Increased breathing rate
(iv)  Increase in thrombocyte count
Changes occurring are
(A)
(ii) and (iii)
(B)
(iii) and (iv)
(C)
(i) and (iv)
(D)
(i) and (ii).
(A)

Solution

The body undergoes numerous changes at higher elevation in order to increase oxygen delivery to cells and improve efficiency of oxygen use. The early changes includes increased breathing rate, increased heart rate and fluid shifts. The later changes includes increased red blood cell production, increased 2, 3 DPG production and increased number of capillaries.
Q.70
Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human skeleton?
(A)
Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are jointed fibrous joint.
(B)
First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles.
(C)
The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs .
(D)
Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates.
(A)

Solution

The bones of skulls are joined by white fibrous tissue which sustain no movement between the skull bones. This kind of joint is classified as fibrous or immovable joints. Thus, parietal and temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joints. First cervical vertebra, atlas, joins the second cervical vertebra axis to form a joint (pivot joint) which allows movement in one plane. The atlas supports the head and allows movement of head over neck.

The last two pairs of ribs are called floating ribs because their anterior ends are not attached to either the sternum or the cartilage of anterior rib. Glenoid cavity is a depression to which humerus articulates.
Q.71
The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in
(A)
hypothalamus
(B)
pons
(C)
cerebellum
(D)
thalamus.
(A)

Solution

When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, i.e., resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively more permeable to potassium ions (K+) and nearly impermeable to sodium ions (Na+).
Q.72
Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs) –
(A)
increase phagocytosis of sperms
(B)
prevent ovulation
(C)
make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(D)
suppress sperm motility
(D)

Solution

Cu ions released by copper releasing intra uterine devices suppresses sperm motility.
Intra-uterine devices are inserted by doctors in the uterus through vagina. They are available as the non-medicated IUDs, copper releasing IUDs and hormone releasing IUDs.
Q.73
In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?
(A)
Zygote only
(B)
Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(C)
Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(D)
Embryo of 32 cell stage
(C)

Solution

In vitro fertilization is a process where fertilization of egg occurs outside the mother’s womb. This method is used as a major treatment for infertility. This method involves the removal of eggs from the female ovaries. This egg is then allowed to fertilize with sperm in a fluid medium in a test tube. The zygote is allowed to develop for a week. Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 blastomeres is then transferred into the fallopian tube to complete its further development. If the embryo is with more than 8 blastomeres, it is transferred into uterus for successful pregnancy. A baby conceived by fertilization that occurs outside mother body is called test tube baby.
Q.74
The permissible use of the technique aminocentesis is for
(A)
transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother
(B)
Detecting any genetic abnormality
(C)
detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(D)
artificial insemination
(B)

Solution

Amniocentesis involves prenatal diagnosis of metabolic error and other genetic abnormalities.
Q.75
The cells lining the blood vessels belongs to the category of :
(A)
Columnar epithelium
(B)
Connective tissue
(C)
Smooth muscle tissue
(D)
Squamous epithelium
(D)

Solution

Simple squamous epithelium is composed of large flat cells whose edges fit closely together like the tiles in a floor, hence it is also called pavement epithelium. The nuclei of the cells are flattened and often lie at the centre of the cells and cause bulgings of cells surface. The epithelium lines the blood vessels, lymph vessels, heart, terminal bronchioles, alveoli of the lungs, walls of the Bowman’s capsules, descending limbs of loop of Henle. In the blood vessels and heart it is called endothelium.
Q.76
If for some reason our goblet cells are nonfunctional, this will adversely affect.
(A)
production of somatostain
(B)
secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
(C)
maturation of sperms
(D)
smooth movement of food down the intestine.
(D)

Solution

Goblet cells, found in the intestinal mucosal epithelium, secrete mucus. The mucus lubricates the food for an easy passage. So, if for some reason, goblet cells become non-functional, it will adversely affect the smooth movement of food down the intestine.
Q.77
Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances like
(A)
amino acids and glucose
(B)
glucose and fatty acids
(C)
fatty acids and glycerol
(D)
fructose and some amino acids.
(A)

Solution

The absorption of glucose and amino acids is mediated by carrier ions like Na+ . The concentration of Na+ is higher in the intestinal lumen compared to mucosal cells. Na+ , therefore moves into the cells along its concentration gradient and simultaneously glucose is transported into the intestinal cells. Thus Na+ diffuses into the cell and it drags glucose along with it. The intestinal Na+ gradient is the immediate energy source. The mechanism for transport of amino acid is same as glucose.
Fructose absorption does not require energy and is independent of Na+ transport.
Q.78
Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
(A)
Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
(B)
Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3
(C)
Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
(D)
Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes.
(C)

Solution

Urine formation involves three main process called, glomerular filtration, reabsorption and secretion. A comparison of the volume of the filtrate formed per day (which is 180 litres per day) with that of urine released (about 1.5 litres) suggest that nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is resorbed by the renal tubules. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water but impermeable to electrolytes.
The ascending limb is impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes.
Reabsorption of sodium ions and water takes place in distal convoluted tubule.
Also, it is capable of reabsorption of HCO3.
Q.79
The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesised
(A)
in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
(B)
in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
(C)
in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile
(D)
in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys.
(D)

Solution

The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is urea. It is synthesized in the mitrochondrial matrix and cytosol of liver cells and eliminated through kidneys.
Q.80
Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following?
(A)
Aldosterone
(B)
Both androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone
(C)
Adrenaline
(D)
Cortisol
(C)

Solution

Adrenal gland has two parts-cortex and medulla. The medulla is stimulated by sympathetic nervous tissue to produce adrenaline and non-adrenaline while the cortex is stimulated by pituitary hormone to release cortisol, aldosterone and estrogens. Thus injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of adrenaline.
Q.81
select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function.
(A)
Hormone Source Function
Vasopression Posterior pituitary Increases loss of
water through urine
(B)
Hormone Source Function
Norepinephrine Adrenal medulla Increases heart beat,
rate of respiration and
alterness
(C)
Hormone Source Function
Glucagon Beta-cells of Islets of
Langerhans
Stimulates glycogenolysis
(D)
Hormone Source Function
Prolactin Posterior pituitary Regulates growth
of mammary glands
and milk formation in
females
(B)

Solution

Vasopressin reduces water loss through urine by stimulating resorption of water by the distal tubules of the kidney. Glucagon is released from -cells. Prolactin is produced from anterior pituitary.
Q.82
Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of
(A)
toxic goitre
(B)
cretinism
(C)
simple goitre
(D)
thyrotoxicosis.
(C)

Solution

Goitre is caused by deficiency of iodine in diet. Iodine is needed for the synthesis of thyroxine. Toxic agents present in food interfere with thyroxine synthesis and lead to goitre.
Q.83
Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(A)
Glucagon Beta cells (source)
(B)
Somatostatin Delta cells (source)
(C)
Corpus luteum Relaxin (secretion)
(D)
Insulin Diabetes mellitus (disease)
(A)

Solution

Glucagon is a hormone, secreted by the cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas, that increases the concentration of glucose in the blood by stimulating the metabolic breakdown of glycogen. It thus antagonizes the effects of insulin.
Q.84
Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of
(A)
tetany
(B)
anaemia
(C)
angina pectoris
(D)
gout.
(A)

Solution

Tetany is caused by reduction in the calcium level due to underactive parathyroid hormone.
Q.85
Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from :
(A)
Testicular lobules to rete testis
(B)
Rete testis to vas deferens
(C)
Vas deferens to epididymis
(D)
Epididymis to urethra
(B)

Solution

Vasa efferentia are ductules leading from rete testis to vas deferens. The rete testis is an anastomosing network of tubules located in the hilum of the testicles that carries sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the vasa efferentia.
Q.86
Seminal plasma in human males is rich in
(A)
fructose and calcium
(B)
glucose and calcium
(C)
DNA and testosterone
(D)
ribose and potassium
(A)

Solution

Semen or seminal fluid or seminal plasma is the fluid ejaculated from the penis at sexual climax. Each ejaculate may contain 300 – 500 million spermatozoa suspended in a fluid secreted by the prostate gland and seminal vesicles with a small contribution from Cowper’s glands. It is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. It provides a fluid medium for transport of sperms, nourishes and activates sperms, lubricates the reproductive tract of female and neutralizes the acidity of the vagina of female to protect the sperms.
Q.87
The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is
(A)
Isthmus
(B)
Infundibulum
(C)
Cervix
(D)
Ampulla
(B)

Solution

The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is infundibulum. Infundibulum possess finger-like projections called fimbriae that help in collection of ovum after ovulation. It leads to wider part of oviduct called ampulla. The last part of oviduct is isthmus that has a narrow lumen and joins the uterus.
Q.88
Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?
(A)
Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilisation
(B)
The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve th egg envelope facilitating fertilisation
(C)
Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum
(D)
Acrosome serves no particular function
(B)

Solution

Acrosome is the cap-like structure on the front end of a spermatozoan. It breaks down just before fertilisation (the acrosome reaction), releasing a number of hydrolytic enzymes, also called sperm lysins that assist penetration between the follicle cells that still surround the ovum, thus facilitating fertilisation. Failure of the acrosome reaction is a cause of male infertility.
Q.89
Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct?
(A)
It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(B)
It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
(C)
It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(D)
It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
(A)

Solution

Morula is a solid ball contained within the zone pellucida. It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA.
Q.90
The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?
(A)
Fourth month
(B)
Fifth month
(C)
Sixth month
(D)
Third month
(B)

Solution

In human beings, after one month of pregnancy, the embryo’s heart is formed. By end of second month pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits. By end of 12 weeks, major organ systems are formed. After fifth month, the first movement of foetus and appearance of hair on its head are observed. By the end of 24 weeks, the body is covered with hairs, eye lids separate and eyelashes are formed.
Q.91
The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs
(A)
Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube
(B)
Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
(C)
Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
(D)
in the Grafian follicle following the first maturation division
(B)

Solution

In Oogenesis, the second maturation division occurs until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm. Oogenesis involves the formation of haploid female gametes, ova from diploid egg mother cells, oogonia of ovary of female organism.
Q.92
Sertoli cells are found in :
(A)
ovaries and secrete progesterone
(B)
adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
(C)
seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells
(D)
pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin
(C)

Solution

Sertoli cells are found in the walls of seminiferous tubules of the testes. They anchor and provide nutrition to the developing germ cells especially the spermatids.
Q.93
Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, leech, dolphin and penguin is correct?
(A)
Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic.
(B)
Leech is a fresh water form while all others are marine.
(C)
Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three. All arebilaterally symmetrical.
(D)
All are bilaterally symmetrical.
(C)

Solution

Spongilla is a common, widely distributed fresh water sponge belonging to phylum porifera. Canal system in Spongilla is essentially of rhagon type with choanocytes restricted to small rounded chambers. It is not found in leech, dolphin and penguin.
Q.94
One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is
(A)
Octopus
(B)
Asterias
(C)
Ascidia
(D)
Fasciola.
(D)

Solution

Fasciola, a flatworm has a single body cavity to the outside that serves both as mouth for ingestion and anus for egestion of undigested food. This is known as blind sac plan.
Q.95
Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic?
(A)
Flatworms
(B)
Sponges
(C)
Ctenophores
(D)
Corals
(A)

Solution

Triploblastic condition can be seen in flat worms. Ctenophores, sponges and corals are diploblastic.
Q.96
Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?
(A)
Roundworms (Aschelminthes) are pseudo-coelomates
(B)
Molluses are acoelomates
(C)
Inssect are pseudocoelomates
(D)
Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates.
(A)

Solution

Acoelomates are animals having no body cavity or coelom. Examples are poriferans coelenterates, ctenophora, platyhelminthes and nemertinea. In pseudocoelomates, body space is pseudocoelom or false coelom. Examples are ectoprocta, aschelminthes.

In coelomates, body space is a true coelom enclosed by mesoderm on both sides. Remaining phyla of bilateria, from annelida to arthropoda are coelomates. Molluses and insects are coelomates while flatworms are acoelomates.
Q.97
Listed below are four respiratory capacities (i iv) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult.

Respiratory
capacities
Respiratory
volumes
(i) Residual volume 2500 mL
(ii) Vital capacity 3500 mL
(iii) Inspiratory reserve
volume
1200 mL
(iv) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL

Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?
(A)
(ii) 2500 mL,   (iii) 4500 mL
(B)
(iii) 1200 mL,   (iv) 2500 mL
(C)
(iv) 3500 mL,   (i) 1200 mL
(D)
(i) 4500 mL,   (ii) 3500 mL
(C)

Solution

The correct matching of respiratory capacities with their respiratory volumes are:
Respiratory Capacities Respiratory
Volumes
Residual volume 1200 mL
Vital capacity 4500 mL
Inspiratory reserve volume 2500 mL
Inspiratory volume 3500 mL
Q.98
What is true about RBCs in humans?
(A)
They carry about 20-25 percent of CO2.
(B)
They transport 99.5 percent of O2.
(C)
They transport about 80 percent oxygen only and the rest 20 percent of it is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma
(D)
They do not carry CO2 at all.
(A)

Solution

Blood is the medium of transport for O2 and CO2 . About 97 percent of O2 is transported by RBCs in the blood. The remaining 3 percent of O2 is carried in a dissolved state through the plasma. Nearly 20-25 percent of CO2 is transported by RBCs whereas 70 percent of it is carried as bicarbonate. About 7 percent of CO2 is carried in a dissolved state through plasma.
Q.99
Darwin's finches are a good example of –
(A)
Convergent evolution
(B)
Connecting link
(C)
Industrial melanism
(D)
Adaptive radiation
(D)

Solution

Darwin finches a good example of adaptive radiation. Adaptive radiation is a process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and radiating to other areas of geography.