NEET-UG 2011

AIPMT 2011 Prelims

Physics (Maximum Marks: 196)
  • This section contains 49 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
The dimensions of are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

= = Speed of light in vacuum = c

So the dimension of = [c] =[LT-1]
Q.2
A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20 m height drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 m s2, the velocity with which it hits the ground is
(A)
10.0 m/s
(B)
20.0 m/s
(C)
40.0 m/s
(D)
5.0 m/s
(B)

Solution

We know, v2 = u2 + 2gh

Here u = 0

v = = = 20 m/s
Q.3
A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east . After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40 m/s towards north. The average acceleration of the body is
(A)
1 m/s2
(B)
7 m/s2
(C)
m/s2
(D)
5 m/s2
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Motion in a Plane Question 36 English Explanation
Velocity towards east direction, m/s

Velocity towards north direction, m/s

Change in velocity, =



Average acceleration, =



Q.4
A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the range of the missile is
(A)
40 m
(B)
50 m
(C)
60 m
(D)
20 m
(A)

Solution

For maximum range, the angle of projection, = 45°.





Q.5
A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2 s. The acceleration of the particle is
(A)
15 m/s2
(B)
25 m/s2
(C)
36 m/s2
(D)
5 m/s2
(D)

Solution

Centripetal acceleration



m/s2
Q.6
A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is
(A)
MV
(B)
1.5 MV
(C)
2MV
(D)
zero
(C)

Solution

Impulse experienced by the body = change in momentum
= MV – (–MV)
= 2MV.
Q.7
A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 ms2, the tension in the supporting cable is
(A)
8600 N
(B)
9680 N
(C)
11000 N
(D)
1200 N
(C)

Solution

Here, Mass of a person, m = 60 kg Mass of lift, M = 940 kg,

a = 1 m/s2, g = 10 m/s2

Let T be the tension in the supporting cable.

T – (M + m)g = (M + m)a

T = (M + m)(a + g)= (940 + 60)(1 + 10) = 11000 N
Q.8
A particle of mass m is released from rest and follows a parabolic path as shown. Assuming that the displacement of the mass from the origin is small, which graph correctly depicts the position of the particle as a function of time ?

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Work, Energy and Power Question 40 English
(A)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Work, Energy and Power Question 40 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Work, Energy and Power Question 40 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Work, Energy and Power Question 40 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Work, Energy and Power Question 40 English Option 4
(B)
Q.9
A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height equal to earth's radius before returning to the earth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest
(A)
at the highest position of the body
(B)
at the instant just before the body hits the earth.
(C)
it remains constant all through.
(D)
at the instant just after the body is projected.
(B)

Solution

Power, P =
Just before hitting the earth = 0°. Hence, the power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest at the instant just before the body hits the earth.
Q.10
Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in figure.

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Work, Energy and Power Question 39 English
The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is
(A)
18 J
(B)
21 J
(C)
26 J
(D)
13 J
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Work, Energy and Power Question 39 English Explanation
Work done = Area under (F-d) graph

= Area of rectangle ABCD + Area of triangle DCE

=
Q.11
The potential energy of a system increases if work is done
(A)
upon the system by a nonconservative force
(B)
by the system agains is a conservative force.
(C)
by the system against a nonconservative force.
(D)
upon the system by a conservative force.
(B)
Q.12
The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation

The torque on the wheel becomes zero at
(A)
t = 1 s
(B)
t = 0.5 s
(C)
t = 0.25 s
(D)
t = 2 s
(A)

Solution

When angular acceleration (a) is zero then torque on the wheel becomes zero.







t = 1 sec.
Q.13
The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and length L about an axis passing through its midpoint and perpendicular to its length is 0. Its moment of inertia about an axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular to its length is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

By the theorem of parallel axes, the moment of inertia of a body about any axis is equal to the sum of the moment of inertia about a parallel axis through the centre of mass and Ma2 , where M is the mass of the body and a is the separation between the two axes.

Therefore, the moment of inertia of the rod about an axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular to its length is

I = I0 + M (L/2)2

= I0 + ML2/4
Q.14
A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest away at a distance of r2. If 1 and 2 are the linear velocities at these points respectively, then the ratio is
(A)
(r1 /r2)2
(B)
r2/r1
(C)
(r2/r1)2
(D)
r1/r2
(B)

Solution

Angular momentum is conserved

L1 = L2

mr1v1 = mr2v2

r1v1 = r2v2

Q.15
When 1 kg of ice at 0oC melts to water at 0oC, the resulting change in its entropy, taking latent heat of ice to be 80 cal/oC, is
(A)
273 cal/K
(B)
8 104 cal/K
(C)
80 cal/K
(D)
293 cal/K
(D)

Solution

Change in entropy is given by





Note : In the question paper unit of latent heat of ice is given to be cal/°C. It is wrong. The unit of latent heat of ice is cal/g.
Q.16
During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does 150 J of work against its surroundings. This implies that
(A)
150 J of heat has been removed from the gas
(B)
300 J of heat has been added to the gas
(C)
no heat is transferred because the process is isothermal
(D)
150 J of heat has been added to the gas
(D)

Solution

If a process is expansion then work done is positive so answer will be (a).

But in question work done by gas is given –150J so that according to it answer will be (d).
Q.17
Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents SHM
(1)  y = sint cost
(2)  y = sin3t
(3)  y = 5cos
(4)  y = 1 + t + 2t2
(A)
Only (1)
(B)
Only (4) does not represent SHM
(C)
Only (1) and (3)
(D)
Only (1) and (2)
(C)

Solution

y = sint – cost





It represents a SHM with time period,



It represents a periodic motion with time period

but now SHM.



   

It represents a SHM with time period,



It represents a non-periodic motion. Also it is not physically acceptable as y as t .
Q.18
Two waves are represented by the equations
y1 = sin(t + kx + 0.57) m and
y2 = acos(t + kx) m, where x is in meter and t sec. The phase difference between them is
(A)
1.0 radian
(B)
1.25 radian
(C)
1.57 radian
(D)
0.57 radian
(A)

Solution

Here, y1 = a sin (t + kx + 0.57)
and y2 = a cos (t + kx)



Phase difference,





= 1.57 – 0.57 = 1 radian
Q.19
Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through a warm air and at 3500 m/s through brass. The wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air
(A)
decrease by a factor 10
(B)
increase by a factor 20
(C)
increase by a factor 10
(D)
decrease by a factor 20
(C)

Solution

We have, v = n

(as n remains constant)

Thus, as v increases 10 times, also increases 10 times.
Q.20
Four electric charges +q, +q, q and q are placed at the corners of a square of side 2L (see figure). The electric potential at point A, midway between the two charges + q and +q, is

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Electrostatics Question 58 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
zero
(C)

Solution

Distance of point A from the two +q charges = L.

Distance of point A from the two –q charges


AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Electrostatics Question 58 English Explanation





Q.21
A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward electric flux will
(A)
increase four times
(B)
be reduced to half
(C)
remain the same
(D)
be doubled
(C)

Solution

According to Gauss’s law



If the radius of the Gaussian surface is doubled, the outward electric flux will remain the same. This is because electric flux depends only on the charge enclosed by the surface.
Q.22
A current of 2 A flows through a 2 resistor when connected across a battery a 2 resistor when connected across a battery. The same battery supplies a current of 0.5 A when connected across a 9 resistor. The internal resistance of the battery is
(A)
0.5
(B)
1/3
(C)
1/4
(D)
1
(B)

Solution

Let be the emf and r be internal resistance of the battery.

In the first case,

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Current Electricity Question 90 English Explanation 1


In the second case,

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Current Electricity Question 90 English Explanation 2


Divide (i) by (ii), we get



Q.23
If power dissipated in the 9 resistor in the circuit shown is 36 watt, the potential difference across the 2 resistor is

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Current Electricity Question 89 English
(A)
4 volt
(B)
8 volt
(C)
10 volt
(D)
2 volt
(C)

Solution

We have,







Current passing through the 9 resistor is



The 9 and 6 resistors are in parallel, therefore



where i is the current delivered by the battery.



Thus, potential difference across 2 resistor is

V = iR = 5 × 2 = 10V
Q.24
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is

   ...(i)

Potential difference between the plates is

V = Ed    ...(ii)

The energy stored in the capacitor is

   (Using (i) and (ii))

Q.25
A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle ABC is placed in uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm BC is the force on the arm AC is

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 62 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

Here,



The net magnetic force on a current carrying closed loop in a uniform magnetic field is zero.



    ( )
Q.26
A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is pointed along the direction of fields, then the electron
(A)
will turn towards right of direction of motion
(B)
speed will decrease
(C)
speed will increase
(D)
will turn towards left of direction of motion
(B)

Solution

and are in same direction so that magnetic force on electron becomes zero, only electric force acts. But force on electron due to electric field is opposite to the direction of velocity.
Q.27
There are four light-weight-rod samples A, B, C, D separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations are noted
(i)  A is feebly repelled
(ii)  B is feebly attracted
(iii)  C is strongly attracted
(iv)  D remains unaffected

Which one of the following is true ?
(A)
B is of a paramagnetic material
(B)
C is of a diamagnetic material
(C)
D is of a ferromagnetic material
(D)
A is of a non-magnetic material
(A)

Solution

Diamagnetic will be feebly repelled.

Paramagnetic will be feebly attracted.

Ferromagnetic will be strongly attracted.

Therefore, A is of diamagnetic material. B is of paramagnetic material. C is of ferromagnetic material. D is of non-magnetic material.
Q.28
The current in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf with time would be

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Electromagnetic Induction Question 23 English
(A)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Electromagnetic Induction Question 23 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Electromagnetic Induction Question 23 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Electromagnetic Induction Question 23 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Electromagnetic Induction Question 23 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

e = -L

During 0 to , = constant

e = -ve

During to , = 0

e = 0

During to , = 0

e = +ve

Thus graph given in option (a) represents the variation of induced emf with time.
Q.29
An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an inductor L in series. If R and the inductive reactance are both equal to 3 , the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
zero
(B)

Solution

tan = = = 1

= 45o or
Q.30
In the ac circuit an alternating voltage e = sin100t volts is connected to a capacitor of capacity 1 F. The r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is
(A)
10 mA
(B)
100 mA
(C)
200 mA
(D)
20 mA
(D)

Solution

e0 = V, = 100 rad s-1

The capacitive reactance is

XC =

The r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is

ir.m.s =

=

= 200 × 100 × 10–6 A = 2 × 10–2 A = 20 mA
Q.31
The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an e.m. wave, propagating along the +z-axis, can be represented by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

The e.m. wave is propagating along +z direction.

Electric field and magnetic field are mutually perpendicular and also perpendicular to the direction of propagation.

Q.32
The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is
(A)
microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
(B)
gamma rays, ultraviolet, infraref, microwaves
(C)
microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
(D)
infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
(A)

Solution

From the electromagnetic wave spectrum, the correct decreasing order of wavelength is :

microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays.
Q.33
Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection ?
(A)
Working of optical fibre
(B)
difference between apparent and real depth of a pond
(C)
Mirage on hot summer days
(D)
Brilliance of diamond
(B)

Solution

Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond is due to refraction. Other three are due to total internal reflection.
Q.34
A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the following options describe best the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens ?
(A)
Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm
(B)
Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm
(C)
Real, inverted, height = 4 cm
(D)
Real, inverted, height = 1 cm
(C)

Solution

Focal length of the lens



f = 20 cm

From lens formula





v = 60 cm

= = -2

I = -2 (O) = -2 2 = -4 cm

So image will be real inverted and of size 4 cm.
Q.35
Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
(A)
nuclei break up at high temperature
(B)
atoms get ionised at high temperature
(C)
kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
(D)
molecules break up at high temperature
(C)

Solution

Extremely high temperature needed for fusion make kinetic energy large enough to overcome coulomb repulsion between nuclei.
Q.36
A nucleus emits one particle and two particles. The resulting nucleus is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

-particle is 2He4

In emission, the neutron gets converted to proton and electron

nXm n - 2Ym - 4 nZm - 4
Q.37
A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency and the nucleus recoils. The recoil energy will be
(A)
Mc2 h
(B)
h22/2Mc2
(C)
zero
(D)
h
(B)

Solution

Momentum Mu =

Recoil energy :

=

=

=
Q.38
The power obtained in a reactor using U235 disintegration is 1000 kW. The mass decay of U235 per hour is
(A)
10 microgram
(B)
20 microgram
(C)
40 microgram
(D)
1 microgram
(C)

Solution

From Einstein relation, E = mc2

Rearranging, m =

We see that mass decay per second :

= × =

Now mass decay of U235 per hour,

= 60 60

= 3600

= 4 × 10–8 kg = 40 microgram
Q.39
The half life of a radioactive isotope X is 50 years. It decays to another element Y which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio of 1 : 15 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock was estimated to be
(A)
150 years
(B)
200 years
(C)
250 years
(D)
100 years
(B)

Solution

Initial number of atoms of X is N0

and Initial number of atoms of Y is 0

Number of atoms after time t, for X is N and for Y is N0 - N

According to the question,

=



As where n is the no. of half lives



n = 4

t = nT1/2 = 4 × 50 = 200 years

Hence, the age of rock is 200 years.
Q.40
The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second line of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The atomic number Z of hydrogen like ion is
(A)
3
(B)
4
(C)
1
(D)
2
(D)

Solution

The wavelength of the first line of lyman series for hydrogen atom is



The wavelength of the second line of Balmer series for hydrogen like ion is



According to question

= '

=

=

Z = 2
Q.41
Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is increased to 100 kV then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would
(A)
increase by 2 times
(B)
decrease by 2 times
(C)
decrease by 4 times
(D)
increase by 4 times
(B)

Solution

The de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons is



where V is the accelerating potential in volts.





= = 2

Q.42
In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is
(A)
1.8 V
(B)
1.3 V
(C)
0.5 V
(D)
2.3 V
(C)

Solution

Maximum K.E. = Stopping Potential

So stopping potential will be 0.5 V
Q.43
In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the electron gun can be increased by
(A)
increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
(B)
increasing the filament current
(C)
decreasing the filament current
(D)
decreasing the potential difference between the anode and flament
(A)

Solution

Davisson and Germer experiment describes that velocity of electron emitted from electron gun increases using potential difference between anode and filament.
Q.44
Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be
(A)
1 : 4
(B)
1 : 2
(C)
1 : 1
(D)
1 : 5
(B)

Solution

According to Einsten’s photoelectric effect, the K.E. of the radiated electrons

K.Emax = E – W

= (1 - 0.5) eV = 0.5 eV

= (2.5 - 0.5) eV = 2 eV

= 1 : 2
Q.45
Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum
(A)
power
(B)
wavelength
(C)
intensity
(D)
frequency
(D)

Solution

According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation

Kmax = h – h0

Since Kmax is +ve, the photoelectric emission occurs only if

h h0 or 0

The photoelectic emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum frequency. This minimum frequency is called threshold frequency.
Q.46
In forward biasing of the p-n junction
(A)
the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the depletion region becomes thick.
(B)
the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region becomes thin.
(C)
the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region becomes thick.
(D)
the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the depletion region becomes thin.
(D)

Solution

In forward biasing, the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the negative terminal to n-side of p-n junction. The forward bias voltage opposes the potential barrier. Due to it, the depletion region becomes thin.
Q.47
If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal
(A)
it becomes a p-type semiconductor
(B)
the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
(C)
there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
(D)
its resistance is increased
(C)

Solution

If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal, crystal becomes n-type semiconductor. Hence, there will be more free electrons than holes.
Q.48
Symbolic representation of four logic gates are shown as

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 87 English

Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and NOT gates, respectively
(A)
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B)
(iii), (ii) and (i)
(C)
(iii), (ii) and (iv)
(D)
(iii), (iv) and (ii)
(D)

Solution

AND, NAND and NOT gates are (iii), (iv) and (ii) respectively.
Q.49
A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at VC = 2 V such that a change in the base current from 100 A to 300 A produces a change in the collector current from 10 mA to 20 mA. The current gain is
(A)
50
(B)
75
(C)
100
(D)
25
(A)

Solution

Current gain, =

= = 50
Chemistry (Maximum Marks: 204)
  • This section contains 51 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e., 1 and 2 will be
(A)
1 = 2
(B)
1 = 22
(C)
1 = 42
(D)
1 = 2
(B)

Solution

E1 = and E2 =

= =

=

= = 2
Q.2
The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is
(A)
8
(B)
16
(C)
32
(D)
4
(B)

Solution

The total number of atomic orbitals in any energy level is n2.

42 = 16
Q.3
If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of electrons will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
Q.4
In Duma's method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mLof nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be (aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm).
(A)
15.45
(B)
16.45
(C)
17.45
(D)
14.45
(B)

Solution

Given V1 = 55 mL, V2 = ?

P1 = 715 – 15 = 700 mm, P2 = 760 mm

T1 = 300 K, T2 = 273 K

General gas equation,





V2 = 46.098 mL

Now, 22400 mL of nitrogen = 1 mole

46.098 mL of nitrogen = mol

Weight of nitrogen = 28 = 0.057 g

Percent composition of nitrogen in 0.35 g of compound

= = 16.45 %
Q.5
Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be
(A)
50.00 u
(B)
12.25 u
(C)
6.50 u
(D)
25.00 u
(B)

Solution

We know that





u
Q.6
By what factor does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled ?
(A)
2.0
(B)
2.8
(C)
4.0
(D)
1.4
(D)

Solution

Average velocity (vAV) =

vAV

= 1.4
Q.7
A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N2. If the total pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is
(A)
0.5 atm
(B)
0.8 atm
(C)
0.9 atm
(D)
1 atm
(A)

Solution

Number of moles nCO = nN2

Volume of container is same. So, VCO = VN2 .

Also, temperature is same for both the gases thus, TCO = TN2

According to ideal gas equation, PV = nRT

Now, V, n, R and T for both gases are same. So, PCO = PN2

Now, total pressure is 1 atm and according to Dalton’s law of partial pressure,

PCO + PN2 = 1 atm

2PN2 = 1 atm { PCO = PN2 }

PN2 = 0.5 atm
Q.8
The value of H for the reaction
X2(g) + 4Y2(g) 2XY4(g)
is less than zero. Formation of XY4(g) will be favoured at
(A)
high temperature and high pressure
(B)
low pressure and low temperature
(C)
high temperature and low pressure
(D)
high pressure and low temperature
(D)

Solution

X2(g) + 4Y2(g) 2XY4(g)

ng = -ve and H = -ve

As H < 0 i.e., the given reaction is exothermic. According to Le-Chatelier principle, for exothermic reaction, forward reaction is favoured when temperature becomes low. Also, there are 5 gaseous moles on reactant side and 2 gaseous moles on products side. So, forward reaction is favoured when pressure of the reaction mixture becomes high. The reason is that at high pressure reaction tends to more in direction where there is lessee number of gaseous moles.
Q.9
For the reaction, N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g), the equilibrium constant is K1. The equilibrium constant is K2 for the reaction,
2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g)
What is K for the reaction,
NO2(g) N2(g) + O2(g)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

N2(g) + O2(g) NO(g),    

NO(g) + O2(g) NO2(g),    
---------------------------------------------------
N2(g) + O2(g) NO2(g)    

So, for the reverse reaction which is the desired one the value of K will be reciprocal of this value. i.e.

K =
Q.10
A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the concentration of NH+4 is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals 1.8 105, what is the pH of this solution? (log 2.7 = 0.43)
(A)
9.08
(B)
9.43
(C)
11.72
(D)
8.73
(B)

Solution

pOH = pKb + log

= – log Kb + log

= – log 1.8× 10–5 + log

= 5 – 0.25 + (–0.176) = 4.57

Now, pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 4.57 = 9.43
Q.11
Which of the following is least likely to behave as Lewis base?
(A)
H2O
(B)
NH3
(C)
BF3
(D)
OH
(C)

Solution

The species which have a lone pair of electrons to donate or a negative charge on it can act as a Lewis base. Here, N atom in NH3 and O atom in H2O have lone pair of electrons available for donation. In OH the negative charge on it results in to behave it as a Lewis base. But BF3 is an electron deficient species thus, it is least likely to behave as Lewis base.
Q.12
The freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86o C m1. If 5.00 g Na2SO4 is dissolved in 45.0 g H2O, the freezing point is changed by 3.82oC. Calculate the van't Hoff factor for Na2SO4.
(A)
2.05
(B)
2.63
(C)
3.11
(D)
0.381
(B)

Solution

According to depression in freezing point,

Tf = i Kf m

= i Kf

Given : Tf = 3.82, Kf = 1.86,

wB = 5, mB = 142, wA = 45

i =

=

= 2.63
Q.13
The van't Hoff factor for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in other solvent is respectively
(A)
less than one and greater than one
(B)
less than one and less than one
(C)
greater than one and less than one
(D)
greater than one and greater than one.
(C)

Solution

From the value of van’t Hoff factor i it is possible to determine the degree of dissociation or association. In case of dissociation, i is greater than 1 and in case of association i is less than 1.
Q.14
If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol1 at 27oC, the entropy change for the process would be
(A)
10 J mol1 K1
(B)
1.0 J mol1 K1
(C)
0.1 J mol1 K1
(D)
100 J mol1 K1
(D)

Solution

H2O(l) H2O(g)

∆H = 30 kJ mol–1

=

= 100 J mol–1 K–1
Q.15
Enthalpy change for the reaction,
4H(g)    2H2(g) is 869.6 kJ
The dissociation energy of H H bond is
(A)
434.8 kJ
(B)
869.6 kJ
(C)
+ 434.8 kJ
(D)
+ 217.4 kJ
(C)

Solution

4H(g) → 2H2(g),    ∆H = – 869.6 kJ

Reverse the above equation

2H2(g) → 4H(g),    ∆H = + 869.6 kJ

Divide the above equation by 2,

H2(g) → 2H(g), kJ = 434.8 kJ
Q.16
Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition ?
(A)
q = 0, 0, w = 0
(B)
q 0,   T = 0,   w = 0
(C)
q = 0,   T = 0,   w = 0
(D)
q = 0,  T < 0, w 0
(C)

Solution

For adiabatic condition, change in heat does not take place thus, q = 0.

If q = 0 then change in temperature does not take place thus, T = 0.

Also for a free expansion of ideal gas work done, W = 0 as there is no external pressure on it.
Q.17
Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+ couple is + 0.15 V and that for the Cr3+/Cr couple is 0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be
(A)
+ 1.19 V
(B)
+ 0.89 V
(C)
+ 0.18 V
(D)
+ 1.83 V
(B)

Solution

Sn4+/Sn2+ = 0.15 V

Cr3+/Cr = –0.74 V

cell = E°cathode – E°anode

= 0.15 – (– 0.74) = 0.15 + 0.74 = 0.89 V
Q.18
Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are 1.2 V, + 0.5 V and 3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be
(A)
Y > Z > X
(B)
Y > X > Z
(C)
Z > X > Y
(D)
X > Y > Z
(C)

Solution

As the electrode potential drops, reducing power increases.

So, Z (–3.0 V) > X (–1.2 V) > Y (+ 0.5 V)
Q.19
The electrode potentials for Cu2+(aq) + e Cu+(aq)
and Cu+(aq) + e Cu(s) are + 0.15 V and + 0.50 V respectively.

The value of Eocu2+/cu will be
(A)
0.500 V
(B)
0.325 V
(C)
0.650 V
(D)
0.150 V
(B)

Solution

Cu2+(aq) + e Cu+(aq) ; E1o = 0.15 V

Cu+(aq) + e Cu(s) ; E2o = 0.50 V

Cu2+ + 2e Cu ; Eo = ?

Go = G1° + G2°

– nFE° = – n1FE1° – n2FE2°

Eo = = 0.325 V
Q.20
Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect?
(A)
Order can be determined only experimentally.
(B)
Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants.
(C)
Order of a reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of reaction.
(D)
Order of reaction is always whole number.
(D)

Solution

Order of a reaction is not always whole number. It can be zero, or fractional also.
Q.21
If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following relations is not related to adsorption process?
(A)
x/m = (p) at constant T
(B)
x/m = f(T) at constant p
(C)
p = f(T) at constant (x/m)
(D)
(D)

Solution

is incorrect.

Q.22
Which of the two ions from the list given below that have the geometry that is explained by the same hybridization of orbitals, NO. NO, NH, NH, SCN?
(A)
NO and NO
(B)
NH and NO
(C)
SCN and NH
(D)
NO and NH
(A)

Solution

Ions Hybridisation
sp
Q.23
The correct order of increasing bond length of C H, C O, C C and CC is
(A)
C H < CC < C O < C C
(B)
C C < CC < C O < C H
(C)
C O < C H < C C < CC
(D)
C H < C O < C C < CC
(A)

Solution

Increasing order of bond length is

Q.24
The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behavior are noted below. Which of the following presents the correct description?
(A)
O, O - Both diamagnetic
(B)
O+, O - Both paramagnetic
(C)
O, O2 - Both paramagnetic
(D)
O, O - Both paramagnetic
(C)

Solution

and are paramagnetic in nature as they contain one and two unpaired electrons respectively.
Q.25
Which of the following has the minimum bond length ?
(A)
O2+
(B)
O2
(C)
O22
(D)
O2
(A)

Solution

Electronic configuration
O2 :

Bond order = = 2

O2+ : Bond order = = 2.5

O2- : Bond order = = 1.5

O22- : Bond order = = 1

As bond order increases, bond length decreases.
Q.26
Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van-Arkel method?
(A)
Ga and In
(B)
Zr and Ti
(C)
Ag and Au
(D)
Ni and Fe
(B)

Solution

Van Arkel method is used for purification of Zr and Ti.
Q.27
Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron?
(A)
Manganese
(B)
Carbon
(C)
Silicon
(D)
Phosphorus
(B)

Solution

Pig iron contains carbon (nearly 4%) as the impurity to the maximum extent. Other impurities are S, P, Si, Mn in trace amount.
Q.28
Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point?
(A)
CaCl2
(B)
CaBr2
(C)
CaI2
(D)
CaF2
(C)

Solution

As the covalent character in compound increases and ionic character decreases, melting point of the compound decreases. So, CaI2 has the highest covalent character and lowest melting point.
Q.29
Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action?
(A)
CaOCl2
(B)
Ca(OCl)2
(C)
CaO2Cl
(D)
CaCl2
(B)

Solution

Active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action is Ca(OCl)2, i.e., calcium hypochlorite.
Q.30
The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 while testing for halogens. By doing so it
(A)
decomposes Na2S and NaCN, formed
(B)
helps in the precipitation of AgCl
(C)
increases the solubility product of AgCl
(D)
increases the concentration of N ions
(A)

Solution

In case of Lassaigne’s test of halogens, it is necessary to remove NaCN and Na2S from the sodium extract, if nitrogen and sulphur are present. This is done by boiling the sodium extract with conc. HNO3.

NaCN + HNO3 NaNO3 + HCN

Na2S + 2HNO3 2NaNO3 + H2S
Q.31
Name the two type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of [SiO4]4 is shared?
(A)
Linear chain silicate
(B)
Sheet silicate
(C)
Pyrosilicate
(D)
Three dimensional
(C)

Solution

Pyrosilicate contains two units of SiO44– joined along a corner containing oxygen atom. AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - p-Block Elements Question 82 English Explanation
Q.32
Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green when Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to the formation of
(A)
Cr2(SO4)3
(B)
CrO
(C)
Cr2(SO3)3
(D)
CrSO4
(A)

Solution

K2Cr2O7 + 3Na2SO3 + 4H2SO4

3Na2SO4 + K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + 4H2O
Q.33
For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of + 2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order?
(At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
(A)
Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
(B)
Fe > Mn > Co > Cr
(C)
Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
(D)
Cr > Mn > Co > Fe
(A)

Solution

The order can be explained using the idea of spin correlation. Spin correlation refers to lowering of energy for like (parallel) spins. Spin correlation leading to decrease in repulsion for electrons of like spins than for electrons of different spins is called exchange energy.

Spin correlation and its exchange energy gives an electronic configuration a special stability which is greatest for half-filled electronic configurations.

Mn2+ (d5 ) gets stabilisation due to half-filled configuration.

In Fe2+ (d6) the placing of one extra electron in a subshell destabilises. Placing of 2 electrons in Co2+ (d7) destabilises it more. Cr2+ (d4) has one vacant subshell. Fe2+ gets more stabilisation compared to Cr2+ through exchange energy. So the order is as follows:

Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
Q.34
The complex, [Pt(Py)(NH3)BrCl] will have how many geometrical isomers ?
(A)
3
(B)
4
(C)
0
(D)
2
(A)

Solution

Complexes of the type MABCD may exist in three isomeric forms.

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 78 English Explanation

Similarly, [Pt(Py)(NH3)BrCl] may exist in three isomeric form in which

M = Pt, A = Py, B = NH3, C = Br, D = Cl.
Q.35
Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour?
(A)
[Ti(NH3)6]3+
(B)
[Cr(NH3)6]3+
(C)
[Co(NH3)6]3+
(D)
[Zn(NH3)6]2+
(B)

Solution

Ti3+ [Ar] 3d14s0 (1 unpaired electron)

Cr3+ [Ar] 3d3 4s0 (3 unpaired electrons)

Co3+ [Ar] 3d6 4s0 (0 unpaired electrons because of pairing)

Zn2+ [Ar] 3d10 (no unpaired electrons)

[Cr(NH3)6]3+ exhibits highest paramagnetic behaviour as it contains 3 unpaired electrons.
Q.36
Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C O bond?
(A)
Mn(CO)6+
(B)
Cr(CO)6
(C)
V(CO)6
(D)
Fe(CO)5
(A)

Solution

As + ve charge on the central metal atom increases, the less readily the metal can donate electron density into the * orbitals of CO ligand to weaken the C – O bond. Hence, the C – O bond would be strongest in Mn(CO)6+.
Q.37
Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature?
(A)
[NiCl4]2
(B)
[Ni(CN)4]2
(C)
[CuCl4]2
(D)
[CoF6]3
(B)

Solution

For [Ni(CN)4]2–

Ni+2 = 3d84s0 AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 80 English Explanation 1

CN– is a strong field ligand thus, it pair up the electrons. AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 80 English Explanation 2

[Ni(CN)4]–2 is diamagnetic in nature.
Q.38
The complexes [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of isomerism?
(A)
Linkage isomerism
(B)
Ionization isomerism
(C)
Coordination isomerism
(D)
Geometrical isomerism
(C)

Solution

Coordination isomerism arises from the interchange of ligands between cationic and anionic entities of different metal ions present in the complex.

[Co (NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] is an isomer of [Co(CN)6] [Cr(NH3)6]
Q.39
The d-electron configurations of Cr2+, Mn2+, Fe2+ and Co2+ are d4, d5, d6 and d7 respectively. Which one of the following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour?
(At. Nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
(A)
[Mn(H2O)6]2+
(B)
[Fe(H2O)6]2+
(C)
[Co(H2O)6]2+
(D)
[Cr(H2O)6]2+
(C)

Solution

[Mn(H2O)6]2+ : Mn2+ = 3d5

Number of unpaired electron = 5

[Fe(H2O)6]2+ : Fe2+ = 3d6

Number of unpaired electrons = 4

[Co(H2O)6]2+ : Co2+ = 3d7

Number of unpaired electrons = 3

[Cr(H2O)6]2+ : Cr2+ = 3d4

Number of unpaired electrons = 4

Minimum paramagnetic behaviour is shown by [Co(H2O)6]2+.
Q.40
Which one of the following statement is not true?
(A)
pH of drinking water should be between 5.5 9.5
(B)
Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish.
(C)
Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm.
(D)
Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant.
(B)

Solution

Fish dies in water bodies polluted by sewage due to decrease in dissolved oxygen (DO).
Q.41
Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent?
(A)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 79 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 79 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 79 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 79 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

+R effect of -OH group is greater than of -OCH3 group. That is why it is highly reactive towards electrophilic substitutions.
Q.42
The correct IUPAC name for the compound is

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 77 English
(A)
4-ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene
(B)
3-ethyl-4-ethenylheptane
(C)
3-ethyl-4-propylhex-5-ene
(D)
3-(1 -ethylpropyl)hex- 1 -ene.
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 77 English Explanation
4-ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene
Q.43
Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule among the following which is linear ?
(A)
CH3 CH CH CH3
(B)
CH3 CC CH3
(C)
CH2 CH CH2 CCH
(D)
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3
(B)

Solution

The carbon atoms which have sp hybridization form a linear molecule. Among the given compounds, AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 80 English Explanation has sp hybridized carbon atoms which has bond angle 180o are attached to sp3 hybridised carbon atoms. So, it is linear.
Q.44
In the following reactions,

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 28 English
the major products (A) and (C) are respectively
(A)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 28 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 28 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 28 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 28 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 28 English Explanation 1
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 28 English Explanation 2
Q.45
Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following ?
(A)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 99 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 99 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 99 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 99 English Option 4
(C)

Solution

Because of high electronegativities of the halogen atom, the carbon halogen (C – X) is highly polarised covalent bond. Thus, the carbon atom of the C – X bond becomes a good site for attack by nucleophiles (electron rich species). Nucleophilic substitution reactions are the most common reactions of alkyl halides.
Q.46
In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D.
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 66 English
(A)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 66 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 66 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 66 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 66 English Option 4
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 66 English Explanation
Q.47
Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?
(A)
Glycol with KOH
(B)
Zn-Hg with HCl
(C)
LiAlH4
(D)
H2 and Pt as catalyst
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 86 English Explanation
Q.48
What is the product obtained in the following reaction?
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 33 English
(A)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 33 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 33 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 33 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 33 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 33 English Explanation
Q.49
Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer?
(A)
Terylene
(B)
Bakelite
(C)
Melamine
(D)
Nylon-6,6
(A)

Solution

Terylene (Dacron) is a polyester polymer.
Q.50
Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) lactose?
(A)
On hydrolysis (+) lactose gives equal amount of D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose.
(B)
(+) Lactose is a -glucoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a molecule of D(+) galactose.
(C)
(+) Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exihibit mutarotation.
(D)
(+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8-OH groups
(C)

Solution

(+) Lactose is a reducing sugar and all reducing sugar shows mutarotation.
Q.51
Which one of the following is employed as Antihistamine?
(A)
Chloramphenicol
(B)
Diphenylhydramine
(C)
Norothindrone
(D)
Omeprazole
(B)

Solution

Diphenylhydramine is employed as antihistamine drug.
Biology (Maximum Marks: 400)
  • This section contains 100 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in :
(A)
Chromoplast
(B)
Ribosomes
(C)
Chloroplast
(D)
Mitochondria
(B)

Solution

Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in ribosome. Ribosomes are found in all cells and are involved in protein synthesis. The major constituents of ribosomes are RNA and proteins present in approximately equal amounts.
Q.2
Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is :
(A)
Plastid
(B)
Lysosome
(C)
Golgi apparatus
(D)
Vacuole
(C)

Solution

Golgi apparatus is the important site for formation of glycoprotein and glycolipid.
Q.3
The curve given below shows enzymatic activity in relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration). What do the two axes (x and y) represent?

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Biology - Biomolecules Question 80 English
(A)
x-axis y-axis
enzymatic activity pH
(B)
x-axis y-axis
temperature enzyme activity
(C)
x-axis y-axis
substrate concentration enzymatic activity
(D)
x-axis y-axis
enzymatic activity temperature
(B)

Solution

In the given curve, the relation between temperature and enzyme activity is shown.
Q.4
Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function?

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Biology - Biomolecules Question 79 English
(A)
B : Adenine    -   A nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids
(B)
A : Triglyceride    -   Major source of energy
(C)
B : Uracil    -   A component of DNA
(D)
A : Lecithin    -    A component of cell membrane
(D)

Solution

Lecithin is a fat like substance (a phospholipid), which is a part of plasma membrane.
Q.5
Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.
(A)
Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase
(B)
Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
(C)
Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase.
(D)
Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase.
(D)

Solution

In mitosis, chromosomes move to the equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase.
Q.6
Wind pollination is common in
(A)
legumes
(B)
lilies
(C)
grasses
(D)
orchids.
(C)

Solution

Wind pollination is common in grasses. Grasses produce large amount of pollen which by the help of wind reach to opposite sex for reproduction.
Q.7
The ''eyes'' of the potato tuber are
(A)
root buds
(B)
flower buds
(C)
shoot buds
(D)
axillary buds.
(D)

Solution

Potato is the common example of stemtuber. It stores starch as reserve food material. The potato-tubers are used for vegetative propagation. These possess axillary buds over their nodes or eyes. The buds produce new plantlets when a stem-tuber or a part of it having an eye is placed in the soil.
Q.8
Which one of the following pollinations is autogamous?
(A)
Geitonogamy
(B)
Xenogamy
(C)
Chasmogamy
(D)
Cleistogamy
(D)

Solution

Autogamy is a kind of pollination in which the pollen from the anthers of a flower are transferred to stigma of the same flower. Cleistogamy, homogamy, bud pollination are three methods of the autogamy. Cleistogamy occurs in those plants, which never open and ensure complete self-pollination. E.g., Commelina bengalensis, Oxalis, Viola etc.
Q.9
Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of
(A)
Citrus
(B)
Gossypium
(C)
Triticum
(D)
Brassica.
(A)

Solution

Nucellar polyembryony is reported in a Citrus species.
Q.10
Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of
(A)
suspensor
(B)
egg
(C)
synergid
(D)
zygote.
(C)

Solution

A synergid cell wall forms a highly thickened structure called the filiform apparatus at the micropylar end consisting of numerous finger like projections into synergid cytoplasm. These synergid cells are necessary for pollen tube guidance in ovule.
Q.11
An organism used as a Biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is :
(A)
Azotobacter
(B)
Azospirillum
(C)
Nostoc
(D)
Rhizobium
(D)

Solution

Rhizobium is used as a biofertilizer for raising crop. Rhizobium japonicum forms symbiotic association in the roots of the leguminous plant, soybean.
Q.12
Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer ?
(A)
Agrobacterium
(B)
Nostoc
(C)
Rhizobium
(D)
Mycorrhiza
(A)

Solution

Biofertilizers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil. The main sources of biofertilizers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria. Rhizobium bacteria is found in the nodules on the roots of leguminous plants by symbiotic association. These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms, which is used by the plants as nutrient. Fungi are also known to form symbiotic associations with plants called mycorrhiza. Cyanobacteria are autotrophic microbes widely distributed in an aquatic and terrestrial environments. Many of which can fix atmospheric nitrogen, e.g., Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria etc. But Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a pathogen of several dicot plants. It causes gall tumour in the plants.
Q.13
Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' fermentation is done to :
(A)
obtain antibiotics
(B)
produce methane
(C)
purify enzymes
(D)
degrade sewage
(A)

Solution

Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed-batch' fermentation is done to obtain high yields of desired products. Fed-batch fermentation is a fermentation process where a substrate (such as sugar) is added intermittently or continuously to a bioreactor during the fermentation process. This allows the process to be maintained for a longer period, with a steady supply of nutrients to the microorganisms, leading to higher yield and productivity of the desired product. This method is often used in the industrial production of antibiotics, enzymes, and other products.

Thus, option A is the correct answer.
Q.14
Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular speciesl of :
(A)
Clostridium
(B)
Trichoderma
(C)
Aspergillus
(D)
Sanccharomyces
(D)

Solution

Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of yeast Saccharomyces (Saccharomyces cerevisiae).
Q.15
Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a :
(A)
Mechanical process
(B)
Chemical process
(C)
Biological process
(D)
Physical process
(C)

Solution

In secondary treatment mainly settled sewage flows to an aerobic biological treatment stage where it comes into contact with micro-organisms which remove and oxidise most of the remaining organic pollutants.
Q.16
Which of the following is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage ?
(A)
Propane
(B)
Mustard gas
(C)
Marsh gas
(D)
Laughing gas
(C)

Solution

Marsh gas is another term for methane, produced by plants decomposing under water.
Q.17
The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is :
(A)
Ground gram
(B)
Molasses
(C)
Soyabean
(D)
Corn meal
(B)

Solution

Molasses are commonly used in distillaries for the production of ethanol. The molasses is diluted to a mash containing 10-20 wt % of sugar. By the fermentation system of molasses ethanol can be produced.
Q.18
Organisms called Methanogens are most abundant in a :
(A)
Polluted stream
(B)
Hot spring
(C)
Cattle yard
(D)
Sulphur rock
(C)

Solution

Methanogens are archaebacteria, abundant in cattle yard and paddy fields.
Q.19
The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called :
(A)
Periderm
(B)
Phellem
(C)
Phellogen
(D)
Phelloderm
(A)

Solution

Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm are collectively called periderm.
Q.20
Ground tissue includes :
(A)
All tissues external to endodermis
(B)
Epidermis and cortex
(C)
All tissues internal to endodermis
(D)
All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles
(D)

Solution

Ground tissue includes all tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles. The ground tissue comprises the bulk of the primary plant body. Parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma cells are common in the ground tissue.
Q.21
In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having
(A)
cytoskeleton
(B)
mitochondria
(C)
endoplasmic reticulum
(D)
chloroplasts
(D)

Solution

Guard cells differ from epidermal cells in having chloroplast. The cell wall of guard cells are not uniform, inner walls are thicker than the outer walls, epidermal cells are uniformly thin.
Q.22
Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants?
(A)
Glomus
(B)
Rhizobium
(C)
Frankia
(D)
Anabaena
(A)

Solution

Glomus aggregatum is a mycorrhizal fungus used as a soil inoculant in agriculture and horticulture. Its purpose is to increase the surface area of roots for nutrient absorption like phosphorus.
Q.23
Nitrifying bacteria
(A)
oxidize ammonia to nitrates
(B)
convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
(C)
convert proteins into ammonia
(D)
reduce nitrates to free nitrogen.
(A)

Solution

Nitrifying bacteria involves the oxidation of ammonia to nitrates through nitrites called nitrification. Nitrite bacteria (Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus) convert ammonia to nitrites whereas, nitrate bacteria (Nitrobacter and Nitrocystis) convert nitrite to soluble nitrates.
Q.24
The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is
(A)
inhibition of nitrogenase activity
(B)
oxygen differentiation
(C)
nodule differentiation
(D)
expression of nif gene.
(B)

Solution

The root nodule of legume contains enzyme nitrogenase and leghaemoglobin. Nitrogenase catalyses the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia. It is highly sensitive to the molecular oxygen and requires anaerobic conditions. The nodules have adaptations that ensure that the enzyme is protected from oxygen. To protect these enzymes, the nodule contains an oxygen scavenger called leghaemoglobin.
Q.25
Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised?
(A)
Phosphorus
(B)
Calcium
(C)
Potassium
(D)
Sulphur
(B)

Solution

Calcium is not remobilized from the leaves to the fruits, like potassium, phosphorus and sulphur. It occurs abundantly in a non-exchangeable form such as anorthite (CaAl2Si2O8).
Q.26
Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it ?
5' .............. GAATTC ................ 3'
3' .............. CTTAAG ................. 5'
(A)
Start codon at the 5' end
(B)
Replication completed
(C)
Deletion mutation
(D)
Palindromic sequence of base pairs
(D)

Solution

The sample of a portion of DNA strand shown in the figure is palindromic sequence of base pairs.
Q.27
There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRl. What does "co" part in it stand for ?
(A)
colon
(B)
coelom
(C)
coenzyme
(D)
coli
(D)

Solution

EcoRI is an endonuclease enzyme isolated from strains of E.coli and a part of restriction modified system. So co part stands for coli.
Q.28
Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in :
(A)
Spectrophotometry
(B)
PCR
(C)
Tissue Culture
(D)
Gel electrophoresis
(D)

Solution

In gel electrophoresis DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. Agarose is a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds and is commonly used as a matrix.
Q.29
Which of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?
(A)
Wheat
(B)
Mango
(C)
Rice
(D)
Groundnut
(C)

Solution

During the period 1960 to 2000 rice production went up from 35 million tonnes to 89.5 million tonnes. This was due to the development of semi-dwarf varieties of rice. There are 2,00,000 varieties of rice in India.
Q.30
Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature ?
(A)
Fungi
(B)
Angiosperms
(C)
Birds
(D)
Insects
(D)

Solution

Insects have highest number of species found in nature. The insecta is the largest class of animals. It has over 7,00,000 species. The insects are the most successful land invertebrates and the only major competitors with humans for dominance in the world.
Q.31
Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular taxonomic category?
(A)
Tiger - Tigris, species
(B)
Cuttlefish - mollusca, class
(C)
Humans - primata, family
(D)
Housefly - Musca, order
(A)

Solution

Binomial nomenclature system of naming organisms using a two-part Latinized (or scientific) name that was devised by the Swedish botanist Linnaeus (Carl Linne); it is also known as the Linnaean system. The first part is the generic name, the second is the specific name. Zoological name of tiger is Panthera tigris. So, tigris is species name of Tiger.
Q.32
In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is
(A)
plasma membrane
(B)
nucleus
(C)
ribosomes
(D)
cell wall.
(A)

Solution

Plasma membrane of eubacteria resembles plasma membrane of eukaryotic cell. But nucleus, ribosomes and cell wall are little different in eukaryotic cell in their structure and organization from eubacterial cell.
Q.33
Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?
(A)
5S rRNA
(B)
snRNA
(C)
hnRNA
(D)
23S rRNA
(D)

Solution

The 23S rRNA is a component of the large prokaryotic (bacterial cell) subunit (50S). The ribosomal peptidyl transferase activity resides in this rRNA and acts as a ribozyme (catalytic RNA). In eukaryotic cells, the 60S (28S component) ribosome subunit contains the peptidyl transferase component and acts as the ribozyme.
Q.34
Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
(A)
Root pressure-guttation
(B)
Puccinia-smut
(C)
Root-exarch protoxylem
(D)
Cassia-imbricate aestivation
(B)

Solution

Rust is a group of parasitic fungi of the Phylum Basidiomycota. Many of these species attack the leaves and stems of cereal crops. Pathogens of rust are Puccinia, Uromyces, Melampsora, Hemileia.
Q.35
Which one of the following organisms is not an eukaryotic cells?
(A)
Paramecium caudatum
(B)
Escherichia coli
(C)
Euglena viridis
(D)
Amoeba proteus
(B)

Solution

Escherichia coli (bacterium) is not an example of eukaryotic cell. It is a typical example of prokaryotic cell.
Q.36
Flowers are zygomorphic in
(A)
mustard
(B)
gulmohur
(C)
tomato
(D)
Datura.
(B)

Solution

When a flower can be divided into two similar halves only in one particular vertical plane, it is zygomorphic, e.g. pea, gulmohar, bean, etc.
Q.37
The correct floral formula of chilli is
(A)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 43 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 43 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 43 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2011 Prelims Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 43 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

Floral formula of chilli is AIPMT 2011 Prelims Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 43 English Explanation
Q.38
What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its root tip cells?
(A)
42
(B)
63
(C)
84
(D)
21
(B)

Solution

Aleurone cells are the outer cell layer of the endosperm, usually only one cell thick in wheat and the only endosperm tissue alive at maturity. The cell layers of this layer are responsible for the de-novo synthesis of enzyme needed during germination. The chromosome number is 63 of a plant with 42 chromosome in its root tip cells.
Q.39
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A)
In tomato, fruit is a capsule.
(B)
Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperm.
(C)
Placentation in primose is basal.
(D)
Flower of tulip is a modified shoot.
(D)

Solution

Tulips are most popular and wildly grown flowers. Tulips are bulbs, possessing modified stems and leaves.
Q.40
The ovary is half inferior in flowers of
(A)
peach
(B)
cucumber
(C)
cotton
(D)
guava.
(A)

Solution

If gynoecium is situated in the centre and other parts of the flower are located on the rim of the thalamus almost at the same level, it is called perigynous. The ovary here is said to be half inferior, e.g., plum, rose, peach.
Q.41
A drupe develops in
(A)
mango
(B)
wheat
(C)
pea
(D)
tomato.
(A)

Solution

Drupe is a fleshy fruit that develops from either one or several fused carpels and contains one or many seeds. The seeds are enclosed by the hard protective endocarp (pericarp) of the fruit, e.g., mango. In mango the pericarp is well differentiated into an outer thin epicarp, a middle fleshy edible mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp.
Q.42
CAM helps the plants in
(A)
conserving water
(B)
secondary growth
(C)
disease resistance
(D)
reproduction.
(A)

Solution

Crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM) is photosynthesis by the C4 pathway in which carbondioxide is taken up during the night, when the plant’s stomata are open and fixed into malic acid. During the day, when the stomata are closed, carbon dioxide is released from malic acid for use in the Calvin cycle. This is important for plants that live in arid conditions as it enables them to keep their stomata closed during the day to reduce water loss from evaporation. Crassulacean acid metabolism is common in succulent plants of desert regions, including cacti and spurges and in certain ferns.
Q.43
Mutations can be induced with :
(A)
Gamma radiation
(B)
Infra Red radiations
(C)
IAA
(D)
Ethylene
(A)

Solution

Mutation can be induced by gamma radiation.
Q.44
Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex ?
(A)
XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines female sex
(B)
XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
(C)
Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in Birds
(D)
Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila
(B)

Solution

In grasshopper the males lack a Y-sex chromosome and have only an X-chromosome. They produce sperm cells that contain either an X chromosome or no sex chromosome, which is designated as O.
Q.45
When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the per romance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both parents. This phenomenon is called :
(A)
Sphcing
(B)
Transformation
(C)
Heterosis
(D)
Metamorphosis
(C)

Solution

The increased vigour displayed by the offspring from a cross between genetically different parents is called heterosis. Hybrids from crosses between different crop varieties (F1 hybrids) are often stronger and produce better yields than the original varieties.
Q.46
What are those structures that appear as 'beads-on-string' in the chromosomes when viewed under electron microscope ?
(A)
Nucleosomes
(B)
Genes
(C)
Nucleotides
(D)
Base pairs
(A)

Solution

The structures that appear as "beads-on-string" in the chromosomes when viewed under an electron microscope are nucleosomes.

Nucleosomes are the basic units of chromatin, which is the material that makes up chromosomes. Each nucleosome consists of a core of eight histone proteins, around which DNA is wrapped. The wrapped DNA and histone proteins together form a structure called a nucleosome, which appears as a "bead" on a string of DNA when viewed under an electron microscope. The string of DNA between the nucleosomes is referred to as linker DNA.

Nucleosomes play an important role in regulating gene expression and other cellular processes. The positioning and spacing of nucleosomes along the DNA can affect how accessible different regions of the DNA are to proteins and enzymes that carry out gene expression and other functions.

So, option A, "Nucleosomes," is the correct answer.
Q.47
"Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of :
(A)
Bajra
(B)
Wheat
(C)
Maize
(D)
Rice
(D)

Solution

Jaya and Ratna are two rice varieties developed for green revolution in India.

• The scientific name of Jaya is IET-723. This paddy variety takes about 130 days to grow and the grain is long, bold and white. Its yield is 50-60 quintals per hectare.

• The scientific name of ‘Ratna’ is IET1411. It takes about 130-135 days to grow. The grain is long, slender and white. Its yield is 45-50 quintal/hectare.
Q.48
A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is called :
(A)
Gene library
(B)
Genome
(C)
Germplasm
(D)
Herbarium
(C)

Solution

The entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called germplasm collection.
Q.49
'Himgiri' developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of :
(A)
Chilli
(B)
Sugarcane
(C)
Wheat
(D)
Maize
(C)

Solution

‘Himgiri’ is a variety of wheat. HS-375 and HS375 are the two common varieties of Himgiri. HS375 is produced on irrigated/rain-fed area. It is medium fertility and late sown hybrid of Himgiri, while HS375 is produced on very high altitude i.e., in the Northern Himalayan and Garhwal region. ‘Himgiri’ is resistance to leaf and stripe rust and hill bunt diseases.
Q.50
The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to :
(A)
Nematodes
(B)
Fungi
(C)
Viruses
(D)
Insects
(A)

Solution

RNA interference has been used to develop plants resistant to nematodes. RNA interference is a double stranded RNA (dsRNA) induced for gene silencing phenomenon.
Q.51
Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of :
(A)
Mice
(B)
Cow
(C)
Pig
(D)
Fish
(A)

Solution

In the world maximum number of existing transgenic animals is mice.
Q.52
What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid ? AIPMT 2011 Prelims Biology - Organisms and Populations Question 69 English
(A)
Declining population
(B)
Vanishing population
(C)
Expanding population
(D)
Stable population
(A)

Solution

This age pyramid represents the declining population of any organism. Population decline is the reduction over time in region’s census. It can be caused for several reasons that includes heavy immigration disease, famine or sub-replacement fertility.
Q.53
Large Woody Vines are more commonly found in
(A)
Mangroves
(B)
Tropical rainforests
(C)
Alpine forests
(D)
Temperate forests
(B)

Solution

Lianas are large climbing woody vines that drape tropical rainforest trees. They have adapted to life in rainforest by having their roots in the ground and climbing high onto the tree canopy to reach available sunlight. Many lianas start life in the rainforest canopy and send roots down to the ground.
Q.54
Consider the following four conditions (a – d) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to environment in desert lizards.
The conditions :
(a) burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
(b) losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature
(c) bask in sun when temperature is low
(d) insulating body due to thick fatty dermis
(A)
(c), (d)
(B)
(b), (d)
(C)
(a), (c)
(D)
(a), (b)
(C)

Solution

Desert lizards lack the physiological ability that mammals have to deal with the high temperatures of their habitat, but manage to keep their body temperature fairly constant by behavioural means. They bask in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops below the comfort zone, but move into shade when the ambient temperature starts increasing. Some species are capable of borrowing into the soil to hide and escape from the above-ground heat.
Q.55
Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense ?
(A)
The female anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans
(B)
Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair
(C)
The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow's nest
(D)
Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother
(B)

Solution

Head louse is an obligate ectoparasite of human scalp and as well as laying egg on human hair.
Q.56
Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy ?
(A)
Thousands of human beings died
(B)
It took place in the night of December 2/3, 1984
(C)
Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal
(D)
Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place
(C)

Solution

The Bhopal gas tragedy occured on the night of December 2-3, 1984 at the Union carbide India Limited pesticide plant in Bhopal, M.P. A leak of methyl isocyanate gas and other chemicals from the plant resulted in the exposure of hundreds of thousands of people.
Q.57
Which one of the following pairs of gases are the major cause of "Green house effect"?
(A)
CFCs and SO2
(B)
CO2 and CO
(C)
CO2 and N2O
(D)
CO2 and O3
(C)

Solution

Nitrous oxide is commonly known as laughing gas or sweet air. It is a chemical compound with formula N2O. It is also a major greenhouse gas and air pollutant along with CO2 with tremendous global warming potential. When compared to CO2 , N2O has 310 times the ability to trap heat in the atmosphere. N2O is produced naturally in the soil during the microbial processes of nitrification and denitrification. Carbon dioxide from coal-fired power stations and car exhausts, is the main greenhouse gas.
Q.58
Eutrophication is often seen in :
(A)
Ocean
(B)
Mountains
(C)
Deserts
(D)
Fresh water lakes
(D)

Solution

Eutrophication is often seen in fresh water lakes. The main causes of eutrophication in these water systems are sediments and thermal stratification, with agricultural runoff from fertilizers and manure, containing nitrates and phosphates and discharge of partially treated or untreated sewages or phosphate containing detergents.
Q.59
Which one of the following is correct expanded forms of the following acronyms ?
(A)
IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change
(B)
EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
(C)
UNEP = United Nations Environmental policy
(D)
IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(D)

Solution

The correct acronym is IUCN, International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources.
Q.60
Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be
(A)
smaller but to have larger sex organs
(B)
larger but to have smaller sex organs
(C)
larger and to have larger sex organs
(D)
smaller and to have smaller sex organs.
(D)

Solution

In bryophytes, the dominant phase of life cycle is gametophytic plant body. In contrast, vascular plants have sporophytic plant body in most of their life cycle and reduced, smaller gametophyte which have smaller sex organs.
Q.61
Archegoniophore is present in
(A)
Marchantia
(B)
Chara
(C)
Adiantum
(D)
Funaria.
(A)

Solution

Archegoniophore is the female sex organ of bryophytes (Marchantia) and pteridophytes. Its neck region is made up of 4-6 vertical rows of cells.
Q.62
The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in
(A)
Polytrichum
(B)
Adiantum
(C)
Marchantia
(D)
Pinus.
(D)

Solution

The male gametes of bryophytes are biflagellate, and those of pteriodophytes are multiflagellate, except Selaginella having biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of gymnosperms are non motile except those of Cycas having multiciliate gametes.
Q.63
A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont is found in
(A)
Alnus
(B)
Cycas
(C)
Cicer
(D)
Pisum
(B)

Solution

Cycas forms facultative symbiotic association with autotrophic nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria. Cycas provides fix carbon and a stable environment to the cyanobacteria in exchange for fixed nitrogen. These cyanobacteria are endosymbionts and live within the roots of Cycas.

In addition to normal roots, Cycas develops specialised symbiotic organs at a young age called pre-coralloid roots which transform into coralloid roots upon successful colonisation by cyanobacteria.
Q.64
Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is
(A)
About 60%
(B)
More than 80%
(C)
Less than 50%
(D)
About 70%
(C)

Solution

Out of total incident solar radiation, about 50% of it forms Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR).
Q.65
Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called :
(A)
Humus
(B)
Detritus
(C)
Standing state
(D)
Standing crop
(D)

Solution

A standing crop is the quantity or total weight or energy content of the organism, which are in a particular location at a particular time.
Q.66
Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?
(A)
It follows primary succession
(B)
It occurs on deforested site
(C)
It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace.
(D)
It begins on a bare rock.
(B)

Solution

Secondary succession refers to the regrowth of a habitat in the area where disruptive event has occurred and eliminated the existing, above ground plant life of the natural habitat. So, it occurs on a deforested site.
Q.67
Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct?
(A)
It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms
(B)
It is upright in shape
(C)
It is inverted in shape
(D)
Its base is broad
(C)

Solution

Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step.
Q.68
A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
(A)
ELISA
(B)
MRI
(C)
Ultra sound
(D)
WIDAL
(A)

Solution

ELISA is an fundamental tool of clinical immunology and is used as an initial screen for HIV detection.
Q.69
Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human body?
(A)
Epithelium of urogenital tract
(B)
Tears
(C)
Monocytes
(D)
Skin
(B)

Solution

Physiological barriers to the entry of microorganisms in the human body are tears in eyes, saliva in mouth and HCl in the stomach.
Q.70
At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
(A)
When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
(B)
When viral DNA is produced by reverse trancriptase
(C)
When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these
(D)
Within 15 day of sexual contact with an infected person
(C)

Solution

When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these cells, at this stage infected persons start showing symptoms of AIDS.
Q.71
Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite ?
(A)
red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
(B)
spleen of infected humans
(C)
Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
(D)
Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
(D)

Solution

Sporozoites of malarial parasite are found in saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito.
Q.72
Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?
(A)
Albumin
(B)
Serum amylase
(C)
Globulin
(D)
Fibrinogen
(D)

Solution

Blood plasma is a faint yellow, slightly alkaline and somewhat viscous fluid. The plasma contains a number of proteins: serum albumin, serum globulins, properdin, prothrombin and fibrinogen. Prothrombin and fibrinogen play a role in blood clotting.
Q.73
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure?
(A)
130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment.
(B)
100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure.
(C)
105/50 mm Hg makes one very active.
(D)
190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney.
(D)

Solution

90/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney. This is called hypertension which can give rise to increased heart rate and palpitation.
Q.74
A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His friend who has valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donar friend?
(A)
Type B
(B)
Type AB
(C)
Type O
(D)
Type A
(C)

Solution

The ABO blood system classifies human blood into four types based on the presence or absence of certain antigens on the surface of red blood cells. These types are A, B, AB, and O. For a safe blood transfusion, it's crucial that the donor's blood type is compatible with the recipient's. Compatibility is determined by antigens on the red blood cells and antibodies in the plasma. Here's how the compatibility works:

  • Type A: Has A antigens on the red blood cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma.

  • Type B: Has B antigens on the red blood cells and anti-A antibodies in the plasma.

  • Type AB: Has both A and B antigens on the red blood cells but does not have anti-A or anti-B antibodies in the plasma. People with AB blood are universal recipients for ABO transfusions because they do not have anti-A or anti-B antibodies.

  • Type O: Has no antigens on the red blood cells but has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. People with O blood are universal donors for ABO transfusions because they have no A or B antigens on their red blood cells.

Given the scenario where the recipient's blood type is unknown, the safest option for blood transfusion would be Type O blood. This is because Type O blood has no A or B antigens on the red blood cells, making it compatible with any recipient regardless of their ABO blood type. Thus, regardless of the recipient's unknown ABO blood group, a friend with Type O blood could donate without causing a harmful reaction due to ABO incompatibility.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Option C: Type O

Q.75
Arteries are best defined as the vessels which
(A)
supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
(B)
carry blood away from the heart to different organs
(C)
break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
(D)
carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ.
(B)

Solution

Arteries are the vessels which break up into capillaries which reunite to form one visceral organ.
Q.76
'Bundle of his' is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?
(A)
Brain
(B)
Heart
(C)
Kidney
(D)
Pancreas
(B)

Solution

‘Bundle of His’ are a typical cardiac muscle fibres, connecting the atria with ventricle.
Q.77
Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive skeletel category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair.
(A)
Pair of skeletal parts Category
Sternum and ribs - Axial skeleton
(B)
Pair of skeletal parts Category
Clavicle and glenoid - Pelvic girdle
(C)
Pair of skeletal parts Category
Humerus and ulna - Appendicular skeleton
(D)
Pair of skeletal parts Category
Malleus and stapes - Ear ossicles
(B)

Solution

Glenoid cavity is found in pectoral girdle.
Q.78
The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the human eye, is a derivative of
(A)
vitamin B1
(B)
vitamin C
(C)
vitamin D
(D)
vitamin A.
(D)

Solution

Vitamin A (retinol) is a fat-soluble vitamin that cannot be synthesized by mammals and other vertebrates and must be provided in the diet. It is a constituent of the visual pigment rhodopsin. Deficiency affects the eyes, causing night blindness.
Q.79
When a neuron is in resting state i.e., not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is
(A)
comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
(B)
equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
(C)
impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
(D)
comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions.
(D)

Solution

When a neuron is in resting state i.e., not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is comparatively more permeable to K+ ion and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions.
Q.80
Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy ?
(A)
Twelve weeks
(B)
Eighteen weeks
(C)
Six weeks
(D)
Eight weeks
(A)

Solution

Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) or abortion is the termination of pregnancy before the foetus becomes viable. MTP is comparatively safe upto 12 weeks (the first trimester) of pregnancy. It becomes more risky after the first trimester period of pregnancy as the foetus becomes intimately associated with the maternal tissues.
Q.81
Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, as at present ?
(A)
IUDs (Intra uterine devices)
(B)
Tubectomy
(C)
Cervical caps
(D)
Diaphragms
(A)

Solution

Intra uterine device (IUD) is a method of contraception in India. The IUD is inserted in the woman’s uterus through the cervix.
Q.82
The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in :
(A)
Eustachian tube and stomach lining
(B)
Bile duct and oesophagus
(C)
Fallopian tubes and urethra
(D)
Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
(D)

Solution

The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are present in the nasal passages, oviducts (Fallopian tubes) terminal bronchioles, ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord of the embryo. Columnar ciliated epithelium consists of columnar cells, which bear cilia on the free surface.
Q.83
Which of the following is correctly stated as it happens in the common cockroach ?
(A)
Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
(B)
The food is ground by mandibles and gizzard
(C)
Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
(D)
Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon
(B)

Solution

Mouth part of cockroach contain two mandibles, which bears teeth. When both the mandibles work simultaneously in a horizontal plane, the food matter is cut and masticated into fine and smaller pieces. Gizzard is a part of alimentary canal. It bears six muscular folds which are covered by chitinous conical plates, the teeth, used for grinding the food.
Q.84
One very special feature in the earthworm pheretima is that :
(A)
The S-shaped state embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used against the enemies
(B)
It has a long dorsal tubular heart
(C)
The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in the intestine
(D)
Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body
(C)

Solution

The intestine of an earthworm has a peculiar fold of tissue that forms a pocket in the intestine that is visible when viewing a cross section. This space, which runs almost the whole length of the body dorsally is known as the typhlosole and it serves to increase the surface area of the intestine for absorption.
Q.85
Which one of the following enzymes carries out the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans?
(A)
Trypsin
(B)
Pepsin
(C)
Rennin
(D)
Lipase
(C)

Solution

Rennin is an enzyme that is essential for the protein digestion. It is active in acidic medium and inactive in normal gastric juice of adult.
Q.86
Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of
(A)
epiglottis
(B)
diaphragm
(C)
neck
(D)
tounge.
(A)

Solution

This coughing would have been due to improper movement of epiglottis. Epiglottis is present in the laryngopharynx, which is the lowest part of pharynx. Laryngopharynx possess two apertures - anterior slit-like glottis and posterior gullet. Glottis leads into trachea or wind pipe, which is closed by bilobed leaf-like cartilage, the epiglottis, during the swallowing of food-bolus. Hence, during eating one may suddenly coughs due to opening of epiglottis and movement of some food particles in the trachea.
Q.87
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation?
(A)
When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed.
(B)
Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release.
(C)
An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of angiotensin II.
(D)
During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed.
(A)

Solution

When some one drinks lots of water, kidney release of ADH is suppressed.
Q.88
Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?
(A)
Peritubular capillaries
(B)
Convoluted tubules
(C)
Collecting ducts
(D)
Loop of Henle
(B)

Solution

The medulla of kidney is divided into a number of conical areas, the medulla pyramids or renal pyramids. Peritubular capillaries, loop of Henle and collecting ducts lie in the medulla (renal pyramids) while convoluted tubules lie in the cortex of kidney.
Q.89
Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of the human nephron?
(A)
Podocytes : create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman's capsule
(B)
Henle's loop : most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
(C)
Distal convoluted tubule : reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
(D)
Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein.
(A)

Solution

The visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule surrounds the glomerulus and is composed of special type of cells, the podocytes. The podocytes are so called because they possess foot like processes (projection), the pedicels. The space between pedicels are called slit pores (= filtration slits) through which the glomerular filtrate filters.
Q.90
Given below is an incomplete table on hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each human body. Identify the option representing correct grouping of hormone its gland and effect.

Gland Secretion Effect on body
A Estrogen Maintenance of
secondary sexual
characters
Alpha cells of Islets
of Langerhans
B Raises blood sugar
level
Anterior pituitary C Over secretion leads
to gigantism
(A)
A B C
Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone
(B)
A B C
Placenta Insulin Vasopressin
(C)
A B C
Ovary Insulin Calcitonin
(D)
A B C
Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin
(A)

Solution

The correct option for the three blanks A, B and C are ovary, glucagon and growth hormone respectively.
Q.91
Match the source gland with its respective hormone and function and select the correct option.
(A)
Source gland Hormone Function
Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Contraction of uterus
muscles during child
birth
(B)
Source gland Hormone Function
Posterior pituitary Vasopressin Stimulates reabsorption
of water in the distal tub-
ules in the nephron
(C)
Source gland Hormone Function
Corpus luteum Estrogen Supports pregnancy
(D)
Source gland Hormone Function
Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood
calcium level
(B)

Solution

Posterior lobe of pituitary stores and releases two hormones, called oxytocin and vasopressin. These hormones are actually produced by the neurosecretary cells in the hypothalamus and stand in the terminals of their axons that pass into the posterior lobe through a stalk. They are released via posterior lobe when required. Vasopressin is also called antidiuretic hormone (ADH). It decreases the loss of water in the urine by increasing reabsorption of water in the distal convoluted tubules, collecting tubules and collecting ducts in the kidneys.
Q.92
The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system of humans. Which one set of three parts out of I-VI have been correctly identified? AIPMT 2011 Prelims Biology - Human Reproduction Question 81 English
(A)
(I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube
(B)
(II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriage
(C)
(III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix
(D)
(IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus (VI) Cervix
(C)

Solution

The oviducts (Fallopian tubes), uterus and vagina constitute the female accessory ducts. Each Fallopian tube is about 10-12 cm long and extends from the periphery of each ovary to the uterus, the part closer to the ovary is the funnel-shaped infundibulum. The edges of the infundibulum possess finger-like projections called fimbriae, which help in collection of the ovum after ovulation. The uterus is single and it is also called womb, open into vagina through a narrow cervix. So, III is infundibulum, IV is fimbriae and V is cervix.
Q.93
The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for :
(A)
providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
(B)
maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
(C)
escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
(D)
providing more space for the growth of epididymis
(B)

Solution

The testes are present in the scrotum which maintains the scrotal temperature below 2°C of the internal body temperature.
Q.94
If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from :
(A)
Vagina to uterus
(B)
Testes to epididymis
(C)
Epididymis to vas deferens
(D)
Ovary to uterus
(B)

Solution

The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens. The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vasa efferentia through rete testis. The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into epididymis located along the posterior surface of each testis. So if vasa efferentia gets blocked, the gametes will not be transported from testes to epididymis.
Q.95
In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylun are correctly matched?
(A)
Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum
Ascaris (i)  Body segmented
(ii)  Males and feamales distinct
Annelida
(B)
Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum
Salamandra (i) A tympanum represents ear
(ii) Fertilization is external
Amphibia
(C)
Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum
Pteropus (i) Skin possessess
(ii) Oviparous
Mammalia
(D)
Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum
Aurelia (i) Cnidoblasts
(ii) Organ level of organization
Coelenterata
(B)

Solution

Salamandra (salamander) is a member of class amphibia. A tympanum represents the ear. Fertilization is external. Pteropus is viviparous, Aurelia shows tissue level of organization and in ascaris, the body is unsegmented.
Q.96
Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its characteristic feature without any exception?
(A)
Reptilia : posses 3-chambeared heart with an incomplrtrly divided ventricle
(B)
Chordata : possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw
(C)
Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
(D)
Mammalia : give birth to young ones
(C)

Solution

The group of animals that is correctly matched with its characteristic feature without any exception is:

Option C: Chondrichthyes - possess cartilaginous endoskeleton.

Chondrichthyes are a class of fish that includes sharks, rays, and chimeras. They are characterized by their cartilaginous endoskeleton, which is made up of a tough, flexible tissue similar to the cartilage found in human ears and noses. Unlike other fish, they do not have bones in their skeletons.

Option A: Reptilia is incorrect because not all reptiles possess a 3-chambered heart with an incompletely divided ventricle. Some reptiles, such as crocodiles and alligators, have a 4-chambered heart that is similar to that of birds and mammals.

Option B: Chordata is incorrect because not all chordates possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw. Jawless fish, such as lampreys and hagfish, are also members of the chordate phylum.

Option D: Mammalia is incorrect because not all mammals give birth to live young. The platypus and echidna, both of which are mammals, lay eggs instead of giving birth to live young.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: Chondrichthyes - possess cartilaginous endoskeleton.
Q.97
What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?
(A)
Female Ascaris-sharply curved posterior end
(B)
Male frog- a copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
(C)
Female cockroach-anal cerci
(D)
Male shark-claspers brone on pelvic fins
(D)

Solution

A male shark possesses a pair of claspers which are inserted into a female shark’s cloaca (an opening on the underside of the body) at the time of mating. Claspers are located on the inner edge of the pelvic fins near the male’s cloaca. The function of claspers is to introduce sperm into a female shark’s body for the purpose of fertilizing her eggs. Female sharks do not have claspers.
Q.98
The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place. Select the option which represents labelled part (A, B, C or D) correctly identified along with its function. AIPMT 2011 Prelims Biology - Breathing and Exchange of Gases Question 27 English
(A)
D : capillary wall - exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here
(B)
B : red blood cells - transport of CO2 mainly.
(C)
A : alveolar cavity - main site of exchange of respiratory gases
(D)
C : arterial capillary - passes oxygen to tissues
(C)

Solution

In the given figure the exchange of respiratory gases occurs in alveolar cavity.
Q.99
A large proportion of oxygen remains unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2
(A)
acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
(B)
raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
(C)
is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
(D)
helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues.
(A)

Solution

A large portion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2 acts as a reserve during muscular exercise.
Q.100
What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors ?
(A)
Uprigth posture
(B)
Shortening of jaws
(C)
Binocular vision
(D)
Increasing cranial capacity
(D)

Solution

The most significant trend in evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors is development of brain capacity.