NEET-UG 2012

AIPMT 2012 Prelims

Physics (Maximum Marks: 200)
  • This section contains 50 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the velocity. The units of the constant of proportionality are
(A)
kg m s1
(B)
kg m s2
(C)
kg s1
(D)
kg s
(C)

Solution

According to the question,

Damping force, F v

F = kv
where k is constant of proportionality.

k = = = =
Q.2
The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by equation x = 8 + 12t t3 where x is in metre and t in second. The retardation of the particle when its velocity becomes zero is
(A)
24 m s2
(B)
zero
(C)
6 m s2
(D)
12 m s2
(D)

Solution

Given x = 8 + 12t t3

Velocity, v = = 12 - 3t2

When v = 0, then 12 - 3t2 = 0

t = 2 s

= - 6t

At t = 2 s, = - 12 m/s2

Retardation = 12 m/s2
Q.3
A particle has initial velocity and acceleration . The magnitude of velocity after 10 seconds will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
5 units
(D)
9 units
(B)

Solution

= vector sum =

= Vector differences =

Since and are perpendicular



Q.4
The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of the projectile is
(A)
= tan1
(B)
= tan1(4)
(C)
= tan1(2)
(D)
= 45o
(B)

Solution

Horizontal range

     ......(1)

Maximum height

       .....(2)

According to the problem R = H

=









Q.5
A solid cylinder of mass 3 kg is rolling on a horizontal surface with velocity 4 m s1. It collides with a horizontal spring of force constant 200 N m1. The maximum compression produced in the spring will be
(A)
0.5 m
(B)
0.6 m
(C)
0.7 m
(D)
0.2 m
(B)

Solution

At maximum compression the solid cylinder will stop so loss in K.E. of cylinder = gain in P.E. of spring









Q.6
The potential energy of a particle in a force field is where A and B are positive constants and r is the distance of particle from the centre of the field. For stable equilibrium, the distance of the particle is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

Here,

For equilibrium,





For stable equilibrium,





So for stable equilibrium, the distance of the particle is .
Q.7
Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat. The length of the boat is 3.0 m and weights 100 kg. The 55 kg man walks up to the 65 kg man and sits with him. If the boat is in still water the centre of mass of the system shifts by :
(A)
3.0 m
(B)
2.3 m
(C)
zero
(D)
0.75 m
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Center of Mass and Collision Question 23 English Explanation
As no external force acts on the system, therefore centre of mass will not shift.
Q.8
Two spheres A and B of masses m1 and m2 respectively collide. A is at rest initially and B is moving with velocity v along x-axis. After collision B has a velocity in a direction perpendicular to the original direction. The mass A moves after collision in the direction :
(A)
same as that of B
(B)
opposite to that of B
(C)
= tan1 to the x-axis
(D)
= tan1 to the x-axis
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Center of Mass and Collision Question 30 English Explanation
conservation of linear momentum along x-direction



along y-direction



Note: Let A moves in the direction, which makes an angle q with initial direction i.e.





to the x-axis.
Q.9
A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle is 45o, the speed of the car is
(A)
20 m s1
(B)
30 m s1
(C)
5 m s1
(D)
10 m s1
(B)

Solution

Here, m = 1000 kg, R = 90 m, = 45°

For banking,

Q.10
When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along
(A)
a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation
(B)
the line making an angle of 45o to the plane of rotation
(C)
the radius
(D)
the tangent to the orbit
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Rotational Motion Question 70 English Explanation
When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point its angular momentum is directed along a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation.
Q.11
ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre. and represent three forces acting along the sides AB, BC and AC respectively. If the total torque about O is zero then magnitude of is

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Rotational Motion Question 68 English
(A)
F1 + F2
(B)
F1 F2
(C)
(D)
2(F1 + F2)
(A)

Solution

Let x be the distance of centre O of equilateral triangle from each side. Total torque about O = 0

F1x + F2x – F3x = 0

or F3 = F1 + F2
Q.12
A spherical planet has a mass MP and diameter DP. A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface of this planet will experience an acceleration due to gravity, equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

Gravitational attraction force on particle B,



Acceleration of particle due to gravity

Q.13
The height at which the weight of a body becomes , its weight on the surface of earth (radius R), is
(A)
5R
(B)
15R
(C)
3R
(D)
4R
(C)

Solution

Let at h height, the weight of a body becomes 1/16th of its weight on the surface.

   ...(i)

   ...(ii)





Similarly,









h = 3R
Q.14
A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 5R above the surface of the earth, R being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a height of 2R from the surface of the earth is
(A)
5
(B)
10
(C)
6
(D)
(C)

Solution

According to Kelpner’s law of period T2 R3







Q.15
Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of temperature with time ?
(A)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Properties of Matter Question 52 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Properties of Matter Question 52 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Properties of Matter Question 52 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Properties of Matter Question 52 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

Temperature of liquid oxygen will first increase in the same phase. Then, the liquid oxygen will change to gaseous phase during which temperature will remain constant, After that temperature of oxygen in gaseous state will increase. Hence option (a) represents corresponding temperature-time graph.
Q.16
If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black body, what would be the temperature of the star, in which the rate of energy production is Q?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

Stefan’s law for black body radiation



Q.17
A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas during the cycle is

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Heat and Thermodynamics Question 39 English
(A)
2PV
(B)
4PV
(C)
PV
(D)
PV
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Heat and Thermodynamics Question 39 English Explanation
In a cyclic process,



In a cyclic process work done is equal to the area under the cycle and is positive if the cycle is clockwise and negative if anticlockwise.

W = – Area of rectangle ABCD = – P(2V) = – 2PV

According to first law of thermodynamics


    (As )

i.e., heat supplied to the system is equal to the work done

So heat absorbed, Q = W = – 2PV

Heat rejected by the gas = 2PV
Q.18
One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state A to final state B via two processes : It first undergoes isothermal expansion from volume V to 3V and then its volume is reduced from 3V to V at constant pressure. The correct P-V diagram representing the two process is
(A)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Heat and Thermodynamics Question 63 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Heat and Thermodynamics Question 63 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Heat and Thermodynamics Question 63 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Heat and Thermodynamics Question 63 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Heat and Thermodynamics Question 63 English Explanation From the above P-V diagrams, (d) is correct, as from the question, the initial gas goes from volume V to 3V and then volume of the gas get reduced from 3V to V at constant pressure. In case of an isothermal expansion, P-V curve is rectangular hyperbola which is stated by (d).
Q.19
When a string is divided into three segments of length 1, 2 and 3 the fundamental frequencies of these three segments are and respectively. The original fundamental frequency () of the string is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Let be the length of the string. Fundamental frequency is given by



  ( T and are constants)

Here, and

But

Q.20
Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by
y1 = 4sin600t and y2 = 5sin608t
An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear
(A)
4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and waning.
(B)
8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and waning.
(C)
8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and warning.
(D)
4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and waning.
(D)

Solution



   ...(i)



   ...(ii)





where A1, A2 are amplitudes of given two sound wave.
Q.21
Four point charges Q, q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The relation between Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is
(A)
Q = q
(B)
Q =
(C)
Q = q
(D)
Q =
(A)

Solution

Let the side length of square be 'a' then potential at centre O is

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Electrostatics Question 62 English Explanation



= – Q – q + 2q + 2Q = 0 = Q + q = 0

Q = – q
Q.22
What is the flux through a cube of side if a point charge of q is at one of its corner?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Electrostatics Question 61 English Explanation
Eight identical cubes are required so that the given charge q appears at the centre of the bigger cube.
Thus, the electric flux passing through the given cube is

Q.23
An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle with the direction of the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole to be zero when = 90o, the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will respectively be
(A)
pEsin,  pEcos
(B)
pEsin,  2pEcos
(C)
pEsin, 2pEcos
(D)
pEcos,  pEsin
(A)

Solution

Torque, = pEsin

Potential energy, U = –pEcos
Q.24
In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances. For VA = 12 V, R1 = 500 and R = 100 the galvanometer (G) shows no deflection. The value of Vs is

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Current Electricity Question 95 English
(A)
4 V
(B)
2 V
(C)
12 V
(D)
6 V
(B)

Solution

Since the galvanometer shows no deflection so current will flow as shown in the figure.

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Current Electricity Question 95 English Explanation
Current,



Q.25
If voltage across a bulb rated 220 volt-100 watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated value by which the power would decrease is
(A)
20%
(B)
2.5%
(C)
5%
(D)
10%
(C)

Solution

Resistance of bulb is constant



Q.26
A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12 . Find the points A and B, as shown in the figure, at which a current carrying conductor should be connected so that the resistance R of the sub circuit between these point is equal to .
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Current Electricity Question 94 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

Let x is the resistance per unit length then

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Current Electricity Question 94 English Explanation
equivalent resistance



   ...(i)

also


   ...(ii)

Now






  (where y = )

8y2 + 8 + 16y = 36y

8y2 – 20y + 8 = 0

2y2 – 5y + 2 = 0

2y2 – 4y – y + 2 = 0

2y (y – 2) – 1(y – 2) = 0

(2y – 1) (y – 2) = 0

or 2
Q.27
An alternating electric field, of frequency , is applied across the does (radius = R) of a cyclotron that is being used to accelerate protons (mass = m). The operating magnetic field (B) used in the cyclotron and the kinetic energy (K) of the proton beam, produced by it, are given by
(A)
  and  
(B)
  
(C)
  
(D)
  
(C)

Solution

Time period of cyclotron is





Q.28
Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The currents flowing in them are and 2, respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction at the centre will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 66 English Explanation
Magnetic field induction due to vertical loop at the centre O is



It acts in horizontal direction.

Magnetic field induction due to horizontal loop at the centre O is



It acts in vertically upward direction.

As B1 and B2 are perpendicular to each other, therefore the resultant magnetic field induction at the centre O is





Q.29
A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampare range. The value (in ohm) of neccessary shunt will be
(A)
0.001
(B)
0.01
(C)
1
(D)
0.05
(A)

Solution



Neglecting Ig

Q.30
A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It
(A)
will become rigif showing no movement
(B)
will stay in any position
(C)
will stay in north-south direction only
(D)
will stay in east-west direction only
(B)

Solution

A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It will stay in any position as the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field becomes zero at the geomagnetic pole.
Q.31
A coil of resistance 400 is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux (Wb) linked with the coil varies with time t (sec) as .

The current in the coil at t = 2 sec is
(A)
0.5 A
(B)
0.1 A
(C)
2 A
(D)
1 A
(A)

Solution

According, to Faraday’s law of induction

Induced e.m.f, = -(100t)

Induced current i at t = 2 sec.

= = +0.5 A
Q.32
The current in the inductance is varying with time according to the plot shown in figure.

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Alternating Current Question 54 English
Which one of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the coil ?
(A)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Alternating Current Question 54 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Alternating Current Question 54 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Alternating Current Question 54 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Alternating Current Question 54 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

V = -L

V slope of I-T graph
Q.33
In an electrical circuit R, L, C and a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is If instead, C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again. The power factor of the circuit is
(A)
(B)
(C)
1
(D)
(C)

Solution

When L is removed, the phase difference between the voltage and current is

tan1 =



XC =

When C is removed, the phase difference between the voltage and current is

tan2 =



XL =

As XL = XC, the series LCR circuit is in resonance.

Net impedence, Z = = R

Power factor, cos =
Q.34
The electric field associated with an em wave in vacuum is given by
E = 40 cos (kz 6 108 t) where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and seconds respectively. The value of wave vector k is
(A)
2 m1
(B)
0.5 m1
(C)
6 m1
(D)
3 m1
(A)

Solution

Compare the given equation with

E = E0cos(kz - )

we get, = 6 108 s-1

Wave vector, k = = = 2 m-1
Q.35
A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence i, on one face of a prism of angle A (assumed to be small ) and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the prism is . the angle of incidence i, is nearly equal to
(A)
A
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

For normally emerge e = 0

Therefore r2 = 0 and r1 = A

Snell’s Law for Incident ray’s

1sin i = sin r1 = sin A

For small angle

i = A
Q.36
When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index
(A)
equal to that of glass
(B)
less than one
(C)
greater than that of glass
(D)
less than that of glass
(A)

Solution

According to lens maker's formula



As the biconvex lens dipped in a liquid acts as a plane sheet of glass, therefore

f =



Q.37
A concave mirror of focal length 1 is placed at a distance of d from a convex lens of focal length 2. A beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens concave mirror combination returns to infinity. The distance d must equal
(A)
(B)
(C)
2
(D)
2
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 64 English Explanation

d = 2f1 + f2
Q.38
The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are
(A)
10 cm, 10 cm
(B)
15 cm, 5 cm
(C)
18 cm, 2 cm
(D)
11 cm, 9 cm
(C)

Solution

Magnifying power, m = = 9 ..........(1)

where fo and fe are the focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece respectively

Also,fo + fe = 20 cm ...(2)

On solving (1) and (2), we get

fo = 18 cm, fe = 2 cm
Q.39
A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A1 and A2 with half lives of 20 s and 10 s respectively. Initially the mixture has 40 g of A1 and 160 g of A2. The amount of the two in the mixture will become equal after
(A)
60 s
(B)
80 s
(C)
20 s
(D)
40 s
(D)

Solution

Let, the amount of the two in the mixture will become equal after t years.

The amount of A1, which remains after t years

N1 =

The amount of A2, which remains, after t years

N2 =

According to the question

N1 = N2



=



t = 40 s
Q.40
An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that the atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

We know,



where R = Rydberg constant, Z = atomic number

Here, n1 = 1, n2 = 5

=

According to conservation of linear momentum, we get

Momentum of photon = Momentum of atom

= mv

v = = =
Q.41
If the nuclear radius of 27Al is 3.6 fermi, the approximate nuclear radius of 64Cu in fermi is
(A)
2.4
(B)
1.2
(C)
4.8
(D)
3.6
(C)

Solution

Nuclear radius, R = R0A1/3

where R0 is a constant and A is the mass number

=

RCu = = = 4.8 fermi
Q.42
Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from second excited to the first excited state. The ratio of the wavelengths 1 : 2 emitted in the two cases is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

In first case,

n1 = 3 and n2 = 4

=

In second case,

n1 = 2 and n2 = 3

=

= =
Q.43
An -particle moves in a circular path of radius 0.83 cm in the presence of a magnetic field of 0.25 Wb/m2. The de Broglie wavelength associated with the particle will be
(A)
1
(B)
0.1
(C)
10
(D)
0.01
(D)

Solution

Wavelength =

=

For circular motion = Fc = qvB

= qvB

mv = rBq

mv = (0.83 × 10–2)(0.25)(2 × 1.6 × 10–19)

de Broglie wavelength,

=

=

= 0.01
Q.44
Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground state irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential is measured to be 3.57 V. The threshold frequency of the material is
(A)
4 1015 Hz
(B)
5 1015 Hz
(C)
1.6 1015 Hz
(D)
2.5 1015 Hz
(C)

Solution

Energy released from first exited state to the ground state :

E = (– 3.4) – (– 13.6) = 10.2 eV

Work function = E – 3.75 eV = (10.2 – 3.75) eV

= 6.63 eV

h = 6.63

= = 1.6 1015 Hz
Q.45
A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 m. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow light it emits per second is
(A)
1.5 1020
(B)
6 1018
(C)
62 1020
(D)
3 1019
(A)

Solution

Efficient power, P =

= = 1.5 1020
Q.46
Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 97 English
(A)
0.75 A
(B)
zero
(C)
0.25 A
(D)
0.5 A
(D)

Solution

Here D1 is in forward bias and D2 is in reverse bias so, D1 will conduct and D2 will not conduct.
So, the current supplied by the battery is

I = = 0.5 A
Q.47
In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2 k is 2 V. If the base resistance is 1 k and the current amplification of the transistor is 100, the input signal voltage is
(A)
0.1 V
(B)
1.0 V
(C)
1 mV
(D)
10 mV
(D)

Solution

Here, RC = 2 k = 2 × 103

V0 = 2 V, RB = 1 k = 1 × 103 , = 100

The output voltage, across the load RC

V0 = ICRC = 2

The collector current (IC)

IC = = 10-3 A = 1 mA

Current gain() = = 100

IB = = = 10-5 A

Input voltage, Vi

= IBRB = (10–5 A) (1 × 103 ) = 10–2 V = 10 mV
Q.48
Transfer characteristics [output voltage (V0) vs input voltage (Vi)] for a base biased transistor in CE configuration is as shown in the figure. For using transistor as a switch, it is used

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 94 English
(A)
in region III
(B)
both in region (I) and (III)
(C)
in region II
(D)
in region I
(B)

Solution

In the given graph,

Region (I) – Cutoff region

Region (II) – Active region

Region (III) – Saturation region

Using transistor as a switch it is used in cutoff region or saturation region.

Using transistor as a amplifier it is used in active region.
Q.49
The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage wave forms across A, B and C are as given. The logic circuit gate is
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 93 English
(A)
OR gate
(B)
NOR gate
(C)
AND gate
(D)
NAND gate
(A)

Solution

The truth table is AIPMT 2012 Prelims Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 93 English Explanation
The logic circuit is OR gate.
Q.50
C and Si both have same lattice structure; having 4 bonding electrons in each. However, C is insulator where as Si is intrinsic semiconductor. This is because
(A)
In case of C the valence band is not completely filled at absolute zero temperature.
(B)
In case of C the conduction band is partly filled even at absolute zero temperature.
(C)
The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the second orbit, whereas in the case of Si they lie in the third.
(D)
The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the third orbit , whereas for Si they lie in the fourth orbit.
(C)

Solution

Electronic configuration of 6C

6C = 1s2, 2s2 2p2

The electronic configuration of 14Si

14Si = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2

As they are away from Nucleus, so effect of nucleus is low for Si even for Sn and Pb are almost mettalic.
Chemistry (Maximum Marks: 200)
  • This section contains 50 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is
(A)
5, 1, 1, + 1/2
(B)
6, 0, 0, +1/2
(C)
5, 0, 0, +1/2
(D)
5, 1, 0, +1/2
(C)

Solution

Rb(37) = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s1

For 5s, n= 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2 or -1/2
Q.2
Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with = 3 and n = 4 is
(A)
14
(B)
16
(C)
10
(D)
12
(A)

Solution

l = 3 and n = 4 represent 4f, So total number of electrons = 2(2+1) = 14
Q.3
When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of chlorine changes from
(A)
zero to +1 and zero to 5
(B)
zero to 1 and zero to +5
(C)
zero to 1 and zero to +3
(D)
zero to +1 and zero to 3
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Redox Reactions Question 18 English Explanation

This is an example of disproportionation reaction and oxidation state of chlorine changes from 0 to –1 and +5.
Q.4
A mixture of potassium chlorate, oxalic acid and sulphuric acid is heated. During the reaction which element undergoes maximum change in the oxidation number?
(A)
S
(B)
H
(C)
Cl
(D)
C
(C)

Solution

KClO3 + C2H2O4 + H2SO4 K2SO4 + CO2 + KCl + H2O

Maximum change in oxidation number of chlorine, i.e., from +5 to –1.
Q.5
50 mL of each gas A and of gas B takes 150 and 200 seconds respectively for effusing through a pin hole under the similar conditions. If molecular mass of gas B is 36, the molecular mass of gass A will be
(A)
96
(B)
128.74
(C)
20.25
(D)
64.42
(C)

Solution

According to Graham's law of diffusion,







, TB = 200 sec, MB = 36, MA = ?





MA =
Q.6
Equimolar solutions of the following substances were prepared separately. Which one of these will record the highest pH value ?
(A)
BaCl2
(B)
AlCl3
(C)
LiCl
(D)
BeCl2
(A)

Solution

All of the given salts have same anion i.e., Cl which on hydrolysis gives HCl which is a strong acid.

Now, among the salts which have cation that gives a strongest base on hydrolysis of salt have the highest pH value. As Ba form Ba(OH)2 which is a stronger base thus, it results in the highest pH value.
Q.7
Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because
(A)
these give unionised acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali
(B)
acids and alkalies in these solutions are shielded from attack by other ions
(C)
they have large excess of H+ or OH ions
(D)
they have fixed value of pH
(A)

Solution

For this example,

CH3COOH ⇌ CH3COO + H+ ;

CH3COONa ⇌ CH3COO + Na+

when few drops of HCl are added to this buffer, the H+ of HCl immediatly combine with CH3COO ions to form undissociated acetic acid molecules. Thus there will be no H+ ions to combine with CH3COO ions to form undissociated acetic acid molecules. Thus there will be no appreciable change in its pH value. Like wise if few drops of NaOH are added, the OH ions will combine with H+ ions to form unionised water molecule. Thus pH of solution will remain constant.
Q.8
pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12. The value of solubility product (Ksp) of Ba(OH)2 is
(A)
3.3 107
(B)
5.0 107
(C)
4.0 106
(D)
5.0 106
(B)

Solution

Ba(OH)2 Ba2+ + 2OH
At equilibrium x 2x


pH = – log[H+]

12 = – log [H+]

[H+] = 10–12

As, [H+][OH ] = 10–14

10–12 [OH ] = 10–14

[OH ] = 10–2

As [OH ] = 2x = 10–2 then x = 5.0 × 10–3

Now, Ksp = [Ba2+][OH ]2

Ksp = (5 × 10–3) (10–2)2 = 5.0 × 10–7
Q.9
pA and pB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an ideal binary solution. If xA represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

p = pAxA + pBxB

= pAxA + pB(1 – xA)

(As for binary solution xA + xB = 1)

= pAxA + pB – pBxA

= pB + xA(pA – pB)
Q.10
Standard enthalpy of vaporisation vapHo for water at 100oC is 40.66 kJ mol1. The internal energy of vaporisation of water at 100oC (in kJ mol1) is
(A)
+37.56
(B)
43.76
(C)
+ 43.76
(D)
+ 40.66
(A)

Solution

H2O(l) H2O(g)

∆Ho = 40.66kJ mol–1

∆Ho = ∆uo + ng RT

ng = 1, R = 8.314 × 10–3 kJ mol–1 k–1

T = 100 + 273 = 373 K

40.66 = ∆uo + (1) (8.314 × 10–3) × 373

∆uo = 37.56 kJ mol–1
Q.11
The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435 kcal/mol. The molar entropy change for the melting of ice at 0oC is
(A)
10.52 cal/(mol K)
(B)
21.04 cal/(mol K)
(C)
5.260 cal/(mol K)
(D)
0.526 cal/(mol K)
(C)

Solution

H2O() → H2O(s)

∆H = 1.435 Kcal/mol

T = 0 + 273K = 273K



= 5.26 10-3 kcal/mol K

= 5.260 cal/mol K
Q.12
In which of the following reactions, standard reaction entropy change (So) is positive and standard Gibb's energy change (Go) decreases sharply with increasing temperature ?
(A)
C(graphite) + O2(g)  CO(g)
(B)
CO(g) + O2(g)  CO2(g)
(C)
Mg(s) + O2(g)  MgO(g)
(D)
C(graphite) + O2(g)  CO2(g)
(A)

Solution

So positive means entropy of products is more than that of reactants. Among the given reactions only in option (a) the So is positive cause products has 1 mole of gaseous products CO while reaction have half mole of gaseous O2 and Carbon (C) in solid state. Thus, reactions have less randomness than products. Also, the reaction is a combustion reaction which has a negative value of H. According to Gibbs energy change (So).

Go = Ho - TSo

Go = -ve - T(+ve)

Thus, on increasing temperature value of Go decreases sharply.
Q.13
Limiting molar conductivity of NH4OH
i.e.  is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

According to Kohlrausch’s law, the molar conductivity of NH4OH

=
Q.14
In a zero-order reaction, for every 10oC rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is increased from 10oC to 100oC, the rate of the reaction will become
(A)
256 times
(B)
512 times
(C)
64 times
(D)
128 times
(B)

Solution

For energy 10° rise in temperature the rate of reaction doubles. So, rate = 2n
when, n = 1 rate = 21 = 2

when, temperature is increased from 10°C to 100°C change in temperature = 100 – 10 = 90°C

i.e., n = 9

So, rate = 29 = 512 times
Q.15
In a reaction, A + B product, rate is doubled when the concentration of B is doubled, and rate increases by a factor of 8 when the concentration of both the reactants (A and B) are doubled, rate law for the reaction can be written as
(A)
rate = k[A][B]2
(B)
rate = k[A]2[B]2
(C)
rate = k[A][B]
(D)
rate = k[A]2[B]
(D)

Solution

Rate of reaction for A + B Product

Rate = k[A]x[B]y …(1)

where, x and y are order w.r.t. A and B respectively. When the concentration of only B is doubled, the rate is doubled, so

R’ = k [A]x [2B]y = 2R …(2)

If concentration of both the reactants A and B are doubled then the rate increases by a factor of 8 so

R’’ = k[2A]x[2B]y = 8R ...(3)

= k2x 2y [A]x [B]y = 8R …(4)

From equation (1) and (2), we get



2 = 2y

y = 1

From equation (1) and (4), we get



8 =

Substituting the value of y gives

= 8

= 4

x = 2

By replacing the values of x and y in

rate law; rate = k[A]2[B]
Q.16
A metal crystallises with a face-centred cubic lattice. The edge of the unit cell is 408 pm. The diameter of the metal atom is
(A)
288 pm
(B)
408 pm
(C)
144 pm
(D)
204 pm
(A)

Solution

Given = 408 pm

For the face centred cubic structure

r = = = 144 pm

Diameter = 2r = 2144 = 288 pm
Q.17
The number of octahedral void(s) per atom present in a cubic close-packed structure is
(A)
1
(B)
3
(C)
2
(D)
4
(A)

Solution

Number of octahedral voids is same as number of atoms.
Q.18
The protecting power of lyophilic colloidal sol is expressed in terms of
(A)
coagulation value
(B)
gold number
(C)
critical micelle concentration
(D)
oxidation number
(B)

Solution

The lyophobic sols are less stable than lyophilic sols. The lyophilic sols are thus used to protect the lyophobic sols. This property of lyophilic sols is known as protective action of lyophilic sols.

Which can be represented by gold number. Lesser the gold number, higher is the protecting power.
Q.19
Which one of the following statements is incorrect about enzyme catalysis?
(A)
Enzymes are mostly proteinous in nature.
(B)
Enzyme action is specific.
(C)
Enzymes are denatured by ultraviolet rays and at high temperature.
(D)
enzymes are least reactive at optimum temperature.
(D)

Solution

Enzymes are most reactive at optimum temperature. The optimum temperature for enzyme activity lies between 40°C to 60°C.
Q.20
In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the value of 1/n is
(A)
between 0 and 1 in all cases
(B)
between 2 and 4 in all cases
(C)
1 in case of physical absorption
(D)
1 in case of chemisorption.
(A)

Solution

Freundlich adsorption isotherm:



Where is the ratio of amount of adsorbent to the amount of adsorbate.

The value of n is always greater than 1. So, the value of lies between 0 and 1 in all cases.
Q.21
Identify the wrong statement in the following.
(A)
Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius.
(B)
Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic radius.
(C)
Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table.
(D)
Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period of the periodic table.
(A)

Solution

When positive charge on the cation increases, effective nuclear charge increases. Thus atomic size decreases.
Q.22
The pair of species with the same bond order is
(A)
O, B2
(B)
O, NO+
(C)
NO, CO
(D)
N2, O2
(A)

Solution

O2- 1

B2 1

O2+ 2.5

NO+ 3

NO 2.5

CO 3

N2 3

O2 2
Q.23
Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and hybridization) ?
(A)
[BCl3 and BrCl3]
(B)
[NH3 and NO]
(C)
[NF3 and BF3]
(D)
[BF and NH]
(D)

Solution

BCl3 sp2, trigonal planar

BrCl3 sp3d, T-shaped

NH3 sp3, pyramidal

NO3- sp2, trigonal planar

NF3 sp3, pyramidal

BF3 sp2, trigonal planar

BF4- sp3, tetrahedral

NH4- sp3, tetrahedral
Q.24
Bond order of 1.5 is shown by
(A)
O2+
(B)
O2
(C)
O22
(D)
O2
(B)

Solution

Configuration of O2



Bond order =

Bond order of O2+ = = 2.5

Bond order of O2- = = 1.5

Bond order of O22- = = 1

Bond order of O2 = = 2
Q.25
Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair arround the central atom ?
(A)
H2O
(B)
BF3
(C)
NH2
(D)
PCl3
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 91 English Explanation
Q.26
In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide with
(A)
carbon monoxide
(B)
copper (I) sulphide
(C)
sulphur dioxide
(D)
iron (II) sulphide.
(B)

Solution

Cu2S + 2Cu2O 6Cu + SO2
Q.27
Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?
(A)
Malachite
(B)
Cassiterite
(C)
Pyrolusite
(D)
Magnetite
(D)

Solution

Magnetite is Fe3O4 and contains upto 70% of the metal.
Q.28
Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al2O3) by electrolysis of a molten mixture of
(A)
Al2O3 + HF + NaAlF4
(B)
Al2O3 + CaF2 + NaAlF4
(C)
Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2
(D)
Al2O3 + KF + Na3AlF6
(C)

Solution

Alumina Al2O3 before subjecting to electrolytes, is mixed with fluorspar (CaF2) and cryolite (Na3AlF6) which lower its melting point and make it more conducting.
Q.29
Which one of the alkali metals, forms only, the normal oxide, M2O on heating in air?
(A)
Rb
(B)
K
(C)
Li
(D)
Na
(C)

Solution

When alkali metals are heated in atmosphere of oxygen the alkali metals ignite and form oxides. On combustion, Li forms Li2O, sodium gives the peroxide Na2O2 while K and Rb give super oxides (MO2).
Q.30
The ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion-exchange resins follows the order :
(A)
Li+ < K+ < Na+ < Rb+
(B)
Rb+ < K+ < Na+ < Li+
(C)
K+ < Na+ < Rb+ < Li+
(D)
Na+ < Li+ < K+ < Rb+
(B)

Solution

All alkali metal salts are ionic (except Lithium) and soluble in water due to the fact that cations get hydrated by water molecules. The degree of hydration depends upon the size of the cation. Smaller the size of a cation, greater is its hydration energy.

Relative ionic radii :

Li+ < K+ < Na+ < Rb+

Relative ionic radii in water or relative degree of hydration:

Rb+ < K+ < Na+ < Li+
Q.31
Sulphur trioxide can be obtained by which of the following reaction?
(A)
CaSO4 + C
(B)
Fe2(SO4)3
(C)
S + H2SO4
(D)
H2SO4 + PCl5
(B)

Solution

Fe2(SO4)3 Fe2O3 + 3SO3
Q.32
In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state?
(A)
N2H4
(B)
NH3
(C)
N3H
(D)
NH2OH
(C)

Solution

N2H4 : Oxidation state of N = – 2

NH3 : Oxidation state of N = – 3

N3H : Oxidation state of N = – 1/3

NH2OH : Oxidation state of N = – 1

Highest oxidation state = –1/3
Q.33
Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids of phosphorus?
(A)
Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of triple superphosphate.
(B)
Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid.
(C)
All oxoacids contain tetrahedral four coordinated phosphorus.
(D)
All oxoacids contain atleast one PO unit and one POH group.
(B)

Solution

Hypophosphorus acid is a monoprotic acid. AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - p-Block Elements Question 51 English Explanation
Q.34
Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a constituent in it.
(A)
Invar
(B)
Steel
(C)
Bell metal
(D)
Bronze
(B)

Solution

Invar Ni(metal) + Fe(metal)

Steel C(non-metal) + Fe(metal)

Bell metal Cu(metal) + Sn(metal) + Fe(metal)

Bronze Cu(metal) + Sn(metal)
Q.35
Which of the statements is not true?
(A)
On passing H2S through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, a milky colour is observed.
(B)
Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis.
(C)
K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange.
(D)
K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow increasing the pH beyond 7.
(B)

Solution

Na2Cr2O7 is hygroscopic in nature and therefore accurate weighing is not possible in normal atmospheric conditions. A hygroscopic substance absorbs moisture from atmosphere and this could lead to inaccuracies in weight.
Q.36
Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour?
(A)
[Ni(NH3)6]2+
(B)
[Zn(NH3)6]2+
(C)
[Cr(NH3)6]3+
(D)
[Co(NH3)6]3+
(A)

Solution

Those orbitals which utilizes 3d-orbitals for bonding and exhibit paramagnetic behaviour forms outer orbital complex.

Ni+2 = [Ar] 3d84s0
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 82 English Explanation

It forms outer orbital complex.

(b) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ outer orbital complex but diamagnetic

(c) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ inner orbital complex but paramagnetic

(d) [Co(NH3)6]3+ inner orbital complex but diamagnetic
Q.37
Which one of the following statements regarding photochemical smog is not correct?
(A)
Carbon monoxide does not play any role in photochemical smog formation.
(B)
Photochemical smog is an oxidation agent in character.
(C)
Photochemical smof is formed through photochemical reaction involving solar energy.
(D)
Photochemical smog does not cause irritation in eyes and throat.
(D)

Solution

Photochemical smog cause eye and throat irritation.
Q.38
Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system?
(A)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 81 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 81 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 81 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 81 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

In IUPAC nomenclature, preference is given to multiple bond than halogen substituent. AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 81 English Explanation
Q.39
Which of the following acids does not exhibit optical isomerism?
(A)
Maleic acid
(B)
-amino acids
(C)
Lactic acid
(D)
Tartaric acid
(A)

Solution

HOOC – CH = CH – COOH (Maleic acid) almost show optical isomerism.
Q.40
Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
(A)
benzoic acid
(B)
nitrobenzene
(C)
toluene
(D)
benzene
(C)

Solution

Due to electron releasing group like —R, —OH etc. increases the electron density at ortho and para position and thus makes the benzene ring more reactive towards electrophile. On the other hand, electron withdrawing groups like — COOH, —NO2 etc. reduces electron density and thus reduces the reactivity of benzene towards electrophile. Thus, the order is

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 68 English Explanation
Q.41
In the following reaction

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 46 English
The major product is
(A)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 46 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 46 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 46 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 46 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 46 English Explanation
Q.42
In the following sequence of reactions
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 27 English
the end product (C) is
(A)
acetone
(B)
methane
(C)
acetaldehyde
(D)
ethyl alcohol
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 27 English Explanation
Q.43
The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is
(A)
B > A > D > C
(B)
B > D > C > A
(C)
A > B > C > D
(D)
A > C > B > D
(A)

Solution

As –I effect increases, COOH group becomes more electron deficient and tendency to loose H+ ions increases i.e., acid strength increases. As +I effect increases, acid strength decreases. Thus, correct order of acid strength is
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 89 English Explanation
Q.44
CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by
(A)
Benedict's test
(B)
Iodoform test
(C)
Tollen's reagent test
(D)
Fehling's solution test
(B)

Solution

CH3CHO gives Iodoform test but C6H5CH2CHO does not give Iodoform test due to absence of methyl group.
Q.45
Acetone is treated with excess of ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid. The product obtained is
(A)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 68 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 68 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 68 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 68 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 68 English Explanation
Q.46
Predict the products in the given reaction.

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 70 English
(A)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 70 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 70 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 70 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 70 English Option 4
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 70 English Explanation
Q.47
Which of the following statements is false?
(A)
Artificial silk is derived from cellulose.
(B)
Nylon-6, 6 is an example of elastomer.
(C)
The repeat unit in natural rubber is isoprene.
(D)
Both starch and cellulose are polymers of glucose.
(B)

Solution

Nylon 6, 6 is an example of fibers.
Q.48
Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer?
(A)
Melamine
(B)
Glyptal
(C)
Dacron
(D)
Neoprene
(D)

Solution

Neoprene is made by joining smaller molecules together without losing any atoms. This process is called addition polymerization.

Condensation polymers are made when small molecules, like water, are released during the reaction. Neoprene does not form this way.

So, Neoprene is not a condensation polymer.

Q.49
Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease
(A)
convulsions
(B)
beri-beri
(C)
cheilosis
(D)
sterility
(B)

Solution

Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes Beri-beri.
Q.50
Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose?
(A)
--galactopyranose
and - glucopyranose
(B)
--glucopyranose
and - fructofuranose
(C)
--glucopyranose
and - fructofuranose
(D)
--glucopyranose
and - fructopyranose
(B)

Solution

Sucrose is formed by the condensation of -D-glucopyranose and -D-fructofuranose.
Biology (Maximum Marks: 400)
  • This section contains 100 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas ?
(A)
Chromosomal Organization
(B)
Cell wall
(C)
Ribosomes
(D)
Cell membrane
(D)

Solution

E.coli (bacteria) is prokaryote while Chlamydomonas (algae) is eukaryote. Ribosomes of both groups differ being 70S in prokaryotes and 80S in eukaryotes. Prokaryotic chromosomes lack histone protein unlike eukaryotic ones. Cell wall organization also differs as bacterial cell wall is rich in muramic acid while algal cell wall is cellulosic. It is the cell membrane which has similar organization in both the groups.
Q.2
What is true about ribosomes ?
(A)
These are self - splicing introns of some RNAs.
(B)
These are found only in eukaryotic cells
(C)
There are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins
(D)
The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, where 'S' stands for sedimentation coefficient.
(C)

Solution

Ribosomes are amembraneous (ie. without membrane) cell organelle composed of rRNA and protein. These are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are 70S type while in eukaryotes, it is 80S type.
Q.3
Select the the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane
(A)
Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport
(B)
Lipids are arranged in bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part
(C)
Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane
(D)
Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by singer and Nicolson
(D)

Solution

Fluid mosaic membrane model was proposed by Singer and Nicholson in 1972. It is most accepted model of structure of biomembrane.
Q.4
Which one of the following is wrong statement?
(A)
Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing nitrogen in free-living state also
(B)
Root module forming nitrogen fixers live as aerobes under free-living conditions.
(C)
Phosphorus is a constituent of cell membrances, certain nucleic acids and all proteins.
(D)
Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chemo-autotrophs.
(C)

Solution

Phosphorus is a constituent of nucleic acids of both DNA and RNA but absent in cell membranes and cell proteins.
Q.5
The given diagrammatic representation shows one of the caregories of small molecular weight organic compounds in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the one blank component ''X'' in it.
AIPMT 2012 Prelims Biology - Biomolecules Question 83 English
(A)
Category Component
Cholesterol Guanine
(B)
Category Component
Amino acid NH2
(C)
Category Component
Nucleotide Adenine
(D)
Category Component
Nucleoside Uracil
(D)

Solution

The given structure corresponds with the structure of ribose sugar. As it lacks a phosphoric acid hence it can be a nucleoside not a nucleotide.
Q.6
Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?
(A)
Trypsin
(B)
Haemoglobin
(C)
Collagen
(D)
Insulin
(C)

Solution

Collagen is an insoluble fibrous protein found extensively in the connective tissue of skin, tendons and bone. Collagen accounts for over 30% of the total body proteins of mammals and it is the most abundant animal protein.
Q.7
Which one out of A - D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?

AIPMT 2012 Prelims Biology - Biomolecules Question 85 English
(A)
C
(B)
D
(C)
A
(D)
B
(B)

Solution

Basic amino acids have an additional amino group without forming amides thus they are diamino monocarboxylic acids e.g., arginine, lysine, etc.
Q.8
Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division. Which is this stage? AIPMT 2012 Prelims Biology - Cell Cycle and Cell Division Question 43 English
(A)
Prophase of Mitosis
(B)
Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis
(C)
Prophase I during meiosis
(D)
Prophase -II during meiosis
(C)

Solution

The given figure shows crossing over i.e., exchange of segments between two homologous chromosomes. Crossing over is characteristic of meiosis and occurs during pachytene stage of prophase I.
Q.9
During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during
(A)
metaphase I
(B)
anaphase II
(C)
prophase I
(D)
prophase II.
(C)

Solution

During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during pachytene stage of prophase I. This stage is characterized by the appearance of recombination nodules, the sites at which crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes. Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between two homologous chromosomes. Crossing over is also an enzyme-mediated process and the enzyme involved is called recombinase.
Q.10
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(A)
OnionBulb
(B)
GingerSucker
(C)
ChlamydomonasConidia
(D)
YeastZoospores
(A)

Solution

Yeast and other ascomycetes characteristically produce ascospores. Chlamydomonas is an alga and conidia are not found in algae. Ginger propagates by rhizome not by sucker. Onion propagates by bulb which is an underground, modified stem.
Q.11
Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in
(A)
Commelina
(B)
Zostera
(C)
Salvia
(D)
fig.
(A)

Solution

Cleistogamous flower produce assured seed set even in the absence of pollinations. Plants such as Viola, Oxalis and Commelina.
Q.12
An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is
(A)
cuticle
(B)
sporopollenin
(C)
lignin
(D)
cellulose.
(B)

Solution

Sporopollenin is a major component of the tough outer (exine) walls of spores and pollen grains. It is chemically very stable and is usually well preserved in soils and sediments. It can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by enzymes and strong chemical reagents.
Q.13
Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in
(A)
Papaya
(B)
cucumber
(C)
castor
(D)
maize.
(A)

Solution

Autogamy and geitonogamy are two forms of self pollination. In autogamy, pollen falls on stigma of the same flower. While in geitonogamy pollens from a flower fall on the stigma of some other flower on the same plant. Papaya is a dioecious plant thus both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in it.
Q.14
Yeast is used in the production of
(A)
Citric acid and lactic acid
(B)
Lipase and pectinase
(C)
Bread and beer
(D)
Cheese and butter
(C)

Solution

Saccharomyces cervisiae is a yeast used in making bread (Baker’s yeast) and commercial production of ethanol.
Q.15
A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given
(A)
Penicillin
(B)
Streptokinase
(C)
Cyclosporin - A
(D)
Statins
(B)

Solution

Streptokinase is immediately given to dissolve the thrombus carring myocardial infarction.
Q.16
Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of :
(A)
Ethanol
(B)
Streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels
(C)
Citric acid
(D)
Blood cholesterol lowering statins
(D)

Solution

Statins are produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus which have been commercialised as bloodcholesterol lowering agents. It acts by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.
Q.17
A nitrogen - fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is
(A)
Tolypothrix
(B)
Spirulina
(C)
Frankia
(D)
Anabaena
(D)

Solution

Anabaena azollae resides in the leaf cavities of the fern Anabaena. It fixes nitrogen. A part of the fixed nitrogen is excreted in the cavities and becomes available to the fern. The decaying fern plants release the same for utilization of the rice plants.
Q.18
Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/diseases using microbes ?
(A)
Trichoderms sp. against certain plant pathogens
(B)
Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard
(C)
Nucleopoly hedrovirus against white rust in Brassica
(D)
Bt-cotton to increase cotton yield
(A)

Solution

A biological control being developed for use in the treatment of plant disease is the fungus Trichoderma. Trichoderma species are free living fungi that are very common in the root ecosystems. They are effective biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens.
Q.19
Closed vascular bundles lack
(A)
Ground tissue
(B)
Conjunctive tissue
(C)
Cambium
(D)
Pith
(C)

Solution

Vascular bundle consists of complex tissues, the phloem and xylem. In dicots, between xylem and phloem, cambium is present which helps in secondary growth. This type of vascular bundle is called open. While in monocots cambium is absent, so these are called closed vascular bundles.
Q.20
Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack
(A)
Cambium
(B)
Thick - walled tracheids
(C)
Phloem fibres
(D)
Xylem fibres
(D)

Solution

Xylem fibres provide rigidity to the plant.
Q.21
The common bottle cork is a product of
(A)
Phellogen
(B)
Xylem
(C)
Vascular Cambium
(D)
Dermatogen
(A)

Solution

The common bottle cork is the product of phellogen. Phellogen produces cork or phellem on the outer side. It consists of dead and compactly arranged rectangular cells that possess suberised cell walls. The cork cells contain tannins. Hence, they appear brown or dark brown in colour. The cork cells of some plants are filled with air e.g., Quercus suber (Cork Oak or Bottle Cork).
Q.22
Companion cells are closely associated with
(A)
Sieve elements
(B)
Trichomes
(C)
Vessel elements
(D)
Guard cells
(A)

Solution

Companion cell is a type of cell found within the phloem of flowering plants. Each companion cell is usually closely associated with a sieve element. They remain connected with sieve cells by plasmodesmata. They help in loading of phloem sieve cells with sugars through active transport.
Q.23
Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are found in
(A)
Maize
(B)
Cycas
(C)
Sunflower
(D)
Pinus
(A)

Solution

Stem of maize has water containing cavities in vascular bundles.
Q.24
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(A)
Passive transport of nutrients ATP
(B)
Apoplast Plasmodesmata
(C)
Potassium Readily immobilisation
(D)
Bakane of rice seedlings F. Skoog.
(C)

Solution

Potassium immobilisation is the conversion of water soluble potassium into water insoluble form. Readily available potassium constitutes about 1% of total potassium available in soil, whereas slightly soluble potassium accounts for about 98%.
Q.25
Best defined function of manganese in green plants is
(A)
photolysis of water
(B)
Calvin cycle
(C)
nitrogen fixation
(D)
water absorption.
(A)

Solution

The best defined function of manganese is in the splitting of water to liberate oxygen during photosynthesis. It is absorbed in the form of manganese ions (Mn2+). It activates many enzymes involved in photosynthesis, respiration and nitrogen metabolism.
Q.26
PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for
(A)
Genetic transformation
(B)
Genetic Fingerprinting
(C)
Study of enzymes
(D)
DNA sequencing
(B)

Solution

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify a small DNA fragment to obtain its large quantity. PCR is very helpful in DNA fingerprinting in such cases where the culprit has to be identified from a very small blood, semen or other cell sample from a crime scene.
Q.27
The figure below is the diagrammatic respesentation o the E.Coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s) ? AIPMT 2012 Prelims Biology - Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Question 93 English
(A)
ori- original restriction enzyme
(B)
ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes
(C)
rop-reduced osmotic pressure
(D)
Hind III, EcoRI-selectable markers
(B)

Solution

In pBR322, ori-represents site or origin of replication, rop-codes for proteins that take part in the replication of plasmid. Hin d III, Eco RIrecognition sites of restriction endonucleases. ampR and tetR - antibiotic resistance genes.
Q.28
For transformation, micro - particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene are made up of
(A)
Gold or Tungsten
(B)
Platinum or zinc
(C)
Silver or platinum
(D)
Silicon or platinum
(A)

Solution

A gene or a biolistic particle delivery system, originally designed for plant transformation, is a device for injecting cells with genetic information. The payload is an elemental particle of a heavy metal such as gold or tungsten coated with plasmid DNA. The device is used to transform almost any type of cell including plants, and is not limited to genetic material of the nucleus. It can also transform organelles, including plastids.
Q.29
Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR ?
(A)
It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cell
(B)
It remains active at high temperature
(C)
It serves as a selectable marker
(D)
It is isolated from a virus
(B)

Solution

The name of this DNA polymerase is Taq polymerase extracted from a thermophilic bacteria. It is a relatively thaermostable enzyme which is used in PCR during denaturation, which requires high temperature.
Q.30
A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
(A)
Probe
(B)
Selectable marker
(C)
Vector
(D)
Plasmid
(A)

Solution

A single strand DNA or RNA tagged with radioactive molecule that is used in hybridization of DNA or RNA is called probe.
Q.31
The highest number of species in the world is represented by
(A)
Fungi
(B)
Mosses
(C)
Algae
(D)
Lichens
(A)

Solution

The number of species of fungi is maximum in respect to other options.
Q.32
Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity?
(A)
Western Ghats
(B)
Gangetic plain
(C)
Sunderbans
(D)
Eastern Ghats
(A)

Solution

Hots are the geographical area where biodiversity is maximum. Two hotspots in India are western ghats and north eastern himlayan region.
Q.33
Nuclear membrane is absent in
(A)
Penicillium
(B)
Agaricus
(C)
Volvox
(D)
Nostoc.
(D)

Solution

Penicillium and Agaricus are fungi while Volvox is an alga. All three are eukaryotes thus have a membrane bound nucleus. Nostoc is a cyanobacterium, i.e., prokaryote, so it lacks true nucleus, thus nuclear membrane is absent.
Q.34
Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their nutrition?
(A)
Azotobacter
(B)
Aspergillus
(C)
Glomus
(D)
Trichoderma
(C)

Solution

Glomus is endomycorrhiza that helps in absorption of nutrition specially phosphorus from soil.
Q.35
The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd ftom milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones categorised as
(A)
cyanobacteria
(B)
archaebacteria
(C)
chemosynthetic autotrophs
(D)
heterotrophic bacteria.
(D)

Solution

The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are the heterotrophic bacteria. Lactobacillis bacteria convert milk into curd.
Q.36
Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group
(A)
fungi
(B)
animalia
(C)
monera
(D)
plantae.
(C)

Solution

Though the bacterial structure is very simple, they are very complex in behaviour. Compared to many other organisms, bacteria as a group show the most extensive metabolic diversity.

Some of the bacteria are autotrophic, i.e., they synthesize their own food from inorganic substrates. They may be photosynthetic autotrophic or chemosynthetic autotrophic. The vast majority of bacteria are heterotrophs, i.e., they do not synthesize their own food but depend on other organisms or on dead organic matter for food.
Q.37
Which statement is wrong for viruses?
(A)
All are parasites.
(B)
All of them have helical symmetry
(C)
They have ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins.
(D)
Antibiotics have no effect on them.
(B)

Solution

In viruses, three architectural forms are found – helical (elongated body, e.g., TMV), cuboidal (short broad body with rhombic, rounded, polyhedral shape, e.g,. poliovirus) and binal (with both cuboidal and helical parts, e.g., T2 phage).
Q.38
Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic group?
(A)
Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of Penicillium.
(B)
Lichen is a composite organisms formed from the symbiotic association of an algae and a protozoan.
(C)
Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus.
(D)
Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista.
(C)

Solution

Yeast is a group of unicellular fungi of the class ascomycetes. They occur as single cell or as a group or chain of cells. Yeast of the genus Saccharomyces ferments sugar and are used to make bread and beer
Q.39
The cyanobacteria are also referred to as
(A)
protists
(B)
golden algae
(C)
slime moulds
(D)
blue green algae.
(D)

Solution

Cyanobacteria are also referred as blue green algae, they perform oxygenic photosynthesis.

They are most successful autotrophic organisms on earth which are found in all types of environment - fresh water, sea water, salt marshes, moist rocks, tree trunks, moist soils, hot springs, frozen waters.
Q.40
Placentation in tomato and lemon is
(A)
parietal
(B)
free central
(C)
marginal
(D)
axile.
(D)

Solution

Placentation is the arrangement of ovules within the ovary. It is of different types namely, marginal (pea), parietal (mustard, Argemone), axile (China rose, tomato, lemon) and free central (Dianthus, Primrose).
Q.41
The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of
(A)
Aloe
(B)
tomato
(C)
Papaver
(D)
Michelia
(D)

Solution

The female reproductive part of a flower is gynoecium. It is syncarpous or fused in tomato.
Q.42
The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to
(A)
endosperm
(B)
endocarp
(C)
mesocarp
(D)
embryo
(A)

Solution

Coconut fruit is a drupe. It has a membranous epicarp, fibrous mesocarp and stony endocarp. The endocarp encloses a single seed with brown testa that contains a small embryo and a white oily endosperm (edible part) with watery fluid called coconut water.
Q.43
Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family
(A)
Febaceae
(B)
Asteraceae
(C)
Solanaceae
(D)
Brassicaceae.
(A)

Solution

This type of aestivation is seen in fabaceae. Here, the posterior largest petal overlaps the petals that are lateral, which in turn overlap the two anterior petals.
Q.44
Phyllode is present in
(A)
Asparagus
(B)
Euphorbia
(C)
Australian Acacia
(D)
Opuntia.
(C)

Solution

In several species of Acacia found in the deserts of Australia the bipinnate lamina is absent. Instead petiole and part of the rachis become flattened into sickle-shaped structure for performing the function of food synthesis. Such a flattened petiole which carries out the functions of the lamina is called phyllode. Formation of phyllode is a mechanism to reduce transpiration because (i) it is vertically placed and (ii) has fewer stomata.
Q.45
How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an inflorescence?
Walnut, poppy, radish, fig, pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry.
(A)
Four
(B)
Five
(C)
Two
(D)
Three
(D)

Solution

A composite or multiple fruit is a group of fruitlets which develop from the different flowers of an inflorescence. It is of two main types, sorosis (e.g., mulberry, pineapple, jackfruit) and syconus (e.g., peepal, banyan, fig, etc.)
Q.46
Cymose inflorescence is present in
(A)
Solanum
(B)
Sesbania
(C)
Trifolium
(D)
Brassica
(A)

Solution

Cymose infloresence is present in Solanum. Cymose inflorescence is the name of determinate or definite inflorescence in which the tip of the main axis terminates in a flower and further growth continues by one or more lateral branches which also behaves like the main axis.
Q.47
The correct sequence of cell organelles during photores piration is
(A)
chloroplast, Golgi-bodies, mitochondria
(B)
chloroplast, rough endoplasmic reticulum, dictyosomes
(C)
chloroplast, mitochondria, peroxisome
(D)
Chloroplast, vacuole, peroxisome.
(C)

Solution

In photorespiration, the correct sequence of cell organelles involved is as follows:

  • Chloroplast: This is where the initial steps of photorespiration begin. Here, the enzyme Rubisco oxygenates RuBP, leading to the production of a 2-carbon compound.


  • Peroxisome: The 2-carbon compound is then transferred to the peroxisome. Here, it is converted into a 3-carbon compound while hydrogen peroxide is produced and subsequently broken down.


  • Mitochondria: Finally, the 3-carbon compound is moved to the mitochondria where it is converted back into a 3-carbon phosphate molecule that can re-enter the Calvin cycle in the chloroplast.

So, the correct option that reflects this sequence is :

Option C : Chloroplast, Peroxisome, Mitochondria.

Q.48
A process that makes important difference between C3 and C4 plants is
(A)
transpiration
(B)
glycolysis
(C)
photosynthesis
(D)
photorespiration.
(D)

Solution

Photorespiration is absent is C4 plants. Photorespiration does not produce energy or reducing power. Rather, it consumes energy. Further, it undoes the work of photosynthesis. There is 25% loss of fixed CO2. Therefore, photorespiration is a highly wasteful process. This happens only in case of C3 plants.
Q.49
F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of
(A)
Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
(B)
Co - dominance
(C)
Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
(D)
Dihybrid cross
(A)

Solution

The inheritance of flower colour in the dog flower (snapdragon or Antirrhinum sp.) is a good example which shows incomplete dominance. In a cross between true-breeding red-flowered (RR) and true-breeding white-flowered plants (rr), the F1 (Rr) was pink. When the F1 was self-pollinated the F2 resulted in the following ratio, 1 (RR) Red : 2 (Rr) Pink : 1 (rr) White. Here the genotype ratios were 1 : 2 : 1 as in any Mendelian monohybrid cross, but the phenotype ratios had changed from the 3 : 1 dominant : recessive ratio to 1 : 2 : 1.
Q.50
A normal - visioned man whose father was colour bilind, marries a woman whose father was also colour - blind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colour blind
(A)
50%
(B)
25%
(C)
100%
(D)
Zero percent
(D)

Solution

To determine the chances that the daughter would be color blind, we need to understand the genetics of color blindness. Color blindness is most commonly caused by defects in the X chromosome, and it is a recessive trait. Since males (XY) have only one X chromosome and females (XX) have two, a male will be color blind if his single X chromosome carries the defect. A female, on the other hand, would need to have the defect on both of her X chromosomes to express color blindness since it is recessive.

Given that the man has normal vision, we can infer that his X chromosome (which he got from his mother) does not have the color blindness defect; however, because his father was color blind, we know that he carries a Y chromosome without the color blindness trait (otherwise, the man would be color blind too). The man will pass on either his X or his Y chromosome to his offspring. If it's a daughter, he will pass on the X chromosome, which we know does not carry the color blindness defect.

The woman's father was color blind, meaning her father's only X chromosome carried the defect. Since women have two X chromosomes, the one she received from her mother could potentially not have the defect. Therefore, the woman can be heterozygous (one normal X chromosome and one with the color blindness defect) or homozygous normal (both X chromosomes without the defect). However, the problem does not provide information about the mother's vision or genotype to confirm whether she is a carrier or not. If the woman is not a carrier, none of her children would inherit color blindness. If she is a carrier, then there's a 50% chance she could pass on the X chromosome with the defect.

So, let's consider the two potential scenarios for the woman, represented by X (normal X chromosome) and X^c (X chromosome with color blindness defect):

1. The woman is a carrier (X X^c): There's a 50% chance she might pass on the X chromosome with the defect (X^c) since she is heterozygous.

2. The woman is not a carrier (X X): There's a 0% chance the child will be color blind since all her X chromosomes are without the color blindness defect.

In conclusion:

  • If the woman is a carrier, the daughter has a 50% chance of getting the X^c chromosome from her mother and would then be a carrier like her mother (heterozygous), but will not be color blind because the X chromosome from her father is normal.
  • If the woman is not a carrier, then the daughter has a 0% chance of being color blind because both of her parents would provide normal X chromosomes.

Because we don't know the mother's carrier status with the information given, we cannot say for certain what the probability is for the daughter to be color blind. However, we know it's either 0% (if the mother is not a carrier) or 50% (if the mother is a carrier) chance of being a carrier, but 0% chance of expressing color blindness since she receives one normal X chromosome from her father. Therefore, the probability that the child would be color blind (express the trait) is:

Option D: Zero percent.

Q.51
Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called
(A)
Looping
(B)
Inducing
(C)
Slicing
(D)
Splicing
(D)

Solution

Introns, which occur principally in eukaryotes, are transcribed into messenger RNA (mRNA) but are subsequently removed from the transcription before translation. In certain cases, removal of the introns is an autocatalytic process (selfsplicing) whereby the RNA itself has the properties of an enzyme.
Q.52
Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA ?
(A)
The structural gene
(B)
the inducer
(C)
A terminator
(D)
A promoter
(B)

Solution

A transcription unit is a part of DNA that is able to transcribe a complete RNA. It consists of a promoter region (where RNA polymerase binds to start transcription), the structural gene (coding region) and the terminator region (that signals release of RNA polymerase and newly formed RNA strand).
Q.53
Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in
(A)
Nucleolus
(B)
Ribosomes
(C)
Lysosomes
(D)
Nucleoplasm
(A)

Solution

Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in nucleolus. Nucleolus is also known as ribosomal factory.
Q.54
Removal of RNA polymerase -III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of
(A)
tRNA
(B)
hnRNA
(C)
rRNA
(D)
mRNA
(A)

Solution

In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase enzymes (Type I, II, III) catalyze the synthesis of RNA using as a template either an existing DNA strand or an RNA strand. Type I is responsible for synthesis of rRNA, type II for mRNA and type III for tRNA synthesis.
Q.55
If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA stand sequence
(A)
ATCGU
(B)
UAGAC
(C)
AACTG
(D)
TTAGU
(B)

Solution

Sequence of DNA is ATCTG then sequence of m-RNA will UAGAC. As adenine base pairs with uracil and guanine with cytosine.
Q.56
Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin 'A' deficiency
(A)
Flaver Savr Tomato
(B)
Canolla
(C)
Bt- Brinjal
(D)
Golden rice
(D)

Solution

Golden rice is vitamin A rich variety developed by rDNA technology and used in the treatment of vitamin A deficiency.
Q.57
Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching ?
(A)
Somatic hybridization - Fusion of two diverse cells
(B)
Callus - Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture
(C)
Vector DNA - site for tRNA synthesis
(D)
Micropropagation - In vitro production of plants in large numbers
(C)

Solution

Vectors are DNA molecules that can carry a foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host cell. They are used in recombinant DNA technology.
Q.58
Which part would be most suitable for raising virus free plants for microporpagation ?
(A)
Vascular tissue
(B)
Node
(C)
Bark
(D)
Meristem
(D)

Solution

Meristem is most suitable for raising virus free plants for micropropagation.
Q.59
Measuring biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a method used for
(A)
Working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines
(B)
Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water
(C)
Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisae in producing curd on a commercial scale
(D)
Working out the efficiency of R.B.Cs. about their capacity to carry oxygen
(B)

Solution

BOD is a measure of organic matter present in water. It refers to amount of O2 consumed by microbes to decompose all the organic matter in 1 L of water at 20°C for 5 days. The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential.
Q.60
Which one of the following is a wrong statement?
(A)
Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas
(B)
Greenhouse effect is a natural Phenomenon
(C)
Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals
(D)
Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in freshwater bodies
(C)

Solution

Ozone present in upper part of the atmosphere ie. stratosphere is benefical for living beings. As it functions as a shield against harmful UV-radiation.
Q.61
In an area where DDT had been used extensively, the population of birds declined significantly because :
(A)
Earthworms in the area got eradicated
(B)
Cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
(C)
Birds stopped laying eggs
(D)
Many of the birds eggs laid, did not hatch
(D)

Solution

High concentration of DDT disturbs calcium metabolism in birds which caused thinning of eggshell and their premature breaking.
Q.62
Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?
(A)
diplontic life cycle
(B)
Members of Kingdom Plantae
(C)
Mode of Nutrition
(D)
Multiplication by fragmentation
(D)

Solution

Algae and moss are included in plant kingdom while fungi constitute a separate kingdom. Among them, mosses invariably show diplontic life cycle while others may or may not. Algae and moss are autotrophic while fungi are heterotrophs. But they all show multiplication by fragmentation.
Q.63
Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(A)
Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage.
(B)
In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is free-living.
(C)
Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pterido phytes.
(D)
Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes.
(D)

Solution

(1) Gametophyte of bryophytes bears protonemal & leafy stage.

(2) In gymnosperm female gametophyte is not free living.

(3) They are present in Marchantia which is a bryophyte.

(4) Origin of seed habit started in pteridophyte Selaginaella.
Q.64
Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having
(A)
seeds
(B)
motile sperms
(C)
cambium
(D)
vessels
(B)

Solution

Cycas (a gymnosperm) and Adiantum a pteridophyte, known as Maiden hair fern resemble each other in having motile sperm. Seeds, cambium are common in gymnosperms and absent in pteridophytes. True vessels are absent in both pteridophytes and gymnospems.
Q.65
The upright pyramid of number is absent in
(A)
Pond
(B)
Grassland
(C)
Lake
(D)
Forest
(D)

Solution

In forest, a single tree can support a large of number of birds thus base showing producers in a pyramid of number will be narrower than the next slab showing primary consumers.
Q.66
Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem?
(A)
Energy flow
(B)
Decomposition
(C)
Productivity
(D)
Stratification
(D)

Solution

Four important functional aspects of the ecosystem are productivity, decomposition, energy flow and nutrient cycling.
Q.67
Identify the possible link "A" in the following food chain :
Plant → insect → frog →"A"→ Eagle
(A)
Wolf
(B)
Rabbit
(C)
Cobra
(D)
Parrot
(C)

Solution

The given food chain shows a sequence of organisms where each is a source of food for the next. To identify the missing link "A" in the food chain, we need to consider the dietary habits and ecological roles of the possible options. The food chain reads as follows:

  • Plant → insect → frog → "A" → Eagle

Let's analyze the options:

  • Option A: Wolf - Wolves are generally not part of a food chain that includes eagles because they are both top predators, and it is unlikely for a wolf to be preyed upon by an eagle.
  • Option B: Rabbit - Rabbits primarily eat plants and would not be found in this part of the food chain after the frog. They are not typically a prey item for eagles after a frog in a direct food chain sequence.
  • Option C: Cobra - Cobras can eat frogs, making them a suitable link in the food chain. In some ecosystems, large eagles, especially those adapted to hunting snakes like the Serpent Eagle, may prey on cobras.
  • Option D: Parrot - Parrots are primarily herbivores or omnivores with a diet consisting mainly of seeds, nuts, and fruit. They are not typically part of a food chain where frogs are a preceding link and do not generally fall prey to eagles in the context of this type of food chain.

Considering the ecology of these animals, the most likely organism to fill the role of "A" between the frog and the eagle is the cobra, as it can be a natural predator to the frog and in turn can be prey for certain types of eagles.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: Cobra.

Q.68
Giiven below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about certain organisms at some of the different levels ? AIPMT 2012 Prelims Biology - Ecosystem Question 62 English
(A)
Level PC is "rats" and level SC is "cats"
(B)
Level PP is "phytoplanktons" in sea and "Whale" on top level TC
(C)
Level one PP is "pipal trees" and the level SC is "sheep"
(D)
Level PC is "insects" and level SC is "small insectivorous birds"
(D)
Q.69
Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem ?
(A)
Sulphur Cycle
(B)
Nitrogen Cycle
(C)
Phosphorus Cycle
(D)
Carbon Cycle
(C)

Solution

Phosphorus is mostly used as phosphate. Its reservoir pool is phosphate rocks while cycling pool is soil for terrestrial ecosystems and water for aquatic ecosystems.
Q.70
Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of
(A)
Cocaine
(B)
Alcohol
(C)
Tobacco (Chewing)
(D)
Opium
(B)

Solution

Cirrhosis is a condition in which the liver responds to injury or death of some of its cells by producing interlacing strands of fibrous tissue between which are nodules of regenerating cells. The liver becomes tawny and characteristically knobbly (due to the nodules). One of the causes include alcoholism (alcoholic cirrhosis).
Q.71
Widal Test is carried out to test :
(A)
HIV/AIDS
(B)
Typhoid fever
(C)
Malaria
(D)
Diabetes mellitus
(B)

Solution

Widal test is carried out to test typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhii bacteria. Typhoid vaccine is available.
Q.72
Which one of the following in not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are ?
(A)
They do not remain confined in the area of formation
(B)
They divide in an uncontrolled manner
(C)
They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients
(D)
They show contact inhibition
(D)

Solution

Contact inhibition is a property of normal cell not of cancer cells. Due to this property they remain in contact with other cells inhibit their growth.
Q.73
Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in
(A)
Human liver
(B)
Salivary glands of Anopheles
(C)
Human RBCs
(D)
Gut of female Anopheles
(D)

Solution

Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in gut of female Anopheles. Zygote formed in stomach of mosquito about 9 to 10 days after sucking the blood of an infected human. Anopheles receives RBCs containing different stages of erthyrocytic cycle, including gametocyte. In its gut, all stages except the gametocytes are digested. The gametocytes remain unaffected by digestive enzymes of the mosquito, hatch out from the RBCs into the lumen of mosquito’s stomach and form sperm and ovum by gametogenesis. Syngamy or fusion of male and female gamete.
Q.74
In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?
(A)
Examples Types of
immunity
Polymorphonuclear
leukocytes and
monocytes
Cellular barriers
(B)
Examples Types of
immunity
Anti-tetanus and
antisnake bite injection
Active immunity
(C)
Examples Types of
immunity
Saliva in mouth and
Tear in eyes
Physical barriers
(D)
Examples Types of
immunity
Mucus coating of
epithelium lining the
urinogenital tract-and
the HCl in stomach
Physiological barriers
(A)

Solution

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes named so, as they have multilobed nucleus or neutrophils and monocytes are the cellular barrier provide innate or nonspecific immunity. Cellular barriers are the internal defence or second live of defence.
Q.75
Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that
(A)
Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease
(B)
Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no effective vaccine
(C)
Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium haemophilus influenzae
(D)
Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli wheras the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs
(D)

Solution

Common cold or rhinitis is one of the most infectious diseases caused by Rhino viruses. It affects nose and respiratory passage but not lungs. It spreads by droplet infection or contaminated objects. Pneumonia, caused by bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae is a serious disease of lungs, in which fluid collects in the alveoli and bronchioles. The disease spreads by sputum of the patient.
Q.76
A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donar?
(A)
Blood group B
(B)
Blood group AB
(C)
Blood group O
(D)
Blood group A
(C)

Solution

Blood group O acts as universal donor.
Q.77
Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system.
(A)
Muscular dystrophy Age related shortening of muscles
(B)
Osteoporosis Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
(C)
Myasthenia gravis Autoimmune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(D)
Gout Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
(B)

Solution

Major causative factors of osteoporosis are imbalances of hormones like calcitonin of thyroid, parathormone of parathyroids, sex hormones, and deficiencies of calcium and vitamin D.
Q.78
The human hind brain comprises three parts, one of which is
(A)
spinal cord
(B)
corpus callosum
(C)
cerebellum
(D)
hypothalamus.
(C)

Solution

Brain is the anterior most part of central nervous system. Human brain can be divided into three parts: forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain. Human hindbrain comprises pons, cerebellum and medulla (also called the medulla oblongata).
Q.79
Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as such but is otherwise very much required?
(A)
Eustachian tube
(B)
Organ of Corti
(C)
Vestibular apparatus
(D)
Ear ossicles
(C)

Solution

Vestibular apparatus is a part of inner ear which has no role in hearing but responsible for the maintenance of balance of the body and posture.
Q.80
The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques ?
(A)
Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(B)
Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
(C)
Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
(D)
Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(D)

Solution

Test tube baby programme employs zygote intrafallopion transfer (ZIFT) technique. In this technique fusion of ovum and sperm is done outside the body of woman to form zygote which is allowed to divide forming 8 blastomeres, then it is transfered the fallopion tube of the woman.
Q.81
What is the figure given below showing in particular ? AIPMT 2012 Prelims Biology - Reproductive Health Question 42 English
(A)
Uterine cancer
(B)
Vasectomy
(C)
Tubectomy
(D)
Ovarian cancer
(C)

Solution

The figure shows the tubectomy. This is a surgical method to prevent pregnancy in women. In tubectomy small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied through a small cut in the abdomen or through vagina. It is very effective method but reversibility is very poor.
Q.82
Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana
(A)
Males bear a pair of short thread like anal styles
(B)
There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut
(C)
Nervous system located dorsally, consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of longitudinal connective
(D)
Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts
(A)

Solution

The posterior segment of cockroaches bear appendages named as anal cerci. These are found in both male and female. But male cockroach can be distinguished by female ones by the presence of an extra pair of accessory appendages named as anal styles. It assists during copulation.
Q.83
Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are :
(A)
Without nucleous but with haemoglobin
(B)
Very much smaller and fewer
(C)
Nucleated and with haemoglobin
(D)
Nucleated and without haemoglobin
(C)

Solution

The erythrocytes or RBCs in frog are large, oval and biconvex nucleated cells with respiratory red pigment haemoglobin in its cytoplasm.
Q.84
Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to
(A)
indigestion
(B)
jaundicce
(C)
diarrhoea
(D)
vomiting.
(A)

Solution

Indigestion is the condition in which the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness. The causes of indigestion are inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, over eating and spicy food.
Q.85
The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 80 percent) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?
(A)
Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(B)
Distal convoluted tubule
(C)
Proximal convoluted tubule
(D)
Descending limb of loop of Henle
(C)

Solution

Nearly all the essential nutrients, and 70-80 percent of electrolytes and H2O are reabsorbed by proximal convoluted tubules.
Q.86
Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass through the cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus)?
(A)
Insulin, glucagon
(B)
Thyroxine, insulin
(C)
Somatostatin, oxytocin
(D)
Cortisol, testosterone
(D)

Solution

Hormone action involves their reception by target cells. Specific proteins called hormone receptors that are located in target tissues only bind with these hormones. Hormone receptor may be of two types: membrane bound receptor and intracellular receptors. Steroid hormones, bind with intracellular receptors while some hormones e.g., pituitary hormones like FSH bind with membrane bound receptors.
Q.87
What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans?
(A)
Glucagon is secreted by -cells of islets of Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis.
(B)
Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with aging.
(C)
In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane.
(D)
FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone.
(C)

Solution

Glucagon is secreted by cells of islets of langerhans and stimulate glycogenolysis i.e. breakdown of glycogen into glucose Thymosin hormone secreted from thymus gland stimulates the development of certain kinds of white blood cells involved in producing immunity. It also hostens attainment of sexual maturity.
Q.88
A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which one of the following is likely to happen in his neuro-hormonal control system?
(A)
Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal medulla.
(B)
Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse.
(C)
Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of brain.
(D)
Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and nore pinephrine from adrenal cortex.
(A)

Solution

Hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted from adrenal medulla. They are emergency hormones released in condition of stress, emergency, etc. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are also released by adrenergic nerve fibres of sympathetic nervous system where they act as neurotransmitters.
Q.89
In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The results expected was :
(A)
High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening
(B)
High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis
(C)
High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo
(D)
High level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening
(B)

Solution

During pregnancy, placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human placental estrogen, progesterone, etc. The hCG stimulates and maintains the corpus luteum to secrete progesterone.
Q.90
Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm?
(A)
Viability of sperm is determined by its motility
(B)
Sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension
(C)
Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours
(D)
Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in alkaline medium
(C)

Solution

Sperm is viable for 2-3 days.
Q.91
The leydig's cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of
(A)
Glucagon
(B)
Androgens
(C)
Progesterone
(D)
Intestinal mucus
(B)

Solution

Interstitial cells or Leydig cells are the cells interspersed between the seminiferous tubules of the testis. They secrete androgens (e.g., testosterone) in response to stimulation by luteinizing hormone from the anterior pituitary gland.
Q.92
Signals for parturition originate from :
(A)
Placenta only
(B)
Fully developed foetus only
(C)
Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(D)
Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(C)

Solution

The signals for child birth (parturition) originate from the fully matured foetus and placenta which induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex.
Q.93
In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?
(A)
Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum
Pila (a)  Body segmented
(b)  Mouth with radula
Mollusca
(B)
Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum
Asteria (a)  Spiny Skinned
(b)  Water vascular system
Echinoermata
(C)
Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum
Sycon (a)  Pore bearing
(b)  Canal system
Porifera
(D)
Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum
Periplaneta (a)  Jointed appendages
(b)  Chitinous exoskeleton
Arthropoda
(A)

Solution

Pila belongs to Phylum Mollusca. The body of molluscs (soft bodied animals) is unsegmented, with a distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump. Radula is found in mouth of Pila.
Q.94
Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from
(A)
sugarcane roots
(B)
decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter
(C)
soil insects
(D)
small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize, etc.
(B)

Solution

Earthworms are found in moist soil containing rich organic matter, on which they feed.
Q.95
People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang Pass about six months back
(A)
have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O2
(B)
are not physically fit to play games like football
(C)
suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea,fatigue, etc.
(D)
have the usual RBC count but their haemoglobin has very high binding affinity to O2.
(A)

Solution

Tourists visiting high altitude areas such as Rohtang Pass or Mansarovar, experience altitude sickness. Its symptoms include nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations. This is because in the low atmospheric pressure of high altitudes, the body does not get enough oxygen. But, gradually we get acclimatized and stop experiencing altitude sickness. The body compensates low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production, decreasing the binding affinity of haemoglobin and by increasing breathing rate.
Q.96
Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans?
(A)
Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi.
(B)
Neural signals from pneumotoxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration.
(C)
Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis.
(D)
About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin.
(C)

Solution

In certain industries, especially those involving grinding or stone breaking so much dust is produced that the defense mechanism of the body cannot fully cope with the situation. Long exposure can give rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis (proliferation of fibrous tissues) and thus causing serious lung damage. Workers in such industries should wear protective masks.
Q.97
What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors ?
(A)
Uprigth posture
(B)
Increasing cranial capacity
(C)
Shortening of jaws
(D)
Binocular vision
(B)

Solution

The most significant trend in evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors is development of brain capacity.
Q.98
The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eye brows, retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was :
(A)
Neanderthal human
(B)
Homo habilis
(C)
Cro-magnan humans
(D)
Ramapithecus
(A)
Q.99
Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution ?
(A)
Convergent evolution Thorns of Bougainvillia and tendrils of cucurbita & Divergent evolution Eyes of Octopus and mammals
(B)
Convergent evolution Eyes of octopus & Divergent evolution Bones of forelimpbs of mammals and vertebrates
(C)
Convergent evolution Thorns of Bougainvillia and ten drils of cucurbita & Divergent evolution Wings of butterflies and birds
(D)
Convergent evolution Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates & Divergent evolution Wings of butterfly and birds
(B)

Solution

Development of similar adaptive functional structures in unrelated groups of organisms is called convergent evolution. It shows analogy. Examples are wings of butterfly and birds, eye of the octopus and the mammals, flippers of penguins & dolphins, etc. On the other hand, divergent evolution involves development of different functional structures along different directions due to adaptations to different needs from a common ancestral form. For example, forelimbs of vertebrates (whales, bat, cheetah, human). Though these perform different functions, they have similar anatomical structures.
Q.100
Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as
(A)
divergent evolution
(B)
Natural selection
(C)
Migration
(D)
Adaptive radiation
(D)

Solution

Process of evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and radiating to other area of geographical areas is called adaptive radiations.
Example : Darwin’s finches, Australian marsupials.