NEET-UG 2015

AIPMT 2015

Physics (Maximum Marks: 184)
  • This section contains 46 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
If dimensions of critical velocity c of a liquid flowing through a tube are expressed as where and r are the coefficient of viscosity of liquid, density of liquid and radius of the tube respectively, then the values of x, y and z are given by
(A)
1, 1, 1
(B)
1, 1, 1
(C)
1, 1, 1
(D)
1, 1, 1
(C)

Solution

c =

Put dimensions of various quantities,

[M0LT-1] = [ML-1T-1]x [ML-3T0]y [M0LT0]z
                = [Mx + y L- x - 3y + z T- x]

Equating power both sides, we get

x + y = 0;
- x - 3y + z = 1;
- x = - 1

On solving, we get

x = 1, y = -1, z = -1
Q.2
The positions vector of a particle as a function of time is given by = 4sin(2t) + 4cos(2t). Where R is in meters, t is in seconds and and denote unit vectors along x-and y-directions, respectively. Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of particle?
(A)
Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter/second.
(B)
Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter.
(C)
Acceleration vector is along .
(D)
Magnitude of acceleration vector is
where v is the velocity of particle.
(A)

Solution

Here,

The velocity of the particle is



Its magnitude is







    (as sin2 + cos2 = 1)

= 8 m/s
Q.3
If vectors and are functions of time, then the value of t at which they are orthogonal to each other is
(A)
(B)
t 0
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

Two vectors and are orthogonal to each other, if their scalar product is zero i.e. . = 0.

Here,

and



=
    

=
    ()

But (as and are orthogonal to each other)





Q.4
Two stones of masses m and 2m are whirled in horizontal circles, the heavier one in a radius and the lighter one in radius r. The tangential speed of lighter stone is n times that of the value of heavier stone when they exprience same centripetal forces. The value of n is
(A)
4
(B)
1
(C)
2
(D)
3
(C)

Solution

According to question, two stones experience same centripetal force  i.e. FC1 = FC2

or

So, V1 = 2V2 i.e., n = 2
Q.5
A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the angle of inclination with the horizontal reaches 30o, the box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank in 4.0 s.

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 28 English

The coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the box and the plank will be, respectively
(A)
0.5 and 0.6
(B)
0.4 and 0.3
(C)
0.6 and 0.6
(D)
0.6 and 0.5
(D)

Solution

Coefficient of static friction,





[ s = 4m and t = 4s given]

a = gsin

Q.6
A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity v0. It collides with the ground, losses 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity v0 is
(Take g = 10 m s2)
(A)
28 m s1
(B)
10 m s1
(C)
14 m s1
(D)
20 m s1
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Work, Energy and Power Question 53 English Explanation When ball collides with the ground it loses its 50% of energy







or

V0 = 20 ms–1
Q.7
Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities and . At the initial moment their position vectors are and respectively. The condition for particles A and B for their collision is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

For collision should be along


So,
AIPMT 2015 Physics - Work, Energy and Power Question 55 English Explanation
Q.8
On a frictionless surface, a block of mass M moving at speed v collides elastically with another block of same mass M which is initially at rest. After collision the first block moves at an angle to its initial direction and has a speed The second block's speed after the collision is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

The situation is shown in the figure. AIPMT 2015 Physics - Work, Energy and Power Question 52 English Explanation Let v' be speed of second block after the collision. As the collision is elastic, so kinetic energy is conserved.
According to conservation of kinetic energy,







Q.9
The heart of a man pumps 5 litres of blood through the arteries per minute at a pressure of 150 mm of mercury. If the density of mercury be 13.6 103 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2 then the power (in watt) is
(A)
3.0
(B)
1.50
(C)
1.70
(D)
2.35
(C)

Solution

Here, Volume of blood pumped by man’s heart,
V = 5 litres = 5 × 10–3 m3 ( 1 litre = 10–3 m3)

Time in which this volume of blood pumps, t = 1 min = 60 s
Pressure at which the blood pumps,

P = 150 mm of Hg = 0.15 m of Hg
= (0.15 m)(13.6 × 103 kg/m3)(10 m/s2) ( )

= 20.4 × 103 N/m2

Power of the heart =

Q.10
An automobile moves on a road with a speed of 54 km h1. The radius of its wheels is 0.45 m and the moment of inertia of the wheel about its axis of rotation is 3 kg m2. If the vehicle is brought to rest in 15 s, the magnitude of average torque transmitted by its brakes to the wheel is
(A)
10.86 kg m2 s2
(B)
2.86 kg m2 s2
(C)
6.66 kg m2 s2
(D)
8.58 kg m2 s2
(C)

Solution

Here, Speed of the automobile,



Radius of the wheel of the automobile, R = 0.45 m
Moment of inertia of the wheel about its axis of rotation, I = 3 kg m2

Time in which the vehicle brought to rest, t = 15 s
The initial angular speed of the wheel is



and its final angular speed is = 0 (as the vehicle comes to rest)

The angular retardation of the wheel is



The magnitude of required torque is



Q.11
Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the opposite ends of a rigid rod of length L, and negligible mass. The rod is to be set rotating about an axis perpendicular to it. The position of point P on this rod through which the axis should pass so that the work required to set the rod rotating with angular velocity 0 is minimum, is given by

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Rotational Motion Question 82 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution









Q.12
A force is acting at a point . The value of for which angular momentum about origin is conserved is
(A)
zero
(B)
1
(C)
1
(D)
2
(C)

Solution

From Newton's second law for rotational motion,

, if = constant then

So,



Solving we get = –1
Q.13
A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small compared to the mass of the earth. Then,
(A)
the linear momentum of S remains constant in magnitude.
(B)
the acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth.
(C)
the angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth changes in direction, but its magnitude remains constant.
(D)
the total mechanical energy of S varies periodically with time.
(B)

Solution

The gravitational force on the satellite will be aiming towards the centre of the earth so acceleration of the satellite will also be aiming towards the centre of the earth.
Q.14
A remote-sensing satellite of earth revolves in a circular orbit at a height of 0.25 106 m above the surface of earth. If earth's radius is 6.38 106 m and g = 9.8 ms2, then the orbital speed of the satellite is
(A)
9.13 km s1
(B)
6.67 km s1
(C)
7.76 km s1
(D)
8.56 km s1
(C)

Solution

The orbital speed of the satellite is



where R is the earth’s radius, g is the acceleration due to gravity on earth’s surface and h is the height above the surface of earth.

Here, R = 6.38 × 106m, g = 9.8 m s–2 and h = 0.25 × 106 m



= 7.76 × 103 m s–1 = 7.76 km s–1
Q.15
The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two wires of same length and of same area of cross section, one of steel and another of brass are suspended from the same roof. If we want the lower ends of the wires to be at the same level, then the weights added to the steel and brass wires must be in the ratio of
(A)
4 : 1
(B)
1 : 1
(C)
1 : 2
(D)
2 : 1
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Properties of Matter Question 70 English Explanation

Young's modulus


[ same for both brass and steel]


  
Q.16
The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

Let the speed of the ejection of the liquid through the holes be v. Then according to the equation of continuity,



Q.17
Water rises to a height h in capillary tube. If the length of capillary tube above the surface of water is made less than h, then
(A)
water rises upto a point a little below the top and stays there.
(B)
water does not rise at all.
(C)
water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then starts overflowing like a fountain.
(D)
water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays there without overflowing.
(D)

Solution

Water will not overflow but will change its radius of curvature.
Q.18
The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 5 104 K1. The fractional change in the density of glycerin for a rise of 40oC in its temperature, is
(A)
0.025
(B)
0.010
(C)
0.015
(D)
0.020
(D)

Solution

Let r0 and rT be densities of glycerin at 0°C and T°C respectively. Then,



where is the coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine and is rise in temperature.



Thus,

Here, and

The fractional change in the density of glycerin

Q.19
An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by means of several processes. Which of the process results in the maximum work done on the gas ?
(A)
Isochoric
(B)
Isothermal
(C)
Adiabatic
(D)
Isobaric
(C)

Solution

The P-V diagram of an ideal gas compressed from its initial volume to by several processes is shown in the figure.

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Heat and Thermodynamics Question 81 English Explanation

Work done on the gas = Area under P–V curve

As area under the P–V curve is maximum for adiabatic process, so work done on the gas is maximum for adiabatic process.
Q.20
The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the temperature inside freezer is 20oC, the temperature of the surroundings to which it rejects heat is
(A)
11oC
(B)
21oC
(C)
31oC
(D)
41oC
(C)

Solution

Coefficient of performance,





5T1 – (5 × 253) = 253

5T1 = 253 + (5 × 253) = 1518



T1 = 303.6 – 273 = 30.6 31°C
Q.21
Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at the same temperature, the pressure of A being twice that of B. Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be 1.5 times the density of B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is
(A)
2
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

From PV = nRT

and

From question,



Q.22
A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. Its maximum acceleration is and maximum velocity is . Them, its time period of vibration will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

As, we know, in SHM
Maximum acceleration of the particle, = A
Maximum velocity, = A



   
Q.23
A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies between these two. The lowest resonant frequency for this string is
(A)
10.5 Hz
(B)
105 Hz
(C)
155 Hz
(D)
205 Hz
(B)

Solution

In a stretched string all multiples of frequencies can be obtained i.e., if fundamental frequency is n then higher frequencies will be 2n, 3n, 4n ...

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Waves Question 55 English Explanation

So, the difference between any two successive frequencies will be 'n'

According to question, n = 420 – 315 = 105Hz

So the lowest frequency of the string is 105 Hz.
Q.24
The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is equal to the second overtone of an organ pipe open at both the ends. The length of organ pipe open at both the ends is
(A)
120 cm
(B)
140 cm
(C)
80 cm
(D)
100 cm
(A)

Solution

Fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe



Fundamental frequency of open organ pipe



Second overtone frequency of open organ pipe





cm
Q.25
A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz and an observer O are located at some distance from each other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4 m s1 at an angle of 60o with the source observer line as shown in the figure. The observer is at rest. The apparent frequency observed by the observer (velocity of sound in air 330 m s1), is
AIPMT 2015 Physics - Waves Question 53 English
(A)
106 Hz
(B)
97 Hz
(C)
100 Hz
(D)
103 Hz
(D)

Solution

Here, original frequency of sound, f0 = 100 Hz
Speed of source Vs = 19.4 cos 60° = 9.7

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Waves Question 53 English Explanation

From Doppler's formula







= 103Hz

Apparent frequency f1 = 103 Hz
Q.26
4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The specific heat capacity of the gas at constant volume is 5.0 J K1 mol1. If the speed of sound in this gas at NTP is 952 m s1, then the heat capacity at constant pressure is
(Take gas constant R 8.3 J K1 mol1)
(A)
7.0 J K1 mol1
(B)
8.5 J K1 mol1
(C)
8.0 J K1 mol1
(D)
7.5 J K1 mol1
(C)

Solution

Molar mass of the gas = 4g/mol
Speed of sound





Also,


[CV = 5.0 JK–1 given]
Q.27
If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed as V(x, y, z) = 6xy y + 2yz, the electric field (in N/C) at point (1, 1, 0) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

Potential in a region V = 6xy – y + 2yz

As we know the relation between electric
potential and electric field is





Q.28
Two metal wires of identical dimensions are connected in series. If 1 and 2 are the conductivity of the combination is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

In figure, two metal wires of identical dimension are connected in series

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Current Electricity Question 110 English Explanation




Q.29
A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30 V and a resistance 40.8 ohm all connected in series. If the ammeter has a coil of resistance 480 ohm and a shunt of 20 ohm, the reading in the ammeter will be
(A)
2A
(B)
1A
(C)
0.5 A
(D)
0.25 A
(C)

Solution

From circuit diagram

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Current Electricity Question 109 English Explanation
Resistance of ammeter
=

Total resistance R = 40.8 + 19.2 = 60

Reading in the ammeter

Q.30
A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance r are connected in series with a battery of e.m.f. E0 and a resistance r1. An unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a length of the potentiometer wire. The e.m.f. E will be given by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Current Electricity Question 108 English Explanation
The current through the potentiometer wire is


and the potential difference across the wire is



The potential gradient along the potentiometer wire is



As the unknown e.m.f. E is balanced against length l of the potentiometer wire,

Q.31
A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity C, distance of separation between plates is d and potential difference is applied between the plates. Force of attraction between the plates of the parallel plate air capacitor is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

Force of attraction between the plates, F = qE





Here, , , A = area
Q.32
A proton and an alpha particle both enter a region of uniform magnetic field B, moving at right angles to the field B. If the radius of circular orbits for both the particles is equal and the kinetic energy acquired by proton is 1 MeV, the energy acquired by the alpha particle will be
(A)
1.5 MeV
(B)
1 MeV
(C)
4 MeV
(D)
0.5 MeV
(B)

Solution

As we know, F = qvB =



Since R is same so,

Therefore KE of particle

Q.33
A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and width 0.1 m having 50 turns of wire is suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.2 weber/m2. The coil carries a current of 2 A. If the plane of the coil is inclined at an angle of 30o with the direction of the field, the torque required to keep the coil in stable equilibrium will be
(A)
0.24 Nm
(B)
0.12 Nm
(C)
0.15 Nm
(D)
0.20 Nm
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Magnetism and Matter Question 43 English Explanation
The required torque is = NIABsin

= (50)(2 A)(0.012 m2)(0.2 Wb/m2) sin60°

= 0.20 N m
Q.34
An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to the path of electron. What will be the direction of current, if any, induced in the coil ?

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Electromagnetic Induction Question 29 English
(A)
The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil
(B)
No current induced
(C)
abcd
(D)
adcb
(A)

Solution

When e is coming towards the loop magnetic flux of one type increased and when going away same magnetic flux decreased so induced current opposite to each other.
Q.35
A series R-C circuit is connected to an alternating voltage source. Consider two situations :
(a)  When capacitor is air filled.
(b)  When capacitor is mica filled.
Current through resistor is and voltage across capacitor is then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Alternating Current Question 60 English Explanation

For series R – C circuit, capacitive reactance,

Z=

Current through resistor, i = Current in the circuit

=

Voltage across capacitor, V = iXC

=

=

When mica is introduced capacitance will increase, hence voltage across capacitor gets decrease.
Q.36
The energy of the em waves is of the order of 15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does it belong ?
(A)
Ultraviolet rays
(B)
(C)
X-rays
(D)
Infra-red rays
(C)

Solution

Energy of x-ray is (100 eV to 100 keV).

Hence energy of the order of 15 keV belongs to X-rays.
Q.37
In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment a straight black line of length L is drawn on inside part of objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The length of this image is . The magnification of the telescope is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 74 English Explanation

Magnification by eye piece

m =

= -



Magnification, M = =
Q.38
A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incifent on a right angled prism. The refractive index of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively.

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 75 English
The prism will
(A)
not separate the three colours at all
(B)
separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
(C)
separate the blue colour part from the red and green colours
(D)
separate all the three colours from one another
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 75 English Explanation

for no emergence i C.

sin i sin C



= 1.414

As red (= 1.39) < (= 1.414) while green( = 1.44) and blue(= 1.47) > (= 1.414), so only red colour will be transmitted through face AC while green and blue colours will suffer total internal reflection.

So the prism will separate red colour from the green and blue colours.
Q.39
Two slits in Young's experiment have widths in the ratio 1 : 25. The ratio of intensity at the maxima and minima in the interference pattern, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Given, The ratio of slits width =



I A2

=



= = =

= =
Q.40
At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a single-slit diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the Huygen's wavelet from the edge of the slit and the wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is
(A)
radian
(B)
radian
(C)
radian
(D)
radian
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Wave Optics Question 33 English Explanation

For first minima at P

AP – BP =

AP – MP =

So phase difference, = = radian
Q.41
A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium and helium. Then
(A)
The helium nucleus has more momentum than the thorium nucleus.
(B)
The helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus.
(C)
The helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus.
(D)
The helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium nucleus.
(C)

Solution

In an explosion a body breaks up into two pieces of unequal masses both part will have numerically equal momentum and lighter part will have more velocity.

U Th + He

KETh =

KEHe =

since mHe is less so KEHe will be more.
Q.42
In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest wavelength in the Lyman series to the longest wavelength in the Balmer series is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

For the longest wavelength in the Lyman series,

n1 = 1 and n2 = 2

=

For the longest wavelength in the Balmer series,

n1 = 2 and n2 = 3

=

=
Q.43
Light of wavelength 500 nm is incifent on a metal with work function 2.28 eV. The de Broglie wavelength of the emitted electron is
(A)
2.8 109 m
(B)
2.8 1012 m
(C)
< 2.8 1010 m
(D)
< 2.8 109 m
(A)

Solution

KEmax = -

KEmax = - 2.28

KEmax = 2.48 – 2.28 = 0.2 eV

min =

=

= 2.8 109 m

2.8 109 m
Q.44
A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength and . If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work function of the surface of the material is
(h = Planck's constant, C = speed of light)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the first case is

= - 0

and that in the second case is

= - 0

Given = 3

- 0 = 3

- 0 =

20 =

0 =
Q.45
The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a voltage gain of 150 is Vi = 2cos(15t + ). The corresponding output signal will be
(A)
2cos
(B)
300cos
(C)
300cos
(D)
75cos
(B)

Solution

Given, Vi = 2cos(15t + )

and Voltage gain AV = 150

For CE transistor phase difference between input and output signal is = 180o

Using formula, AV =

V0 = AV Vi

= 1502cos(15t + + )

= 300cos
Q.46
In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an external resistance R = 100 and an e.m.f. of 3.5 V. If the barrier potential developed across the diode is 0.5 V, the current in the citcuit will be

AIPMT 2015 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 108 English
(A)
20 mA
(B)
35 mA
(C)
30 mA
(D)
40 mA
(C)

Solution

Potential difference across resistance R

= 3.5 – 0.5 = 3.0 V

Current in circuit, I = V/R = 3/100 = 30 mA
Chemistry (Maximum Marks: 180)
  • This section contains 45 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is mixed with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution ? (Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5
(A)
3.5 g
(B)
7 g
(C)
14 g
(D)
28 g
(B)

Solution

50 ml of 16.9% solution of AgNO3

= 8.45 g of AgNO3

nmole =

=

50ml of 5.8% solution of NaCl contain

NaCl =

nNaCl =

= 0.0495 moles

AgNO3 + NaCl AgCl + Na + Cl
1 mole 1 mole 1 mole
0.049 mole 0.049 mole 0.049 mole of AgCl

n =

w = (nAgCl) Molecular mass

= (0.049) (107.8 + 35.5) = 7.02 g
Q.2
If Avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022 1023 mol1 to 6.022 1020 mol1, this would change
(A)
the mass of one mole of carbon
(B)
the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation
(C)
the ratio of elements to each other in a compound
(D)
the definition of mass in units of grams.
(A)

Solution

We know mass of 1 mol (6.022 1023) atoms of carbon = 12 g

If Avogadro number is changed to 6.022 1020 then mass of 1 mol of cabon is

= =

It would change the mass of one mole of carbon.
Q.3
What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m aqueous solution?
(A)
1.770
(B)
0.0354
(C)
0.0177
(D)
0.177
(C)

Solution

Number of moles of water in 1000 g = = 55.56 mol

Thus, mole fraction of solute = = 0.0177
Q.4
The number of water molecules is maximum in
(A)
1.8 gram of water
(B)
18 gram of water
(C)
18 moles of water
(D)
18 molecules of water
(C)

Solution

1.8 g of water =

= 6.023 1022 molecules

18 g of water = 6.023 1023 molecules = 1 mole of water

18 moles of water = 18 6.023 1023 molecules

Q.5
Which is the correct order of increasing energy of the listed orbitals in the atom of titanium ? (At. no. Z = 22)
(A)
4s 3s 3p 3d
(B)
3s 3p 3d 4s
(C)
3s 3p 4s 3d
(D)
3s 4s 3p 3d
(C)

Solution

Ti (22) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d2

Order of increasing energy is 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d
Q.6
A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most likely to obey the ideal gas law at
(A)
low temperaures and high pressures
(B)
high temperatures and hgh pressures
(C)
low temperatures and low pressures
(D)
high temperature and low pressures.
(D)

Solution

Real gas shows ideal gas behaviour at high temperature and low pressure.
Q.7
If the equilibrium constant for

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) is K, the equilibrium

constant for

N2(g) + O2(g) NO(g) will be
(A)
K
(B)
K
(C)
K2
(D)
K1/2
(D)

Solution

When a reaction is divided by factor n then the new equilibrium constant of the reaction will be .

Thus, here the given reaction is multiplied by factor then the new equilibrium constant will be .
Q.8
Which one of the following pairs of solution is not an acidic buffer ?
(A)
CH3COOH and CH3COONa
(B)
H2CO3 and Na2CO3
(C)
H3PO4 and Na3PO4
(D)
HClO4 and NaClO4
(D)

Solution

An acidic buffer is a mixture of a weak acid and its salt with a strong base. Among CH3COOH, H2CO3, H3PO4 and HClO4, the HClO4 is a strong acid while all other are weak acid thus, HClO4 and NaClO4 does not constitute to form an acidic buffer.
Q.9
What is the pH of the resulting solution when equal volumes of 0.1 M NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are mixed?
(A)
2.0
(B)
7.0
(C)
1.04
(D)
12.65
(D)

Solution

            HCl + NaOH NaCl + H2O
Initial  0.01       0.1            0          0
Final     0         0.09          0.01     0.01

As equal volumes of HCl and NaOH are added so the volume of resulting solution becomes double and the concentration of the solution becomes half.

[OH-] = = 0.045 M

pOH = – log[OH ] = –log [0.045] = 1.35

pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 1.35 = 12.65
Q.10
The heat of combination of carbon to CO2 is 393.5 kJ/mol. The heat released upon formation of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon and oxygen gas is
(A)
+ 315 kJ
(B)
630 kJ
(C)
3.15 kJ
(D)
315 kJ
(D)

Solution

To determine the heat released when 35.2 g of CO2 is formed from carbon and oxygen gas, we will follow these steps:

1. Calculate the number of moles of CO2:

The molar mass of CO2 can be calculated as follows:

Carbon (C): 12.01 g/mol

Oxygen (O): 16.00 g/mol

So, the molar mass of CO2 is:

The number of moles of CO2 in 35.2 g is calculated using:

2. Calculate the heat released for 0.8 moles of CO2:

The heat of combination given is -393.5 kJ/mol. This is the energy released when 1 mole of CO2 is formed:


After rounding, the heat released is approximately -315 kJ.

Answer: Option D 315 kJ.

Q.11
Aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is the best conductor of electric current ?
(A)
Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(B)
Ammonia, NH3
(C)
Fructose, C6H12O6
(D)
Acetic acid, C2H4O2
(A)

Solution

HCl completely dissociates to give H+ and Cl- ions, hence act as very good electrolyte. While others are non- electrolytes.
Q.12
The rate constant of the reaction A B is 0.6 103 mol L1 s1. If the concentration of A is 5 M, then concentration of B after 20 minutes is
(A)
3.60 M
(B)
0.36 M
(C)
0.72 M
(D)
1.08 M
(C)

Solution

For zero order reaction unit of rate constant is mole per second.

For zero order

x = kt

x = 0.6 × 10–3 × 20 × 60 = 0.72 M
Q.13
The correct statement regarding defects in crystalline solids is
(A)
Frenkel defects decrease the density of crystalline solids
(B)
Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect
(C)
Frenkel defect is found in halides of alkaline metals
(D)
Schottky defects have no effect on the density of crystalline solids.
(B)

Solution

Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect as smaller ions (usually cations) are dislocated from normal sites to interstitial sites. Frenkel defect is shown by compounds having large difference in the size of cations and anions hence, alkali metal halides do not show Frenkel defect. Also, Schottky defect decreases the density of crystal while Frenkel defect has no effect on the density of crystal.
Q.14
The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is
(A)
48%
(B)
23%
(C)
32%
(D)
26%
(C)

Solution

Packing efficiency of bcc lattice = 68% Hence, empty space = 32%.
Q.15
Decreasing order of stability of O2, O2, O2+ and O22 is
(A)
O22  >  O2  >  O2  >  O2+
(B)
O2  >  O2+  >  O22  >  O2
(C)
O2  >  O22  >  O2+  >  O2
(D)
O2+  >  O2  >  O2  >  O22
(D)

Solution

According to molecular orbital theory as bond order decreases stability of the molecule decreases.

Bond order = (Nb - Na)

Bond order of = (10 - 5) = 2.5

Bond order of = (10 - 6) = 2

Bond order of = (10 - 7) = 1.5

Bond order of = (10 - 8) = 1.0

Hence the correct order is > > >
Q.16
In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural ?
(A)
Diamond, Silicon carbide
(B)
NH3, PH3
(C)
XeF4, XeO4
(D)
SiCl4, PCl4+
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 110 English Explanation
Q.17
In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore. the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide with
(A)
carbon monoxide
(B)
copper (I) sulphide
(C)
sulphur dioxide
(D)
iron (II) sulphide.
(B)

Solution

Cu2S + 2Cu2O 6Cu + SO2
Q.18
On heating which of the following releases CO2 most easily?
(A)
Na2CO3
(B)
MgCO3
(C)
CaCO3
(D)
K2CO3
(B)

Solution

Carbonates becomes more thermally stable down the group, Also, the alkali metal carbonate are more stable than alkaline earth metal carbonates. Therefore MgCO3 will leave CO2 easily.

MgCO3 MgO + CO2
Q.19
20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0 g magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample?
(At. wt. of Mg = 24)
(A)
96
(B)
60
(C)
84
(D)
75
(C)

Solution

MgCO3 MgO + CO2

84 g of MgCO3 40 g of MgO

20 g of MgCO3 = = 9.52 g of MgO

But Actual yield = 8 g of MgO

% purity = = 84%
Q.20
Which of the statements given below is incorrect?
(A)
O3 molecule is bent.
(B)
ONF is isoelectronic with O2N
(C)
OF2 is an oxides of fluorine.
(D)
Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid.
(C)

Solution

OF2 (oxygen difluoride) is a fluoride of oxygen because fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen.
Q.21
The formation of the oxide ion, O2(g) from oxygen atom requires first an exthermic and then an endothermic step as shown below:
O(g) + e O(g);  fHo = 141 kJ mol1

O(g) + e O2(g);  fHo = +780 kJ mol1

Thus, process of formation of O2 is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that,
(A)
O ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom
(B)
oxygen is more electronegative
(C)
addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion
(D)
electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
(D)

Solution

The process of formation of O2– in gas phase is unfavourable even though O2– is isoelectronic with neon because electron repulsion outweigh the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
Q.22
Strong reducing behavior of H3PO2 is due to
(A)
high electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
(B)
high oxidation state of phosphorus
(C)
presence of two OH groups and one PH bond
(D)
presence of one OH group and two PH bonds.
(D)

Solution

All oxyacids of phosphorus which have P—H bonds act as strong reducing agents. H3PO2 has two P—H bonds hence, it acts as a strong reducing agent.
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - p-Block Elements Question 62 English Explanation
Q.23
The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr > HCl.

What explains the higher boiling point of hydrogen fluoride?
(A)
There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF molecules.
(B)
The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than in other hydrogen halides.
(C)
The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced in fluorine which polarises the HF molecule.
(D)
The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher than for other elements in the group.
(A)

Solution

HF forms strong intermolecular H-bonding due to high electronegativity of F. Hence, the boiling point of HF is exceptionally high. Boiling points of other hydrogen halides gradually increases from HCl to HI due to increase in the size of halogen atoms form Cl to I, which further increases the magnitude of van der Waal's forces.
Q.24
The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In and Tl increases in the sequence
(A)
Al < Ga < In < Tl
(B)
Tl < In < Ga < Al
(C)
In < Tl < Ga < Al
(D)
Ga < In < Al < Tl
(A)

Solution

The given elements belong to 13th group. The elements mainly exhibit +3 and +1 oxidation states. As we know, the stability of lower oxidation state i.e., +1 state, increases on moving down the group due to inert pair effect. The, stability follows the order :

Al < Ga < In < Tl
Q.25
Assuming complete ionisation, same moles of which of the following compounds will require the least amount of acidified KMnO4 for complete oxidation?
(A)
FeSO3
(B)
FeC2O4
(C)
Fe(NO2)2
(D)
FeSO4
(D)

Solution

FeSO4 will require the least amount of acidified KMnO4 for complete oxidation.
Q.26
Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?
(A)
[Xe]4f95s1
(B)
[Xe]4f75d16s2
(C)
[Xe]4f65d26s2
(D)
[Xe]4f86d2
(B)

Solution

Gd(64) = [Xe]4f75d16s2
Q.27
Number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl will be (en = ethylenediamine)
(A)
1
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
2
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 95 English Explanation

Total possible isomers = 3
Q.28
The hybridization involved in complex [Ni(CN)4] is (At. No. Ni = 28)
(A)
sp3
(B)
d2sp2
(C)
d2sp3
(D)
dsp2
(D)

Solution

Electronic configuration of Ni2+ : 3d84s0
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 98 English Explanation

Pairing of electrons in d-orbital takes place due to the presence of strong field ligand (CN -).
Q.29
The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M in the complex [M(en)2(C2O4)]Cl (where en is ethylenediamine) is
(A)
6
(B)
7
(C)
8
(D)
9
(D)

Solution

[M (en)2(C2O4)]Cl

x + 0 – 2 – 2 – 1 = 0

x = + 2 + 1

x = + 3

We know that coordination number is defined as the total number of binding sites attached to the metal.

Coordination number = 6

Sum of oxidation number and coordination number = 3 + 6 = 9
Q.30
The name of complex ion, [Fe(CN)6]3 is
(A)
hexacyanitoferrate (III) ion
(B)
tricyanoferrate (III) ion
(C)
hexacyanidoferrate (III) ion
(D)
hexacyanoiron (III) ion.
(C)

Solution

[Fe(CN)6] 3–

x – 6 = –3

x = +6 – 3

x = +3

Hexa cyanido ferrate (III) ion.
Q.31
Which of the following statements is not correct for a nucleophile?
(A)
Ammonia is a nucleophile.
(B)
Nucleophiles attack low e density sites.
(C)
Nucleophiles are not electron seeking.
(D)
Nucleophile is a Lewis acid.
(D)

Solution

Nucleophile is a species that provide electron while species which are deficient of electrons are termed as lewis acid, hence nucleophiles are usually lewis bases.
Q.32
The possible stereo-structures of CH3CHOHCOOH, which are optically active, are called
(A)
atropisomers
(B)
enantiomers
(C)
mesomers
(D)
diastereomers
(B)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 46 English Explanation They are enantiomers (non-superimposable mirror images)
Q.33
In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov's rule to give a product 1-chloro-1 methylcyclohexane. The possible alkene is
(A)
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 55 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 55 English Option 2
(C)
(A) and (B)
(D)
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 55 English Option 4
(C)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 55 English Explanation 1 AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 55 English Explanation 2
Q.34
Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of

AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 69 English
(A)
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 69 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 69 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 69 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 69 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 69 English Explanation
Q.35
2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene can be prepared by heating which of the following compounds with a strong acid?
(A)
(CH3)3CCH CH2
(B)
(CH3)2C CHCH2CH3
(C)
(CH3)2CHCH2CH CH2
(D)
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 54 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 54 English Explanation
Q.36
In an SN1 reaction on chiral centers, there is
(A)
inversion more than retention leading to partial racemisation
(B)
100% retention
(C)
100% inversion
(D)
100% racemisation
(A)

Solution

In case of optically active alkyl halides, SN1 reaction is accompanied by racemisation. The carbocation formed in the slow step being sp2 hybridised is planar and attack of nucleophile may take place from either side resulting in a mixture of products, one having the same configuration and other having inverted configuration.

The isomer corresponding to inversion is present in slight excess because SN1 also depends upon the degree of shielding of the front side of the reacting carbon.
Q.37
Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally introduces which one of the following functional group?
(A)
COOH
(B)
CHCl2
(C)
CHO
(D)
CH2Cl
(C)

Solution

This is Reimer–Tiemann reaction. AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 51 English Explanation
Q.38
Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for the preparation of alkyl halides?

AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 25 English
(A)
(I) and (II) only
(B)
(IV) only
(C)
(III) and (IV) only
(D)
(I), (III) and (IV) only
(D)

Solution

Lucas reagent [HCl + ZnCl2] can be used for
1o / 2o / 3o-alcohol but if ZnCl2 is absent then only 3o alcohol can be used because it is most reactive due to 3o carbocation.
Q.39
Reaction of a carbonyl compound with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed by elimination of water. The reagent is
(A)
hydrazine in presence of feebly acidic solution
(B)
hydrocyanic acid
(C)
sodium hydrogen sulphate
(D)
a Grignard reagent.
(A)

Solution

Carbonyl compounds react with ammonia derivatives in weakly acidic medium as follows :
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 92 English Explanation
Q.40
The oxidation of benzene by V2O5 in the presence of air produces
(A)
maleic anhydride
(B)
benzoic acid
(C)
benzaldehyde
(D)
benzoic anhydride.
(A)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 93 English Explanation
Q.41
Which one of the following esters gets hydrolysed most easily under alkaline conditions?
(A)
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 73 English Option 1
(B)
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 73 English Option 2
(C)
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 73 English Option 3
(D)
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 73 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

Among the substituent attached to the benzene ring, –NO2 group is the most electron withdrawing, thus withdraws electron density from carbonyl carbon thus facilitate the attack of OH ion.
Q.42
The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C3H9N is
(A)
5
(B)
2
(C)
3
(D)
4
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 48 English Explanation

Total 4 structural isomers are possible.
Q.43
Method by which aniline cannot be prepared is
(A)
degradation of benzamide with bromine in alkaline solution
(B)
reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in ethanol
(C)
potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution
(D)
hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with acidic solution.
(C)

Solution

Because arylhalides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction with potassium phthalimide easily.
Q.44
The following reaction
AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 50 English
is known by the name
(A)
Perkin's reaction
(B)
Acetylation reaction
(C)
Schotten-Baumann reaction
(D)
Friedel-Craft's reaction
(C)

Solution

Schotten-Bauman reaction is a method to synthesize amides from amines and acid chlorides.
Q.45
Caprolactam is used for the manufacture of
(A)
teflon
(B)
terylene
(C)
nylon 6, 6
(D)
nylon 6.
(D)

Solution

AIPMT 2015 Chemistry - Polymers Question 34 English Explanation
Biology (Maximum Marks: 328)
  • This section contains 82 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
Match the columns and identify the correct option.
Column I Column II
(a) Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi
apparatus
(b) Cristae (ii) Condensed structure of DNA
(c) Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous sacs in
stroma
(d) Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in mitochondria
(A)
(a) (iv), (b) (ii), (c) (i), (d) (iii)
(B)
(a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (i), (d) (ii)
(C)
(a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (ii)
(D)
(a) (iii), (b) (i), (c) (iv), (d) (ii)
(C)

Solution

The correct matching is:

Option C

(a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (ii)

Here's a detailed explanation of the match:

(a) Thylakoids (iii) Flat membranous sacs in stroma: Thylakoids are indeed the flattened, sac-like structures found within the stroma of chloroplasts. They are the sites of light-dependent reactions in photosynthesis.

(b) Cristae (iv) Infoldings in mitochondria: Cristae are the inward folds of the inner membrane of mitochondria. These folds increase the surface area, providing more space for the electron transport chain and ATP synthesis, crucial processes in cellular respiration.

(c) Cisternae (i) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus: Cisternae are the flattened, stacked membrane-bound compartments that make up the Golgi apparatus. They play a role in modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids.

(d) Chromatin (ii) Condensed structure of DNA: Chromatin is the complex of DNA and proteins found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. It condenses during cell division to form visible chromosomes.

Q.2
Which of the following are not membranebound ?
(A)
Ribosomes
(B)
Mesosomes
(C)
Lysosomes
(D)
Vacuoles
(A)

Solution

Endoplasmic reticulum, nuclei, lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria are membrane bound cell organelles whereas ribosomes are naked ribonucleoprotein protoplasmic particles. Chromosomes are the hereditary particles present in the nucleus.
Q.3
Which of the following structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell?
(A)
Mesosome
(B)
Nuclear envelope
(C)
Ribosome
(D)
Plasma membrane
(B)

Solution

A prokaryotic cell is characterised by absence of an organised nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles. DNA is naked i.e., without a nuclear envelope and lies variously coiled in the cytoplasm. It is commonly called nucleoid or genophore. Mesosomes, plasma membrane and 70S ribosomes are present in a prokaryotic cell.
Q.4
Cellular organelles with membranes are -
(A)
endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei
(B)
lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria
(C)
nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria
(D)
chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum
(B)

Solution

Lysosomes, golgi apparatus and mitochondria are the cell organelles which have membranes.
Q.5
The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by the polymerisation of
(A)
N - acetyl glucosamine
(B)
lipoglycans
(C)
keratin sulphate and chondrotin sulphate
(D)
D - glucosamine.
(A)

Solution

Chitin is a structural polysaccharide that constitutes the exoskeleton of arthropods. It is a complex carbohydrate in which N-acetyl glucosamine monomers are joined together by (1, 4) -linkages. Chitinous exoskeleton provides strength and elasticity to arthropods.
Q.6
Which of the following biomolecules does have a phosphodiester bond?
(A)
Amino acids in a polypeptide
(B)
Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
(C)
Fatty acids in a diglyceride
(D)
Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
(B)

Solution

Nucleic acids have phophodiester bond in a nucleotide.
Q.7
Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence
(i)  Crossing over
(ii)  Synapsis
(iii)  Terminalisation of chiasmata
(iv)  Disappearance of nucleolus
(A)
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B)
(ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(C)
(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D)
(ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D)

Solution

Prophase-I of meiosis has been divided into five sub-stages which occur in the sequence as : Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene Diplotene Diakinesis. Synapsis i.e., pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs during zygotene. Crossing over i.e., exchange of chromatid segments occurs during pachytene. Terminalisation of chiasmata i.e., shifting of chiasmata towards the ends of chromosomes and complete disappearance of nucleolus take place during diakinesis.
Q.8
Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of
(A)
aleurone cell
(B)
synergids
(C)
generative cell
(D)
nucellar embryo.
(B)

Solution

Filliform apparatus is a mass of finger like projections of the wall into the cytoplasm. It is present in synergids (help cells) of the embryo sac, in the micropylar region. It guards the pollen tube inside the ovule towards the embryo sac.
Q.9
In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and mega-sporogenesis
(A)
involve meiosis
(B)
occur in ovule
(C)
occur in anther
(D)
form gametes without further divisions.
(A)

Solution

In angiosperms, microsporogenesis i.e., formation of microspores (or pollen grains) occurs by the meiotic divisions of diploid microspore mother cells (or pollen mother cells). Microsporogenesis takes place in the anther. Megasporogenesis i.e. formation of megaspores occurs by the meiotic divisions of diploid megaspore mother cells. Megasporogenesis takes place in the ovule.
Q.10
Flowers are unisexual in
(A)
China rose
(B)
onion
(C)
pea
(D)
cucumber.
(D)

Solution

The flowers of cucumber are unisexual, it means they have only male flowers or only female flowers.
Q.11
Coconut water from a tender coconut is
(A)
innermost layers of the seed coat
(B)
degenerated nucellus
(C)
immature embryo
(D)
free nuclear endosperm.
(D)

Solution

Coconut water is the free nuclear endosperm which is used.
Q.12
Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic?
(A)
Jackfruit
(B)
Banana
(C)
Brinjal
(D)
Apple
(B)

Solution

Parthenocarpic fruits are the fruits which are formed without fertilisation. These fruits are naturally seedless, e.g., banana.
Q.13
Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces
(A)
single sperm and two vegetative cells
(B)
three sperms
(C)
two sperms and a vegetative cell
(D)
single sperm and a vegetative cell.
(C)

Solution

The protoplast of the male gametophyte divides mitotically to produce two unequal cells — a small generative cell and a large vegetative cell. The generative cell divides later into two non-motile male gametes (or sperms). Thus, the male gametophyte in angiosperms produces two sperms and a vegetative cell. The vegetative cell, later on, grows to produce pollen tube.
Q.14
Match the following list of microbes and their importance -
Column I Column II
(a) Sacharomyces cerevisiae (i) Production of immunosuppressive agent
(b) Monascus purpureus (ii) Ripening of Swiss cheese
(c) Trichoderma polysporum (iii) Commercial production of ethanol
(d) Propionibacterium sharmanii (iv) Production of blood cholesterol lowering agents
(A)
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(B)
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(C)
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(D)
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(B)
Q.15
Read the different components from (1) to (4) in the list given below and tell the correct order of the components with reference to their arrangement from outer side to inner side in a woody dicot stem :
(1) Secondary cortex
(2) Wood
(3) Secondary phoem
(4) Phellem
The correct order is :
(A)
(3), (4), (2), (1)
(B)
(4), (1), (3), (2)
(C)
(4), (3), (1), (2)
(D)
(1), (2), (4), (3)
(B)

Solution

The correct sequence from outerside to inner side in a woody dicot stem is as follows: Phellem → Secondary cortex → Secondary phloem → Wood , [(4) → (1) → (3) → (2)]
Q.16
A column of water within xylem vessels of tall trees does not break under its weight because of
(A)
lignification of xylem vessels
(B)
positive root pressure
(C)
dissolved sugars in water
(D)
tensile strength of water.
(D)

Solution

Due to tensile strength of water, a column of water within xylem vessels of tall trees does not break under its weight.
Q.17
Root pressure develops due to
(A)
passive absorption
(B)
active absorption
(C)
increase in transpiration
(D)
low osmotic potential in soil.
(B)

Solution

Active absorption creates root pressure. In this process, the expenditure of energy takes place for the movement of substances against concentration gradient.
Q.18
During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation of nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning is prevented by
(A)
carotene
(B)
cytochrome
(C)
leghaemoglobin
(D)
xanthophyll.
(C)

Solution

Leghaemoglobin is a pinkish pigment present in the root nodules of leguminous plants. It acts as oxygen scavenger and prevents the inactivation of nitrogenase enzyme by oxygen poisoning.
Q.19
The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis, comes from water molecules. Which one of the following pairs of elements is involved in this reaction?
(A)
Magnesium and Molybdenum
(B)
Magnesium and Chlorine
(C)
Manganese and chlorine
(D)
Manganese and Potassium
(C)

Solution

During photosynthesis photolysis of water is induced by Mn++ and CI ions.
Q.20
The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of -
(A)
Restriction enzymes
(B)
Selectable markers
(C)
Probes
(D)
Ligases
(A)

Solution

Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA at specific locations.
Q.21
The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called -
(A)
Transformer
(B)
Template
(C)
Vector
(D)
Carrier
(C)

Solution

Vector is a DNA molecule that carries a foreign DNA segment and replicates inside a host cell. The vector DNA and foreign DNA carrying gene of interest are cut by the same restriction endonuclease enzyme to produce complementary sticky ends. With the help of DNA ligase enzyme, the complementary sticky ends of the two DNAs are joined to produce a recombinant DNA (rDNA), which is then introduced into the host cell.
Q.22
The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere is termed as -
(A)
Alien
(B)
Rate
(C)
Endemic
(D)
Keystone
(C)

Solution

Endemic species is confined to a particular area due to special type of adaptation according to that region.
Q.23
The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and/or host tissues are
(A)
mesosomes
(B)
holdfast
(C)
rhizoids
(D)
fimbriae.
(D)

Solution

Fimbriae are small bristle-like solid structures arising from bacterial cell surface.

There are 300-400 of fimbriae per cell. Their diameter is 3- 10 nm while length is 0.5-1.5 m. Fimbriae are involved in attaching bacteria to solid surfaces (e.g., rock in water body) or host tissues (e.g., urinary tract in Neisseria gonorrhoeae). Some fimbriae cause agglutination of RBCs. They also help in mutual clinging of bacteria.
Q.24
Pick up the wrong statement.
(A)
Some fungi are edible.
(B)
Nuclear membrane is present in Monera.
(C)
Cell wall is absent in Animalia.
(D)
Protists have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition.
(B)

Solution

The kingdom Monera possesses unicellular organisms (e.g - bacteria) having no nuclear membrane.
Q.25
Select the wrong statement.
(A)
The term 'contagium vivum fluidum' was coined by M. W. Beijerinck.
(B)
Mosaic disease in tobaco and AIDS in human being are caused by viruses.
(C)
The viroids were discovered by D.J. Ivanowsky.
(D)
W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallised.
(C)

Solution

T.O. Dinear (1971) discovered the viroids which are smaller than viruses.
Q.26
Choose the wrong statement.
(A)
Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms.
(B)
Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation.
(C)
Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics.
(D)
Neurospora is used in the study of bio-chemical genetics.
(A)

Solution

Morel and truffles are used as food and they are members of Ascomycetes fungi.
Q.27
In which group of organisms the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells which fit together?
(A)
Dinoflagellates
(B)
Slime moulds
(C)
Chrysophytes
(D)
Euglenoids
(C)

Solution

Chrysophytes include diatoms and desmids. The body of diatoms is covered by a transparent siliceous shell (silica deposited in cell wall) known as frustule.

The frustule is made of two valves, epitheca and hypotheca, which fit together like a soap box.
Q.28
Cell wall is absent in
(A)
Mycoplasma
(B)
Nostoc
(C)
Aspergillus
(D)
Funaria.
(A)

Solution

Mycoplasma (Kingdom-Monera) are the simplest and smallest free living prokaryotes which are devoid of a cell wall. Plasma membrane forms the outer boundary of the cell of mycoplasma.

Nostoc is a cyanobacterium (Kingdom- Monera), in which cell wall comprises of peptidoglycans. Aspergillus is a fungus (Kingdom-Fungi) in which cell wall is mainly made of chitin.

Funaria is a bryophyte (Kingdom-Plantae) in which cell wall is cellulosic in nature.
Q.29
The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to
(A)
Ascomycetes
(B)
Phycomycetes
(C)
Basidiomycetes
(D)
Deuteromycetes
(D)

Solution

Class- deuteromycetes comprises of imperfect fungi which play role in decomposition of organic wastes.
Q.30
The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield shaped cotyledon known as
(A)
scutellum
(B)
coleoptile
(C)
epiblast
(D)
coleorhiza.
(A)

Solution

The seeds of monocotyledonous plants have only one cotyledon. In Family Poaceae (e.g., wheat, maize etc.), this cotyledon is called scutellum, situated towards lateral side of embryonal axis. It provides nourishment to the developing embryo.
Q.31
Axile placentation is present in
(A)
pea
(B)
Argemone
(C)
Dianthus
(D)
lemon.
(D)

Solution

In a multilocular ovary, when the placenta is axial and ovules are attached to it is known as axile placentation.
Q.32
Among China rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, guava, cucumber, onion and tulip, how many plants have superior ovary?
(A)
Three
(B)
Four
(C)
Five
(D)
Six
(D)

Solution

China rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, onion and tulip are the plants that have superior ovary whereas in guava and cucumber, ovary is inferior.
Q.33
Roots play insignificant role in absorption of water in
(A)
pea
(B)
wheat
(C)
sunflower
(D)
Pistia.
(D)

Solution

Pistia (water lettuce) is a floating aquatic plant. In aquatic plants, roots are generally poorly developed and do not take part in absorption of water. Water is absorbed by the general body surface in these plants.
Q.34
In photosynthesis, the light-independent reactions take place at
(A)
photosystem II
(B)
stromal matrix
(C)
thylakoid lumen
(D)
photosystem I.
(B)

Solution

The light-independent reactions (dark or Blackman’s reactions) of photosynthesis take place in stroma or matrix of chloroplasts. These reactions are enzymatic reactions which catalyse assimilation of CO2 into carbohydrates.
Q.35
Chromatophores take part in
(A)
movement
(B)
respiration
(C)
photosynthesis
(D)
growth.
(C)

Solution

Chromatophores play an important role in the process of photo synthesis. They contain pigments and are found in blue green algae.
Q.36
Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA?
(A)
Complementary base pairing
(B)
5' phosphoryl and 3' hydroxyl ends
(C)
Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
(D)
Chargaff's rule
(D)

Solution

Chargaff’s rules are applicable only for double stranded DNA molecule. These are not applicable for single stranded DNA or RNA molecules. Chargaff’s rules state that DNA helices contain equal molar ratios of A and T, G and C. This is because in a ds DNA molecule, complementary base pairing occurs between A and T, and C and G base pairs. This complementary base pairing is not possible in case of single stranded RNA molecule. Thus, Chargaff’s rules are not applicable to RNA.
Q.37
Balbiani rings are sites of :
(A)
Polysaccharide synthesis
(B)
Lipid synthesis
(C)
RNA and protein synthesis
(D)
Nucleotide synthesis
(C)

Solution

RNA and protein synthesis occur in Balbiani rings.
Q.38
Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest :
(A)
Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
(B)
Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
(C)
Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
(D)
Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
(C)

Solution

The correct order of organization of genetic material from largest to smallest is:

Genome > Chromosome > Gene > Nucleotide

Genome: It is the complete set of genetic material or DNA present in a cell or an organism, including all the genes, regulatory sequences, and non-coding DNA.

Chromosome: It is a thread-like structure made up of DNA and protein that carries genetic information in the form of genes. In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are found in the nucleus, while in prokaryotic cells, they are present in the cytoplasm.

Gene: It is a unit of heredity that carries information for the synthesis of a particular protein or RNA molecule. A gene is a sequence of DNA that is transcribed into RNA and then translated into a protein.

Nucleotide: It is the basic building block of DNA and RNA, consisting of a nitrogenous base, a sugar molecule, and a phosphate group. The sequence of nucleotides in DNA determines the genetic information and the traits of an organism.

Therefore, the correct order of organization of genetic material from largest to smallest is genome > chromosome > gene > nucleotide, where genome is the largest and nucleotide is the smallest unit.
Q.39
Satellite DNA is important because it :
(A)
Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable from parents to children.
(B)
does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population.
(C)
codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.
(D)
codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.
(A)

Solution

Satellite DNA displays high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an individual, which is inherited from parents to children (offsprings).
Q.40
A protoplast is a cell -
(A)
undergoing division
(B)
without plasma membrane
(C)
without nucleus
(D)
without cell wall
(D)

Solution

Cell wall is absent in a protoplast.
Q.41
Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal husbandry because it :
(A)
helps in accumulation of superior genes.
(B)
is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression.
(C)
is useful in producing purelines of animals.
(D)
exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
(B)

Solution

Outbreeding is the breeding of unrelated animals, which may be between individuals of the same breed (but having no common ancestors), or between different breeds (cross breeding) or different species (inter specific hybridisation). Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal husbandry as it helps to overcome inbreeding depression.
Q.42
Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for biosynthesis of -
(A)
Vitamin C
(B)
Omega 3
(C)
Vitamin A
(D)
Vitamin B
(C)

Solution

Golden rice is a transgenic variety of rice (Oryza sativa) which contains good quantities of -carotene (provitamin A - inactive state of vitamin A). -carotene is a principal source of vitamin A. Since the grains of this rice is yellow in colour due to -carotene and commonly called golden rice.
Q.43
The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves -
(A)
Altering the pH of the soil, then heatshocking the plants
(B)
Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(C)
Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
(D)
Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
(B)

Solution

Agrobacterium tumefaciens introduces t-DNA into the plant.
Q.44
An association of individuals of different species living in the same habitat and having functional interactions is -
(A)
Ecological niche
(B)
Ecosystem
(C)
Population
(D)
Biotic community
(D)

Solution

Biotic community is an association of individuals of different species living in the same habitat and showing functional interactions.
Q.45
In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected?
(A)
Competition
(B)
Predation
(C)
Mutualism
(D)
Parasitism
(A)

Solution

Competition is the rivalry between two or more organisms for obtaining the same resources such as food, light, water, space, shelter, mate, etc. Competitors adversely affect each other.
Q.46
Eutrophication of water bodies leading to killing of fishes is mainly due to nonavailability of -
(A)
light
(B)
food
(C)
essential minerals
(D)
oxygen
(D)

Solution

Due to eutrophication, water bodies lack oxygen causing death of aquatic life.
Q.47
Increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels is known as :
(A)
Biomagnification
(B)
Biotransformation
(C)
Biodeterioration
(D)
Biogeochemical cycling
(A)

Solution

Biomagnification means an increase in concentration of toxins through the trophic levels of a food chain.
Q.48
The UN conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2012 was held at :
(A)
Lima
(B)
Warsaw
(C)
Doha
(D)
Durban
(C)

Solution

This conference occured from 20 Nov to 8 December, 2012 to extend the life of the Kyoto Protocol at Doha in Qatar.
Q.49
Acid rain is caused by increase in the atmospheric concentration of -
(A)
SO3 and CO
(B)
CO2 and CO
(C)
O3 and dust
(D)
SO2 and NO2
(D)

Solution

Acid rain is rainfall and other forms of precipitation with a pH of less than 5. Acid rain is caused by large scale emission of acidic gases into the atmosphere from thermal power plants, industries and automobiles. The common ones are sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxides (NOx), volatile organic carbons (VOCs) and hydrogen chloride. Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are changed in the atmosphere into sulphuric acid and nitric acid by combining with oxygen and water, which then fall on earth in the form of acid rain.
Q.50
Which of the following are most suitable indicators of SO2 pollution in the environment?
(A)
Conifers
(B)
Fungi
(C)
Algae
(D)
Lichens
(D)

Solution

Lichens cannot grow in places where sulphur dioxide is present in the environment.
Q.51
Which one is a wrong statement?
(A)
Haploid endosperm is typical feature of Gymnosperms.
(B)
Brown algae have chlorophyll and and fucoxanthin.
(C)
Archegonia are found in Bryophyta, Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms.
(D)
Mucor has biflagellate zoospores.
(D)

Solution

Mucor is a member of Zygomycetes (the conjugation fungi) in which motile cells (e.g., zoospores, planogametes etc.) are absent. A sexual reproduction takes place by the formation of nonmotile mitospores called sporangiospores. Sexual reproduction takes place by the formation of nonmotile zygospores.
Q.52
Auxin can be bioassayed by
(A)
potometer
(B)
lettuce hypocotyl elongation
(C)
Avena coleoptile curvature
(D)
hydroponics.
(C)

Solution

Avena coleoptile curvature is used for the bioassay of auxin.
Q.53
During ecological succession :
(A)
the establishment of a new biotic community is very fast in its primary phase.
(B)
the numbers and types of animals remain constant.
(C)
the changes lead to a ommunity that is in near equilibrium with the environment and is called pioneer community
(D)
the gradual and predictable change in species composition occurs in a given area
(D)

Solution

The gradual and predictable change, in the composition of species takes place in a given area during ecological succession.
Q.54
Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters are -
(A)
primary consumers
(B)
detritivores
(C)
tertiary consumers
(D)
secondary consumers
(B)

Solution

Detritivores are the organisms which feed on dead plants and animal residues.
Q.55
In which of the following both pairs have correct combination?
(A)
Gaseous nutrient
cycle
Carbon and Sulphur
Sedimentary nutrient
cycle
Nitrogen and
Phosphorus
(B)
Gaseous nutrient
cycle
Sulphur and
Phosphorus
Sedimentary nutrient
cycle
Carbon and Nitrogen
(C)
Gaseous nutrient
cycle
Nitrogen and Sulphur
Sedimentary nutrient
cycle
Carbon and
Phosphorus
(D)
Gaseous nutrient
cycle
Carbon and Nitrogen
Sedimentary nutrient
cycle
Sulphur and
Phosphorus
(D)

Solution

Carbon and Nitrogen are gaseous nutrient cycle. Sulphur and phosphorus are sedimentary nutrient cycle.
Q.56
If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence ?
(A)
Fibrinogin in plasma
(B)
Haemocytes
(C)
Serum albumins
(D)
Serum globulins
(D)

Solution

If you suspect a major deficiency of antibodies in a person, you would look for confirmatory evidence in serum globulins.

Serum globulins are a group of proteins that are found in blood plasma, and they include immunoglobulins (antibodies) as well as other proteins involved in immune function. Antibodies are a type of globulin that are produced by B cells in response to an infection or other foreign invader, and they play a critical role in the body's immune response.

A deficiency of antibodies, also known as immunodeficiency, can occur due to a variety of causes, including genetic disorders, certain medications, and infections such as HIV/AIDS. To confirm a suspected deficiency of antibodies, blood tests can be performed to measure the levels of different types of serum globulins, including immunoglobulins. If the levels of immunoglobulins are significantly lower than normal, it may indicate a deficiency of antibodies and further testing may be required to determine the cause.

So, option D, "Serum globulins," is the correct answer.
Q.57
Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?
(A)
Influenza
(B)
Babesiosis
(C)
Blastomycosis
(D)
Syphilis
(B)

Solution

Babesiosis is a malaria-like parasitic disease caused by infection with Babesia, a parasitic protozoan. Babesiosis has been recognised as a disease of cattle and other domestic animals, until human forms of babesiosis had been discovered. Babesia parasites reproduce in red blood cells of mammals and cause haemolytic anaemia, quite similar to malaria. The parasite is transmitted by ticks.
Q.58
Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
(A)
IgM
(B)
IgA
(C)
IgG
(D)
IgD
(B)

Solution

IgA immunoglobulins are the second most abundant class of immunoglobulins, which are mainly found in sweat, tears, saliva, mucus, colostrum and gastrointestinal secretions.
Q.59
Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to -
(A)
Humoral immune response
(B)
Cell-mediated immune response
(C)
Passive immune response
(D)
Innate immune response
(B)

Solution

Cell-mediated immune response (CMIS) consists of T-lymphocytes. It reacts against transplants. Transplantation may result in the rejection of the transplanted organs. The immune system recognises the protein in the transplanted tissue or organ as foreign and initiates cellular immunity against it.
Q.60
Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when
(A)
AV node receives signal from SA node
(B)
AV valves open up
(C)
Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria
(D)
Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles.
(D)

Solution

Second heart sound i.e., dup is caused by the closure of the semilunar values and marks the end of ventricular systole.
Q.61
Which one of the following animals has two separate circulatory pathways?
(A)
Whale
(B)
Shark
(C)
Frog
(D)
Lizard
(A)

Solution

Whale is a mammal and in mammals, two separate circulatory pathways are found — systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation. Oxygenated and deoxygenated bloods received by the left and right atria respectively pass on to the left and right ventricles. Thus, oxygenated and deoxygenated bloods are not mixed. This is referred to as double circulation.
Q.62
Which of the following joints would allow no movements?
(A)
Synovial joint
(B)
Ball and Sockrt joint
(C)
Fibrous joint
(D)
Cartilaginous joint
(C)

Solution

Fibrous or immovable joints are the joints in which no movement occurs between the bones concerned. White fibrous tissue is present between the ends of the bones. Fibrous joint occurs between the bones of the skull called sutures and the joints between the teeth and the maxilla and the teeth and the mandible.
Q.63
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
(A)
Production of body heat
(B)
Locomotion
(C)
Production of erythrocytes
(D)
Storage of minerals
(A)

Solution

Production of body heat is caused by the process of metabolism (respiration).
Q.64
Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in loss of
(A)
commissural impulses
(B)
integrating impulses
(C)
sensory impulses
(D)
voluntary motor impulses.
(D)

Solution

The anterior horns of spinal cord contains cells with fibres that form the anterior (motor) root end and are essential for the voluntary and reflex activity of muscles they innervate. If the anterior horn motor cells are destroyed, the nerves cannot regenerate and muscles are never useful again.
Q.65
In mammalian eye, the 'fovea' is the center of the visual field, where
(A)
only rods are present
(B)
more rods than cones are found
(C)
high density of cones occur, but has no rods
(D)
the optic nerve leaves the eye.
(C)

Solution

A small oval, yellowish area of the retina lying exactly opposite the centre of the cornea is named the macula lutea or yellow spot which has at its middle a shallow depression, the fovea centralis. The fovea centralis has cone cells only. It is devoid of rods and blood vessels. The fovea centralis is the place of most distinct vision.
Q.66
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A)
Mode of reproduction Example
Binary fission Sargassum
(B)
Mode of reproduction Example
Conidia Penicillium
(C)
Mode of reproduction Example
Offset Water hyacinth
(D)
Mode of reproduction Example
Rhizome Banana
(A)

Solution

Binary fission usually takes place in Amoeba, Paramoecium and Euglena.
Q.67
A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is :
(A)
Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(B)
Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
(C)
Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
(D)
Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
(A)

Solution

Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is an assisted reproductive technology in which both the sperm and unfertilised oocytes are transferred into the Fallopian tubes. Fertilisation takes place in vivo (inside the body of the female).
Q.68
The function of the gap junction is to -
(A)
facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and some large molecules.
(B)
separate two cells from ach other
(C)
stop substance from leaking across a tissue
(D)
performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
(A)

Solution

The function of the gap junction is to facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and some large molecules.
Q.69
The body cell in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the form of -
(A)
Urea
(B)
Potassium urate
(C)
Calcium carbonate
(D)
Ammonia
(B)

Solution

In cockroach, Malpighian tubules extract metabolic wastes like potassium and sodium urate, water and carbon dioxide from the blood. In the Malpighian tubules bicarbonates of potassium and sodium, water and uric acid are formed. A large amount of water and bicarbonates of potassium and sodium are reabsorbed by the cells of Malpighian tubules and then transferred to the blood (haemolymph). Uric acid is carried to the alimentary canal of the insect and is finally passed out through anus.
Q.70
The primary dentition in human differs from permanent dentition in not having one of the following type of teeth.
(A)
Molars
(B)
Incisors
(C)
Canines
(D)
Premolars
(D)

Solution

The dental formula for milk teeth is , so premolars are absent in the primary dentition.
Q.71
The enzyme that is not present in succus entericus is
(A)
nucleosidase
(B)
lipase
(C)
maltase
(D)
nuclease.
(D)

Solution

Succus entericus or intestinal juice (pH = 7.8) refers to the secretion of glands of small intestine. It contains many enzymes viz maltase, isomaltase, lipase, lactase, -dextrinase, enterokinase, aminopeptidase, nucleotidase, nucleosidase, etc., for the digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, fats, nucleic acids etc. Enzyme nuclease is not a digestive enzyme. It is not present in any digestive juice.
Q.72
Human urine is usually acidic because
(A)
potassium and sodium exchange generates acidity
(B)
hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the filtrate
(C)
the sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen ion for each sodium ion, in peritubular capillaries.
(D)
excreted plasma proteins are acidic
(B)

Solution

Urine has acidic nature because hydrogen ions(H+) are components of an acid which are secreted into the filtrate.
Q.73
Which one of the following hormones is not involved in sugar metabolism?
(A)
Insulin
(B)
Glucagon
(C)
Cortisone
(D)
Aldosterone
(D)

Solution

Aldosterne is produced by adrenal cortex and plays an important role in the regulation of Na+ and K+ levels in body.
Q.74
Which one of the following hormones though synthesised elsewhere, is stored and released by the master gland?
(A)
Prolactin
(B)
Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(C)
Antidiuretic hormone
(D)
Luteinising hormone
(C)

Solution

ADH (Antidiuretic hormone) and oxytocin are produced by hypothalamus and stored in posterior pituitary.
Q.75
Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human life?
(A)
Release of secondary oocyte
(B)
LH surge
(C)
Decrease in estradiol
(D)
Full developmentof Graafian follicle
(C)

Solution

In human females, ovulation is the release of secondary oocyte from the ovary at about 14th day of the menstrual cycle. Both LH and FSH attain a peak level during this period. Rapid secretion of LH induces rupturing of fully developed Graafian follicle and thereby release of ovum. LH surge is actually responsible for ovulation.
Q.76
In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until
(A)
uterine implantation
(B)
birth
(C)
puberty
(D)
fertilisation
(D)

Solution

Meiosis-II does not complete untill fertilization occurs in females (in human being).
Q.77
Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as
(A)
implantation of defective embryo in the uterus
(B)
pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance
(C)
pregnancies with genetic abnormality
(D)
implantation of embryo at site other than uterus.
(D)

Solution

In ectopic pregnancies, the implantation of embryo does not occur in uterus but at other site
Q.78
Which of the following layers in an antral follicle is acellular?
(A)
Stroma
(B)
Zona pellucida
(C)
Granulosa
(D)
Theca interna
(B)

Solution

Zona pellucida is formed as a new membrane by secondary oocyte around itself.
Q.79
Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect development are the characteristics of Phylum
(A)
Mollusca
(B)
Protozoa
(C)
Coelenterata
(D)
Porifera.
(D)

Solution

The given characteristic features define the phylum porifera.
Q.80
Metagenesis refers to
(A)
occurrence of a drastic change in form during post-embryonic development
(B)
presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
(C)
presence of different morphic forms
(D)
alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organisms.
(D)

Solution

An alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organism is referred to as metagenesis. E.g., in Obelia (a coelenterate), polyps reproduce asexually and medusae reproduce sexually.
Q.81
A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and whose ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis return to the ocean is
(A)
Neomyxine
(B)
Petromyzon
(C)
Eptatretus
(D)
Myxine
(B)

Solution

Petrormyzon marinus, commonly known as sea lamprey lays eggs in fresh water and its larvae, after metamorphosis, return to the ocean (saline water).
Q.82
Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchage is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls.
(A)
Pneumonia
(B)
Asthma
(C)
Pleurisy
(D)
Emphysema
(D)

Solution

In the disease emphysema, alveolar surface area is reduced due to destruction of alveolar walls.