NEET-UG 2020

NEET 2020 Phase 1

Physics (Maximum Marks: 180)
  • This section contains 45 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
The pitch of the screw gauge is :
(A)
0.25 mm
(B)
0.5 mm
(C)
1.0 mm
(D)
0.01 mm
(B)

Solution

Least count of screw gauge

=

0.01 mm =

Pitch = 0.5 mm
Q.2
Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of ?
(A)
9.98 m
(B)
9.980 m
(C)
9.9 m
(D)
9.9801 m
(A)

Solution

= 9.9801 m
Here, 9.98 is having the least number of decimal places of two, so answer should also have only two decimal places. So answer is 9.98 m.
Q.3
Dimensions of stress are :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution



Q.4
The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 10-20 J. This value in eV is nearly :
(A)
0.6
(B)
0.06
(C)
0.006
(D)
6
(B)

Solution







= 0.06 eV
Q.5
A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2)
(A)
340 m
(B)
320 m
(C)
300 m
(D)
360 m
(C)

Solution

From the Kinematic equation
v2 = u2 + 2gh
v = 80 m/s
u = 20 m/s
h =

= 300 m
Q.6
Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is :
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 14 English
(A)
g/2
(B)
g/5
(C)
g/10
(D)
g
(B)

Solution

Acceleration of the masses is given to be :

where,

Q.7
Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of :
(A)
50 cm
(B)
67 cm
(C)
80 cm
(D)
33 cm
(B)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Physics - Center of Mass and Collision Question 13 English Explanation
Let's assume both the particles are lying on X-axis.
Let the 5 kg particle is at the origin.
Then the X-coordinate of the centre of mass of the system is,



=

= 66.66 cm 67 cm
Q.8
Find the torque about the origin when a force of 3 N acts on a particle whose position vector is 2 m.
(A)
6 N m
(B)
6 N m
(C)
6 N m
(D)
6 N m
(B)

Solution

Torque is the moment of Force applied.


Nm
Q.9
A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?
(A)
32 N
(B)
30 N
(C)
24 N
(D)
48 N
(A)

Solution

We know W = mg

At a height h, above the surface of earth, weight is given as,







Q.10
A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in Water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is :
(A)
5.0 g
(B)
10.0 g
(C)
20.0 g
(D)
2.5 g
(B)

Solution

The weight of water in the capillary is balanced by the surface tension force.

mg = 2r.T.cos

Since constant, m is directly proportional to r.

m r





= 10 grams.
Q.11
A wire of length L, are of cross section A is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changed to L1 when mass M is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young's modulus is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution





Young's modulus =

=
Q.12
The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T absolute temperature)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

The degree of freedom for monoatomic gas is 3. So, average thermal energy per molecule,
K.E.avg =
Q.13
The mean free path for a gas, with molecular diameter d and number density n can be expressed as :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

As per the formula,
Q.14
A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure 249 kPa and temperature 27C
Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol-1 K-1)
(A)
0.2 kg/m3
(B)
0.1 kg/m3
(C)
0.02 kg/m3
(D)
0.5 kg/m3
(A)

Solution

From the ideal gas equation, PV = nRT also
Volume (V) =
So, PM = RT
P = 249 103 N/m2
M = 2 10-3 kg
T = 333 K
=
= 0.2 kg/m3
Q.15
The quantities of heat required to raise the temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5r2) through 1 K are in the ratio :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution





Q.16
Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire systems is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The Process is :
(A)
adiabatic
(B)
isochoric
(C)
isobaric
(D)
isothermal
(A)

Solution

The system is insulated thermally. So no heat exchange takes place. Therefore the process is adiabatic.
Q.17
The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
zero
(D)
rad
(D)

Solution

Displacement, y = A.sin t
Velocity, =
Acceleration, a =

So the phase difference between y and a is .
Q.18
In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original freqnency of B will be :
(A)
524 Hz
(B)
536 Hz
(C)
537 Hz
(D)
523 Hz
(A)

Solution

Difference of

= 6 Hz

= 530 Hz

= 524 Hz (original)
Q.19
A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 16 10-9 Cm. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an angle of with the dipole axis is :

(A)
200 V
(B)
400 V
(C)
zero
(D)
50 V
(A)

Solution

Electric potential due to electric dipole (V)





V = 200 V
Q.20
In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. The magnitude of electric field in this region is :
(A)
0.5 N/C
(B)
1 N/C
(C)
5 N/C
(D)
zero
(D)

Solution

Potential V is constant. Electric field E is the differentiation of potential V with respect to distance. Differentiation of a constant is zero. So E = 0.
Q.21
A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of 3.2 10-7 C distributed uniformly. That is the magnetude of electric field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?
(A)
1.28 105 N/C
(B)
1.28 106 N/C
(C)
1.28 107 N/C
(D)
1.28 104 N/C
(A)

Solution

The electric field for the conducting sphere, away from the surface is given by,







N/C
Q.22
A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a 10 resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3:2. If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 of the resistance wire is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Physics - Current Electricity Question 39 English Explanation

Initially,

Now Resistance,



Q.23
The color code of a resistance is given below :
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Physics - Current Electricity Question 40 English
The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are
(A)
47 k , 10%
(B)
4.7 k , 5%
(C)
470 , 5%
(D)
470 k , 5%
(C)

Solution

As per colour coding Short explanation must be given to understand the trick
Yellow = 4; Violet = 7 ; Brown = 1
Tolerance for Gold is 5%

First colour gives first digit, second colour gives the second digit and third colour gives the multiplier and fourth colour gives tolerance.

Resistance R =
Q.24
A charged particle having drift velocity 7.510-4 ms-1 in an electric field of 310-10 Vm-1 has a mobility in m2 V-1s-1 of :
(A)
2.5 106
(B)
2.5 10-6
(C)
2.25 10-15
(D)
2.25 1015
(A)

Solution

The relation between the mobility and drift velocity is,

Mobility,



Q.25
Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity () with temperature (T) for copper?
(A)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Physics - Current Electricity Question 36 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Physics - Current Electricity Question 36 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Physics - Current Electricity Question 36 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Physics - Current Electricity Question 36 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

For very low temperatures the graph will not be straight line for metals.
Q.26
The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are :
(A)
insulators only
(B)
semiconductors only
(C)
insulators and semiconductors
(D)
metals
(C)

Solution

The temperature coefficient of resistance is negative for semiconductor and insulators, and it is positive for metals.
Q.27
The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 6F. With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance become 30 F The permittivity of the medium is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

The capacitance increases with dielectric constant K



(or)



Q.28
A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is :
(A)
3.14
(B)
6.28
(C)
3.14
(D)
6.28
(D)

Solution

Magnetic field at centre of solenoid =

= 200 turns/m
I = 25A
Now, substituting the values,
B = 4 10-7 200 2.5
= 6.28 10-4 T
Q.29
An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetizing field of 1200 A m-1. The permeability of the material of the rod is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution







Q.30
A 40 F capacitor is connected to a 200 V. 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current on the circuit is, nearly :
(A)
2.05 A
(B)
2.5 A
(C)
25.1 A
(D)
1.7 A
(B)

Solution

irms = C rms

C = 40 10-6 F

= 2 = 100

rms = 200 V

irms = 200 40 10-6 2 50
= 2.5 A
Q.31
A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is . If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :
(A)
0.5
(B)
1.0
(C)
1.0
(D)
zero
(B)

Solution

The power factor for the LCR circuit will be :
When L is removed,



...(i)

When C is removed,



...(ii)

Since, XL = XC, the circuit is in resonance,

Z = R

Power factor = cos = = 1
Q.32
The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of and electromagnetic wave is : (c = speed of electromagnetic waves)
(A)
1 : 1
(B)
1 : c
(C)
1 : c2
(D)
c : 1
(A)

Solution

The total energy of an electromagnetic wave is equally shared by E and B. So the ratio is 1 : 1.
Q.33
A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is , then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to :
(A)
(B)
A
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

Since the light emerges normally from the other surface, the angle of, emergence

e = 0

For the triangular prism, we know

r1 + r2 = A

But, e = r2 = 0

So, r1 = A

For surface 1,

Snell's Law is



For small angles = sin

So, i = .A
Q.34
The Brewster's angle ib for an interface should be :
(A)
30 < ib< 45
(B)
45 < ib< 90
(C)
ib = 90
(D)
0 < ib< 30
(B)

Solution

Refractive index is equal to tangent of Brewster's angle ib
= tan ib
1 < <
1 < tan ib <
tan-1(1) < ib < tan-1()
45 < ib < 90
Q.35
Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :
(A)
1.83 10-7 rad
(B)
7.32 10-7 rad
(C)
6.00 10-7 rad
(D)
3.66 10-7 rad
(D)

Solution

Limit of Resolution for a Telescope is



Given, = 600 10-9; d = 2 m

By substituting the values, we get

= 3.66 10-7 rad
Q.36
In Young's double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes :
(A)
half
(B)
four times
(C)
one-fourth
(D)
double
(B)

Solution

Given that the slit distance is made half and the screen distance made double than the original value, then,
Fringe width,
Now, and
So,
= 4
Q.37
When a uranium isotope is bombarded with a neutron, it generates three neutrons and :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

+ = + +

Balancing atomic number on both side, we get

92 + 0 = 36 + Z

So, Z = 56

Balancing mass number on both side, we get

235 + 1 = 89 + 3 + A

So, A = 144

It gives
Q.38
For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid?
(A)
Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
(B)
Deuteron atom
(C)
Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(D)
Hydrogen atom
(C)

Solution

Singly ionized neon has electron count more than one. Bohr's model is valid for atoms of single electron. So option (c) is not valid.
Q.39
The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

Q.40
Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled?
(A)
four times
(B)
one-fourth
(C)
zero
(D)
doubled
(C)

Solution


and
Here we see
Below threshold frequency, no photo-electric emission takes place.
Q.41
Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is :
(A)
12 103 J
(B)
24 103 J
(C)
48 103 J
(D)
10 103 J
(B)

Solution

Energy = intensity time area
= 20 60 20
E = 24 103 J
Q.42
An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron is 1.227 10-2 nm, the potential difference is :
(A)
102 V
(B)
103 V
(C)
104 V
(D)
10 V
(C)

Solution

The de-Broglie wavelength and the accelerated potential is related as follows :





volts
Q.43
For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct?
(A)
Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size.
(B)
Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forwarded biased.
(C)
The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
(D)
Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations.
(C)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 33 English Explanation

For transistor action, the input is always forward biased and output is always reverse biased. For this Base has to be very thin and lightly doped.
Q.44
The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to :
(A)
reverse bias only
(B)
both forward bias and reverse bias
(C)
increase in forward current
(D)
forward bias only
(A)

Solution

The width of depletion layer will increase with reverse bias.
Q.45
For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is :
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 32 English
(A)
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
(B)
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
(C)
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0
(D)
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
(D)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 32 English Explanation


Gate
Chemistry (Maximum Marks: 180)
  • This section contains 45 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
Which one of the following has maximum number of atoms?
(A)
1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
(B)
1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 24]
(C)
1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
(D)
1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
(C)

Solution

Number of atoms
=

Number of Mg atoms =

Number of O atoms =

Number of Li atoms =

Number of Ag atoms =
Q.2
The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 17571Lu, respectively, are :
(A)
104, 71 and 71
(B)
71, 71 and 104
(C)
175, 104 and 71
(D)
71, 104 and 71
(D)

Solution

No. of Protons = 71 = No. of Electrons
No. of Neutrons = Mass No. No. of Protons
= 175 71 = 104
Q.3
What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction?
CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g) CCl4(l) + 4HCl(g)
(A)
0 to + 4
(B)
4 to + 4
(C)
0 to 4
(D)
+ 4 to + 4
(B)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Redox Reactions Question 9 English Explanation
Change in oxidation state of carbon is from 4 to + 4
Q.4
A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7g of N2 and 8g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 is :
[Use atomic masses (in g mol1) : N = 14, Ar = 40]
(A)
12 bar
(B)
15 bar
(C)
18 bar
(D)
9 bar
(B)

Solution



Now, applying Dalton's law of partial pressure,

bar
= 15 bar
Q.5
Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 10-15.
(A)
2 10-8 M
(B)
1 10-13 M
(C)
1 108 M
(D)
2 10-13 M
(D)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Ionic Equilibrium Question 13 English Explanation

Total [OH- ] = 2s + 0.1 0.1

Ionic product = [Ni2+][OH-]2

2 10-15 = s(0.1)2

s = 2 10-13
Q.6
The freezing point depression constant (Kr) of benzene is 5. 12 K kg mol-1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is rounded off upto two decimal places :
(A)
0.80 K
(B)
0.40 K
(C)
0.60 K
(D)
0.20 K
(B)

Solution


= 5.12 0.078
= 0.399 K = 0.4 K
Q.7
The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult's law is :
(A)
Benzene + Toluene
(B)
Acetone + Chloroform
(C)
Chloroethane + Bromoethane
(D)
Ethanol + Acetone
(D)

Solution

Pure ethanol molecules are hydrogen bonded. On adding acetone, its molecules get in between the ethanol molecules and break some of the hydrogen bonds between them. This weakness the intermolecular attractive interactions and the solution shows positive deviation from Raoult's law.
Q.8
Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction.
Sucrose + H2O ⇌ Glucose + Fructose
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2 1013 at 800 K, the value of at the same temperature will be :
(A)
8.314 J
(B)
8.314 J
(C)
8.314 J
(D)
-8.314 J
(D)

Solution

= + RT ln Q

At equilibrium = 0, Q = Keq

So, = RT in Keq

= 8.314 J mol-1 K-1 300K ln (2 1013)
Q.9
For the reaction, 2Cl(g) Cl2(g), the correct option is :
(A)
and
(B)
and
(C)
and
(D)
and
(C)

Solution

Given reaction,
2Cl(g)Cl2(g)
This is an endothermic reaction because it requires energy to break bonds.
So, the reverse reaction is exothermic

Also, two gaseous atoms combine together to form 1 gaseous molecule.
So, the randomness,
Q.10
The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is :
(A)
q = 0, T < 0 and w > 0
(B)
q < 0, T = 0 and w = 0
(C)
q > 0, T > 0 and w > 0
(D)
q = 0, T = 0 and w = 0
(D)

Solution

Free expansion, so pex = 0
So, w = pex V = 0
Since, adiabatic process, so q = 0
Since both q and w are equal to zero. Then according to first law of thermodynamics E = q + w
U = 0
Hence, T = 0
Q.11
On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be :
(A)
Oxygen gas
(B)
H2S gas
(C)
SO2 gas
(D)
Hydrogen gas
(A)

Solution

During the electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using Pt electrodes following reaction will take place.
At cathode :

At anode :

At the anode oxygen gas will be released.
Q.12
The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol-1) is :
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
1
(D)

Solution

1 equivalent of any substance is deposited by 1F of charge.
We have 20g calcium.
No. of equivalent =
Ca2+ + 2e Ca(s)
v.f. = 2
According to Faraday's 1st law
Charge passed in Faradey = g. equivalent of product
= = 1 F
So, 1 F of charge is required.
Q.13
An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in :
(A)
heat of reaction
(B)
threshold energy
(C)
collision frequency
(D)
activation energy
(C)

Solution

The correct answer to this question is collision frequency. Here's an explanation for each option to understand why:

Option A - Heat of Reaction: The heat of reaction, also known as the enthalpy change , is determined by the difference in the energy levels of the reactants and products. It is a characteristic feature of a particular chemical reaction and is not typically affected by the concentration of reactants except in cases of extremely high or non-ideal concentrations where volume changes might somewhat influence pressure and therefore the heat of reaction in gases. Under normal conditions, however, changing the concentration of reactants does not alter the heat of reaction.

Option B - Threshold Energy: Threshold energy is the minimum energy that reactant molecules must possess in order to undergo a successful collision, leading to a chemical reaction. This value is inherent to the specific reaction and is related to the strength of the bonds in the reactants as well as the energy required to form the activated complex during the reaction. The threshold energy does not change simply because the concentration of reactants is altered.

Option C - Collision Frequency: Collision frequency corresponds to how often reacting particles collide in a given time interval. When the concentration of reactants is increased, there are more reactant particles per unit volume. This statistically leads to an increased number of collisions per unit time, thereby raising the collision frequency. This is in accordance with the collision theory of chemical kinetics.

Option D - Activation Energy: Activation energy is the minimum energy barrier that must be overcome for reactants to be converted into products. It is a property of a particular reaction and is related to the nature of the reactants and the reaction pathway. Altering the concentration of reactants does not change the activation energy for that reaction.

Thus, the only factor among the provided options that changes with an increase in the concentration of reactants is indeed the collision frequency.

Q.14
The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606 10-3 s-1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
(A)
200 s
(B)
500 s
(C)
1000 s
(D)
100 s
(B)

Solution

log for first order reaction

log

t = 500 s
Q.15
An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius is :
(A)
pm
(B)
pm
(C)
pm
(D)
pm
(D)

Solution

For BCC, lattice

So,
Q.16
Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?
(A)
Solubility
(B)
Stability of the colloidal particles
(C)
Size of the colloidal particles
(D)
Viscosity
(B)

Solution

In colloidal solution, the potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer of opposite charge is known as Zeta potential. The presence of equal and similar charges on colloidal particles are largely responsible in providing stability to the colloidal solution.
Zeta potential Stability of colloidal particle
Q.17
Identify the incorrect match.
Name IUPAC Official Name
(A) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(B) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(C) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(D) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
(A)
(B), (ii)
(B)
(C), (iii)
(C)
(D), (iv)
(D)
(A), (i)
(C)

Solution

Unununnium
Atomic number = 111
IUPAC official name : Roentgenium (Rg) not Darmstadtium.
Q.18
Match the following :
Oxide Nature
(A) CO (i) Basic
(B) BaO (ii) Neutral
(C) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
(D) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric

Which of the following is correct option?
(A)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)

Solution

CO : Neutral oxide
BaO : Basic oxide
Al2O3 : Amphoteric oxide
Cl2O7 : Acidic oxide
Q.19
Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?
(A)
Boron trifluoride, hydrogen, fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1, 3-dichlorobenzene
(B)
Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1, 3-dichlorobenzene
(C)
Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1, 4-dichlorobenzene
(D)
Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1, 4-dichlorobenzene
(C)

Solution

Due to their symmetrical structure, BF3, BeF2, CO2 and 1, 4-dichloro benzene molecules have a zero dipole moment.

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 35 English Explanation
Q.20
Identify a molecule which does not exist.
(A)
Li2
(B)
C2
(C)
O2
(D)
He2
(D)

Solution

For He2 molecule
Total number of electron = 4
Electronic configuration is 1s2, *1s2
Bond order =
=
= 0
So bond order = 0
So bond order = 0 (Remove this line, not needed.)
Since, bond order is zero, so He2 molecule does not exist.
Q.21
Identify the correct statement from the following :
(A)
Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of CO2
(B)
Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(C)
Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
(D)
Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
(C)

Solution

The iron obtained from blast furnace contains about 4% carbon and many impurities like S, P, Si, Mn in due to it's malleable nature they can smaller amount. This is known as pig iron and cast into variety of shapes.
Q.22
The following metal ion activities many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.
(A)
Copper
(B)
Calcium
(C)
Potassium
(D)
Iron
(C)

Solution

Potassium (K) activities many enzymes participate in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and helps in the transmission of nerve signal along with Na.
Q.23
HCl was passed through A solution of CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s) crystallize(s)?
(A)
Only NaCl
(B)
Only MgCl2
(C)
NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
(D)
Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
(A)

Solution

Since CaCl2 and MgCl2 are more soluble than NaCl, on passing HCl(g) through A solution containing CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl, then NaCl crystallizes out (common ion effect).
Q.24
Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?
(A)
It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
(B)
The carboxyhemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
(C)
It produced due to incomplete combustion.
(D)
It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
(B)

Solution

The carboxyhaemoglobin is about 300 times more stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
Q.25
Match the following and identify the correct option.
(A) CO(g) + H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2 + Ca(HCO3)2
(B) Temporary hardness of water (ii) An electron deficient hydride
(C) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
(D) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar structure
(A)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D)

Solution

Mixture of CO and H2 gases is known as water gas or synthesis gas.
Temporary hardness of water is due to bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium.
Diborane (B2H6) is an electron deficient hydride.
H2O2 is non-planar molecule having open book like structure.
Q.26
Identify the correct statements from the following :
(A) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food.
(B) The structure of C60 contains twelve six-carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(C) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline.
(D) CO is colourless and odourless gas.
(A)
(A) and (C) only
(B)
(B) and (C) only
(C)
(C) and (D) only
(D)
(A), (B) and (C) only
(C)

Solution

Dry ice is used as refrigerant. C60 contains 20 six membered ring, 12 five membered rings. In the presence of a zeolite catalyst (HZSM-5), ethanol, methanol and larger alcohols can be converted into gasoline at 300-400 C. CO, is a tasteless, colorless, and odorless gas.
Q.27
Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has O O linkage?
(A)
H2SO4, sulphuric acid
(B)
H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
(C)
H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
(D)
H2SO3, sulphurious acid
(B)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - p-Block Elements Question 26 English Explanation
Q.28
Identify the incorrect statement.
(A)
The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.
(B)
Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.
(C)
The oxidation states of chromium in CrO42- and Cr2O72- are not the same.
(D)
Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+ (d6) in water.
(C)

Solution

Oxidation state of Cr in CrO42- and Cr2O72- is + 6.
Q.29
The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is?
(A)
4.90 BM
(B)
5.92 BM
(C)
2.84 BM
(D)
3.87 BM
(A)

Solution

Electronic configuration of

Electronic configuration of :[Ar]3d4

No. of unpaired electrons = 4

Spin only magnetic moment =

n = number of unpaired e

Spin only magnetic moment =

= BM

= 4.9 BM
Q.30
Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 31 English Explanation
Q.31
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds?
(A)
SCN < F < CN < C2O42-
(B)
F < SCN < C2O42- < CN
(C)
CN < C2O42- SCN < F
(D)
SCN < F < C2O42- < CN
(D)

Solution

Spectrochemical series (as given in NCERT) :
Q.32
Paper chromatography is an example of :
(A)
Partition chromatography
(B)
Thin layer chromatography
(C)
Column chromatography
(D)
Adsorption chromatography
(A)

Solution

Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography in which a special quality paper known as chromatography paper is used.
Q.33
A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following?
(A)
+R effect of CH3 groups
(B)
R effect of CH3 groups
(C)
Hyperconjugation
(D)
I effect of CH3 groups
(C)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 37 English Explanation
More the number of H atoms, more will be the hyper conjugation effect hence more will be the stability of carbocation.
Q.34
As alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the product, Its structure is :
(A)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 15 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 15 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 15 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 15 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 15 English Explanation
Q.35
Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
(A)
2, 3-Dimethylbutane
(B)
n-Heptane
(C)
n-Butane
(D)
n-Hexane
(B)

Solution

Wurtz reaction is used to prepare symmetrical alkanes like

R1 X + 2Na + X R1

R1R1 + R1 R2 + R2 R2 + 2NaX

Using Wurtz reaction, n-Heptane can not be produced in good production because it is unsymmetrical alkane.
Q.36
Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is :
(A) -Elimination reaction
(B) Follows Zaitsev rule
(C) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(D) Dehydration reaction
(A)
(A), (C), (D)
(B)
(B), (C), (D)
(C)
(A), (B), (D)
(D)
(A), (B), (C)
(D)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 14 English Explanation

Since -hydrogen is abstracted it is -elimination.
Since more substituted alkene is formed (stable and major product), it follows Zaitsev's rule or Saytzev's rule.
Since H and Br are removed, it is dehydrohalogenation.
Q.37
Anisole on cleavage with Hl gives :
(A)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 17 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 17 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 17 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 17 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 17 English Explanation
Q.38
Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions :

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 37 English
(A)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 37 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 37 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 37 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 37 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 37 English Explanation
Q.39
Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
(A)
Cannizzaro's reaction
(B)
Cross Cannizzaro's reaction
(C)
Cross Aldol condensation
(D)
Aldol condensation
(C)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 35 English Explanation

In the presence of dil. OH- , benzaldehyde and acetophenone will react to undergo cross-aldol condensation.
Q.40
Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :
(A)
Sec. butyl alcohol
(B)
Tert. butyl alcohol
(C)
Isobutyl alcohol
(D)
Isopropyl alcohol
(B)

Solution

NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 36 English Explanation
Q.41
Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test?
(A)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 20 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 20 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 20 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2020 Phase 1 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 20 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines gives carbylamine reaction (isocyanide test).
Q.42
Which of the following is a natural polymer?
(A)
poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(B)
polybutadiene
(C)
poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
(D)
cis-1, 4-polyisoprene
(D)

Solution

Naturally occurring polymer, natural rubber is cis-1, 4-polyisoprene.
Q.43
Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
(A)
Alanine
(B)
Tyrosine
(C)
Lysine
(D)
Serine
(C)

Solution

Lysine is a basic amino acid it contains more number of NH2 groups as compared to COOH groups due to their symmetrical.
Q.44
Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
(A)
-D-Glucose + -D-Glucose
(B)
-D-Glucose + -D-Fructose
(C)
-D-Fructose + -D-Fructose
(D)
-D-Glucose + -D-Fructose
(B)

Solution

Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of two monosaccharide units, glucose and fructose, joined together via a glycosidic bond. Upon hydrolysis, this bond is broken, and the two constituent monosaccharides are released. Hydrolysis of sucrose results in the formation of one molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose. However, it is important to specify the configurations of these monosaccharides as they exist in specific forms.

Sucrose -D-Glucose + -D-Fructose

Glucose in sucrose is in the -D form while fructose is in the -D configuration. Thus, the correct answer reflecting the products of sucrose hydrolysis is:

Option B: -D-Glucose + -D-Fructose

This reflects the correct stereochemistry and identity of the monosaccharides produced from the hydrolysis of sucrose.

Q.45
Which of the following is cationic detergent?
(A)
Sodium stearate
(B)
Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(C)
Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(D)
Sodium lauryl sulphate
(B)

Solution

Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(C19H42N +Br) cationic detergent.
Biology (Maximum Marks: 360)
  • This section contains 90 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
(A)
These are involved in ingestion of food particles
(B)
They lie free in the cytoplasm
(C)
These represent reserve material in cytoplasm
(D)
They are not bound by any membrane
(A)

Solution

Inclusion bodies are nuclear or cytoplasmic aggregates which are stainable substances, usually proteins, and formed due to viral multiplication or genetic disorders in human beings these bodies are either intracellular or extracellular abnormalities and they are specific to certain diseases. These are not involved in ingestion of food particles.
Q.2
Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?
(A)
Peroxisomes
(B)
Golgi bodies
(C)
Polysomes
(D)
Endoplasmic reticulum
(B)

Solution

Golgi bodies are site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells.
Q.3
Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure
(A)
Glycerol, trypsin
(B)
Cellulose, lecithin
(C)
Inulin, insulin
(D)
Chitin, cholesterol
(C)

Solution

Inulin is a mixture of linear fructose polymers with different chain length and a glucose molecule at each C2 end. Adjacent fructose units are linked through glycosidic bond. The inulin that is used for medicine is most commonly obtained by soaking chicory roots in hot water.

Insulin is a protein composed of 51 amino acids and acts as a hormone which is secreted by beta-cells of pancreas. Adjacent amino acids are attached through peptide bond.
Q.4
Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?
(A)
Collagen
(B)
Lectin
(C)
Insulin
(D)
Haemoglobin
(A)

Solution

Collagen is the most abundant protein in animal world. Collagen is the major insoluble fibrous protein found in the extracellular matrix and in connective tissue. RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in the whole of the Biosphere.
Q.5
Match the following

(a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (i) Ricin
(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(c) Cell wall material in fungi (iii) Chitin
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen

Choose the correct option from the following
(A)
(A) (ii), (B) (iii), (C) (i), (D) (iv)
(B)
(A) (iii), (B) (i), (C) (iv), (D) (ii)
(C)
(A) (ii), (B) (iv), (C) (iii), (D) (i)
(D)
(A) (iii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (ii)
(C)

Solution

Malonate is the competitive inhibitor of catalytic activity of succinic dehydrogenase, Collagen is proteinaceous in nature and possesses peptide bonds, Chitin is a homopolymer present in the cell wall of fungi and exoskeleton of arthropods, Abrin and Ricin are toxins, secondary metabolites.
Q.6
Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(A)
Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
(B)
The gene (I) has three alleles.
(C)
When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.
(D)
A person will have only two of the three alleles.
(C)

Solution

When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar is wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood group because IA and IB are completely dominant over IO , but when IA and IB are present together, they both express their own types of sugar and thus behaving as codominant alleles.
Q.7
Identify the basic amino acid from the following
(A)
Valine
(B)
Lysine
(C)
Tyrosine
(D)
Glutamic Acid
(B)

Solution

Glutamic Acid - is an acidic amino acid.
Lysine - is a basic amino acid.
Valine - is an aliphatic amino acid.
Tyrosine - is an aromatic amino acid.
Q.8
Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of
(A)
G1 phase
(B)
S phase
(C)
G2 phase
(D)
M phase
(A)

Solution

During the G1 phase of the cell cycle, a cell checks for the availability of growth factors and nutrients. If the necessary resources are not available, the cell can exit the cell cycle and enter the G0 stage, which is a non-dividing, metabolically inactive phase. Cells in the G0 stage may stay in this phase temporarily or permanently, depending on the cell type and environmental conditions.

Some cells in the G0 stage, such as neurons and muscle cells, remain in this phase permanently and do not re-enter the cell cycle, whereas other cells, such as liver cells and lymphocytes, can re-enter the cell cycle in response to specific signals or stimuli.
Q.9
Match the following with respect to meiosis

(A) Zygotene      (i) Terminalization
(B) Pachytene     (ii) Chiasmata
(C) Diplotene      (iii) Crossing over
(D) Diakinesis     (iv) Synapsis

Select the correct option from the following
(A)
(A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
(B)
(A) (iii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (ii)
(C)
(A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (iii)
(D)
(A) (ii), (B) (iv), (C) (iii), (D) (i)
(A)

Solution

Zygotene → Synapsis

Pachytene → Crossing over

Diplotene → Chiasmata formation

Diakinesis → Terminalisation
Q.10
Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during
(A)
Diplotene
(B)
Zygotene
(C)
Pachytene
(D)
Leptotene
(A)

Solution

Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during diplotene stage of Prophase-I of Meiosis-I. The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the tendency of the recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from each other except at the sites of crossovers. These X-shaped structures are called chiasmata.
Q.11
Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase
(A)
Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
(B)
DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
(C)
Nuclear Division takes place.
(D)
Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
(A)

Solution

During G1 phase the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA. DNA synthesis takes place in S phase. Nuclear division occurs during Karyokinesis. Reorganization of all cell components takes place in M-Phase.
Q.12
The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at
(A)
Chalaza
(B)
Hilum
(C)
Micropyle
(D)
Nucellus
(B)

Solution

The attachment point of funicle and body of ovule is known as hilum. A hilum is a scar or mark left on a seed coat by the former attachment to the ovary wall or to the funiculus (which in turn attaches to the ovary wall). A hilum can also be a nucleus of a starch grain; the point around which layers of starch are deposited.
Q.13
The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other
(i) Pollen grains inside the anther
(ii) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(iii) Seed inside the fruit
(iv) Embryo sac inside the ovule
(A)
(i) and (iv)
(B)
(i) only
(C)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(D)
(iii) and (iv)
(A)

Solution

The plant parts which consist of two generations one within the other are pollen grains inside the anther and embryo sac inside the ovule. Pollen grain is haploid inside the diploid anther. Embryo sac is haploid inside the diploid ovule.
Q.14
Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
(A)
Effluents of primary treatment
(B)
Primary sludge
(C)
Floating debris
(D)
Activated sludge
(D)

Solution

The sediment in settlement tank is called activated sludge. A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into aeration tank. Remaining major part of the sludge is pumped into large tank called anaerobic sludge digesters.
Q.15
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Clostridium butylicum (i) Cyclosporin-A
(b) Trichoderma polysporum (ii) Butyric Acid
(c) Monascus purpureus (iii) Citric Acid
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent
(A)
(A) (iii), (B) (iv), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
(B)
(A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (iii)
(C)
(A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
(D)
(A) (ii), (B) (i), (C) (iv), (D) (iii)
(D)

Solution

Clostridium butylicum (a bacterium) is used for the production of butyric acid. An bioactive molecule, cyclosporin A, that is used as an immunosuppressive agent in organtransplant patients, is produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum. Statins produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus have been commercialized as blood-cholesterol lowering agents. It acts by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol. Aspergillus niger (a fungus) is used for the commercial production of citric acid.
Q.16
Identify the incorrect statement.
(A)
Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf
(B)
Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour
(C)
Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour
(D)
Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support
(B)

Solution

Correct statement: Sapwood is outermost secondary xylem. Outer secondary xylem or sapwood serves in water conduction, while the inner part called heartwood is composed of dead but structurally strong primary xylem.
Q.17
The roots that originate from the base of the stem are
(A)
Primary roots
(B)
Prop roots
(C)
Lateral roots
(D)
Fibrous roots
(D)

Solution

The roots that originate from the base of the stem are fibrous roots. A fibrous root system is the opposite of a taproot system. It is usually formed by thin, moderately branching roots growing from the stem. A fibrous root system is universal in monocotyledonous plants and ferns. The fibrous root systems look like a mat made out of roots when the tree has reached full maturity.
Q.18
The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features :

(i) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
(ii) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue
(iii) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
(iv) Phloem parenchyma absent

Identify the category of plant and its part:
(A)
Monocotyledonous root
(B)
Dicotyledonous stem
(C)
Dicotyledonous root
(D)
Monocotyledonous stem
(D)

Solution

The monocot stem is characterised by conjoint, collateral, and closed vascular bundles, scattered in the ground tissue containing the parenchyma. Each vascular bundle is surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle-sheath cells. Phloem parenchyma and medullary rays are absent in monocot stems.
Q.19
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is
(A)
Transpiration
(B)
Root pressure
(C)
Imbibition
(D)
Plasmolysis
(B)

Solution

Root pressure is positive hydrostatic pressure. It develops in tracheary element at night and in early morning. Root pressure is caused by active distribution of mineral nutrient ions into the root xylem. Without transpiration to carry the ions up the stem, they accumulate in the root xylem and lower the water potential. Water then diffuses from the soil into the root xylem due to osmosis.
Q.20
Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants

(a) Iron               (i) Photolysis of water
(b) Zinc              (ii) Pollen germination
(c) Boron            (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis
(d) Manganese    (iv) IAA biosynthesis

Select the correct option
(A)
(A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
(B)
(A) (iv), (B) (i), (C) (ii), (D) (iii)
(C)
(A) (iii), (B) (iv), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
(D)
(A) (ii), (B) (i), (C) (iv), (D) (iii)
(C)

Solution

Iron is essential for the formation of chlorophyll. Zinc is needed for synthesis of auxin. Boron plays a role in pollen grain germination. Manganese is involved in the splitting of water to liberate O2 during photosynthesis.
Q.21
The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are
(A)
Ammonia alone
(B)
Nitrate alone
(C)
Ammonia and oxygen
(D)
Ammonia and hydrogen
(D)

Solution

Ammonia and Hydrogen.

N2 + 8e + 8H+ + 16ATP → 2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi
Q.22
The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is
(A)
Zero
(B)
One
(C)
Three
(D)
Two
(B)

Solution

One substrate level phosphorylation in one turn of citric acid cycle as per following reaction: NEET 2020 Phase 1 Biology - Respiration in Plants Question 20 English Explanation
Q.23
In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of
(A)
Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(B)
Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(C)
Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(D)
Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(B)

Solution

The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with Ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation.
Q.24
Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to
(A)
Insect predators
(B)
Insect pests
(C)
Fungal diseases
(D)
Plant nematodes
(B)

Solution

Bt cotton is resistant to cotton bollworn (Insect pest). cry I Ac and cry II Ab genes have been introduced in cotton to protect it from cotton bollworm. This makes Bt cotton as biopesticide.
Q.25
Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes
(A)
Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
(B)
They cut the strand of DNAat palindromic sites.
(C)
Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(D)
They are useful in genetic engineering
(C)

Solution

The wrong statement is Option C.

Let us check each option one by one:

Option A: Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.

This is correct. Restriction enzymes often produce sticky ends, and these can be joined with the help of DNA ligase.

Option B: They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.

This is correct. Restriction enzymes recognise specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in DNA and cut there.

Option C: Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.

This is wrong. Restriction enzymes do not inspect the length of DNA. They recognise and cut DNA at specific nucleotide sequences called recognition sites.

Option D: They are useful in genetic engineering.

This is correct. Restriction enzymes are very important tools in genetic engineering because they help in cutting DNA at desired sites.

So, the wrong statement is: Option C.

Q.26
The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRl is
(A)
5’ - GGATCC - 3’
3’ - CCTAGG - 5’
(B)
5’ - GAATTC - 3’
3’ - CTTAAG - 5
(C)
5’ - GGAACC - 3’
3’ - CCTTGG - 5’
(D)
5’ - CTTAAG - 3’
3’ - GAATTC - 5’
(B)

Solution

The specific palindromic sequence which is recognised by EcoRI is
5’ - GAATTC - 3’
3’ - CTTAAG - 5’
Q.27
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed
(A)
Recognition site
(B)
Ori site
(C)
Selectable marker
(D)
Palindromic sequence
(B)

Solution

Ori sequence is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector. Ori i.e. origin of replication is responsible for initiation of replication.
Q.28
Match the organism with its use in biotechnology

(a) Bacillus thuringiensis (i) Cloning vector
(b) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (iii) DNA polymerase
(d) Salmonella typhimurium (iv) Cry proteins

Select the correct option from the following:
(A)
(A) (iii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (ii)
(B)
(A) (ii), (B) (iv), (C) (iii), (D) (i)
(C)
(A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (i), (D) (ii)
(D)
(A) (iii), (B) (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (i)
(C)

Solution

Bacillus thuringiensis is a source of Cry- proteins. Thermus aquaticus is a source of thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase) used in PCR. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a cloning vector. The construction of 1st recombinant DNA molecule was performed using native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.
Q.29
Choose the correct pair from the following
(A)
Exonucleases – Make cuts at specific positions within DNA
(B)
Ligases – Join the two DNA molecules
(C)
Polymerases – Break the DNA into fragments
(D)
Nucleases – Separate the two strands of DNA
(B)

Solution

Ligases join the two DNA molecules. DNA ligase is an enzyme which can connect two strands of DNAtogether by forming a bond between the phosphate group of one strand and the deoxyribose group on another. It is used in cells to join together the Okazaki fragments which are formed on the lagging strand during DNA replication.
Q.30
According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about
(A)
7 million
(B)
20 million
(C)
1.5 million
(D)
50 million
(A)

Solution

Robert May estimated global species diversity at about 7 million. Although some extreme estimates range from 20 to 50 million.
Q.31
Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?
(A)
Amazon forests
(B)
Madagascar
(C)
Western Ghats of India
(D)
Himalayas
(A)

Solution

The largely tropical Amazon rain forest in South America has the greatest biodiversity on earth.
Q.32
Which of the following is correct about viroids?
(A)
They have free RNA without protein coat
(B)
They have DNA with protein coat
(C)
They have free DNA without protein coat
(D)
They have RNA with protein coat
(A)

Solution

Viroids have free RNA without protein coat. Viroid, an infectious particle smaller than any of the known viruses, an agent of certain plant diseases. The particle consists only of an extremely small circular RNA (ribonucleic acid) molecule, lacking the protein coat of a virus.
Q.33
Ray florets have
(A)
Superior ovary
(B)
Hypogynous ovary
(C)
Half inferior ovary
(D)
Inferior ovary
(D)

Solution

Ray floret have inferior ovary. Ray floret is condition in flower where any of a number of strap-shaped and typically sterile florets that form the ray e.g., Sunflower Epigynous flower are formed in family Asteraceae.
Q.34
The ovary is half inferior in:
(A)
Mustard
(B)
Sunflower
(C)
Plum
(D)
Brinjal
(C)

Solution

The ovary is half inferior in Plum. A half inferior ovary is embedded or surrounded by the receptacle. Such flowers are termed perigynous or half-epigynous. In some classifications, half-inferior ovaries are not recognized and are instead grouped with either the superior or inferior ovaries.
Q.35
In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from
(A)
PS-I to ATP synthase
(B)
Cytb6f complex to PS-I
(C)
PS-I to NADP+
(D)
PS-II to Cytb6f complex
(D)

Solution

After excitement, e is passed from PS-II (P680) to primary electron acceptor (Pheophytin). From primary e acceptor, e is passed to plastoquinone. Plastoquinone (PQ) in turn transfer its e to Cytb6f complex. Therefore plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from PS-II to Cytb6f complex.
Q.36
The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of
(A)
1 molecule of 3-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
(B)
1 molecule of 3-C compound
(C)
1 molecule of 6-C compound
(D)
2 molecules of 3-C compound
(A)

Solution

The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase) in photorespiration leads to the formation of:

Option A

This implies the production of 1 molecule of a 3-carbon compound (3-phosphoglycerate) and 1 molecule of a 2-carbon compound (2-phosphoglycolate).

In detail, RuBisCo facilitates the reaction where ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate reacts with O instead of CO. This process yields one 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA) and one 2-phosphoglycolate, which is a distinctive feature of the oxygenation process in photorespiration as opposed to the carboxylation process in the Calvin cycle which produces two molecules of 3-PGA.

Thus, in the context of photorespiration:

This results in 1 molecule of a 3-carbon compound and 1 molecule of a 2-carbon compound.

Q.37
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by
(A)
Sutton
(B)
Mendel
(C)
Morgan
(D)
Boveri
(C)

Solution

Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by Morgan. Sutton and Boveri proposed chromosomal theory of inheritance but it was experimentally verified by T.H. Morgan.
Q.38
Select the correct match
(A)
Thalassemia – X linked
(B)
Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11
(C)
Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant trait
(D)
Haemophilia – Y linked
(B)

Solution

Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism is also inherited as the autosomal recessive trait. Sickle cell anemia is an autosomes linked recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to the offspring when both the partners are carrier for the gene (or heterozygous).
Q.39
How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?
(A)
14
(B)
4
(C)
2
(D)
8
(A)

Solution

A true breeding line refers to the plant that has undergone continuous self-pollination and showed stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations. Mendel (father of genetics) selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs, which were similar except for one character with contrasting traits.
Q.40
If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately
(A)
2.7 meters
(B)
2.0 meters
(C)
2.5 meters
(D)
2.2 meters
(D)

Solution

Length of DNA = [0.34 × 10–9] m × 6.6 × 109 bp = 2.2 m

Distance between 2 base pair in DNA helix = 0.34 nm = 0.34 × 10–9 m

Total number of base pair = 6.6 × 109 bp
Q.41
Which of the following statements is correct?
(A)
Adenine does not pair with thymine
(B)
Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond
(C)
Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds
(D)
Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds
(C)

Solution

Based on the observation of Erwin Chargaff that for a double stranded DNA, the ratios between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equals one. Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds i.e., A = T and guanine pairs with cytosine with three H-bonds.
Q.42
The first phase of translation is
(A)
Recognition of an anti-codon
(B)
Recognition of DNA molecule
(C)
Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(D)
Aminoacylation of tRNA
(D)

Solution

The first phase of translation involves activation of amino acid in the presence of ATP and linked to their cognate tRNA - a process commonly called as charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA.
Q.43
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
(A)
DNA polymerase
(B)
RNA polymerase
(C)
DNA helicase
(D)
DNA ligase
(B)

Solution

The enzyme that facilitates opening of the DNA helix during transcription is RNA polymerase.

RNA polymerase is responsible for the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template during transcription. It binds to the DNA at a specific site called the promoter region and then unwinds the DNA helix to expose the template strand. This opening of the DNA helix is facilitated by the activity of RNA polymerase, which breaks the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs of the DNA.

Once the DNA is unwound, RNA polymerase can begin the synthesis of RNA by adding complementary RNA nucleotides to the template strand. The RNA polymerase moves along the DNA strand, opening the helix as it goes, and synthesizing a new RNA molecule.

Therefore, option B, "RNA polymerase," is the correct answer.
Q.44
By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?
(A)
Out crossing
(B)
Mutational breeding
(C)
Inbreeding
(D)
Cross breeding
(D)

Solution

Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri-ewe and Marino rams.
In cross-breeding, superior male of one breed are mated with superior females of another breed.
Q.45
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A)
In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin
(B)
The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.
(C)
Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E.Coli.
(D)
The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(D)

Solution

Functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by disulphide bridges.
Q.46
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
(b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ii) Cellular defence
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV infection
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis
(A)
(A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iii), (D) (iv)
(B)
(A) (iii), (B) (ii), (C) (i), (D) (iv)
(C)
(A) (iv), (B) (i), (C) (ii), (D) (iii)
(D)
(A) (ii), (B) (iii), (C) (iv), (D) (i)
(C)

Solution

Bt cotton the specific Bt toxin gene was isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. RNAi (RNA interference) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense. PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
Q.47
The process of growth is maximum during
(A)
Log phase
(B)
Lag phase
(C)
Dormancy
(D)
Senescence
(A)

Solution

In exponential growth, the initial growth is slow (lag phase) and it increases rapidly thereafter at an exponential rate in log or exponential phase.
Q.48
Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their
(A)
Nutritive value
(B)
Growth response
(C)
Effect on reproduction
(D)
Defence action
(D)

Solution

A wide variety of chemical substances that we extract from plants on a commercial scale (nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium, etc) are produced by them (plants) as defences against grazers and browsers.
Q.49
Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?
(A)
Natality
(B)
Sex ratio
(C)
Mortality
(D)
Species interaction
(D)

Solution

Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density. Mortality is the number of deaths in the population during a given period. Population interaction is the interaction between different populations. It refers to the effects that the organisms in a community have on one another. The sex ratio is the ratio of males to females in a population.
Q.50
Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to
(A)
High reflection of light from snow
(B)
Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
(C)
Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
(D)
Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
(C)

Solution

UV-B radiations damage DNA and mutations may occur. In human eye, cornea absorbs UV-B radiations, and a high dose of UV-B causes inflammation of cornea called snow blindness, cataract, etc.
Q.51
Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of
(A)
Disposal of e-wastes
(B)
Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another
(C)
Emission of ozone depleting substances
(D)
Release of Green House gases
(C)

Solution

Montreal protocol – Signed in 16 Sep, 1987 (Ozone day) came into force – 1 Jan, 1989. It was aimed at stopping the production and import of ODS and reduce their concentration in the atmosphere.
Q.52
In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by :
(A)
Insects and water
(B)
Water currents only
(C)
Insects or wind
(D)
Wind and water
(C)

Solution

In majority of aquatic plants, the flowers emerge above the level of water. These may be pollinated by insects or wind eg.: Water hyacinth and water lily.
Q.53
Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
(A)
Gelidium and Gracilaria
(B)
Anabaena and Volvox
(C)
Chlorella and Spirulina
(D)
Laminaria and Sargassum
(C)

Solution

Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular algae. Gelidium, Gracilaria, Laminaria and Sargassum are multicellular. Volvox is colonial.
Q.54
Floridean starch has structure similar to
(A)
Amylopectin and glycogen
(B)
Mannitol and algin
(C)
Laminarin and cellulose
(D)
Starch and cellulose
(A)

Solution

Floridean starch is stored food material in red algae. Its structure is similar to Amylopectin and Glycogen.
Q.55
Strobili or cones are found in
(A)
Pteris
(B)
Marchantia
(C)
Equisetum
(D)
Salvinia
(C)

Solution

Strobili or cones are found in Equisetum. Strobili or cones are the dense and compact structure present on non flowering plants. They contain sporangia and perform function of protecting spores from wild animals and harsh conditions of environment.
Q.56
Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?
(A)
Para-ascorbic acid
(B)
Abscisic acid
(C)
Gibberellic acid
(D)
Phenolic acid
(C)

Solution

Gibberellic acid breaks seed dormancy. It activate synthesis of alpha-amylase which breakdown starch into simple sugar.
Q.57
Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop
(A)
Abscisic acid
(B)
Cytokinin
(C)
Gibberellin
(D)
Ethylene
(C)

Solution

Spraying sugarcane crop with gibberellins increases the length of the stem, thus increasing the yield by as much as 20 tonnes per acre.
Q.58
In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A)
There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity
(B)
Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity
(C)
Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity
(D)
Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same
(B)

Solution

Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. Net primary productivity is GPP-respiration. Hence, gross primary productivity is always more than NPP.
Q.59
Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem.

(A) Fourth trophic level   (i) Crow
(B) Second trophic level  (ii) Vulture
(C) First trophic level      (iii) Rabbit
(D) Third trophic level    (iv) Grass

Select the correct option
(A)
(A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
(B)
(A) (ii), (B) (iii), (C) (iv), (D) (i)
(C)
(A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iii), (D) (iv)
(D)
(A) (iii), (B) (ii), (C) (i), (D) (iv)
(B)

Solution

Grassland ecosystem is a terrestrial ecosystem. It includes various trophic levels. First trophic level (T1) – Grass Second trophic level (T2) – Rabbit Third trophic level (T3) – Crow Fourth trophic level (T4) – Vulture.
Q.60
Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
(A)
(A) (iv), (B) (i), (C) (ii), (D) (iii)
(B)
(A) (iii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (ii)
(C)
(A) (i), (B) (iii), (C) (ii), (D) (iv)
(D)
(A) (ii), (B) (i), (C) (iii), (D) (iv)
(B)

Solution

Typhoid fever in humans is caused by pathogenic bacterium Salmonella typhi. Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus Pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. Filariasis or elephantiasis is caused by the filarial worm, Wuchereria bancrofti and Wuchereria malayi. Malaria is caused by different species of Plasmodium.
Q.61
The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is
(A)
Trophozoites
(B)
Sporozoites
(C)
Male gametocytes
(D)
Female gametocytes
(B)

Solution

Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites (Infectious stage) through the bite of Infected Female Anopheles mosquito.
Q.62
Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity
(A)
Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
(B)
When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.
(C)
Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.
(D)
When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”
(A)

Solution

Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response in comparison to passive immunity where pre-formed antibodies are administered.
Q.63
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules containing histamine
(A)
(A) (iii), (B) (iv), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
(B)
(A) (iv), (B) (i), (C) (ii), (D) (iii)
(C)
(A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iii), (D) (iv)
(D)
(A) (ii), (B) (i), (C) (iii), (D) (iv)
(A)

Solution

Eosinophils are associated with allergic reactions and release histaminase, Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin etc. and are involved in inflammatory reactions, Neutrophils are phagocytic cells; Both B and T lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses of the body.
Q.64
The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents
(A)
Repolarisation of ventricles
(B)
Repolarisation of auricles
(C)
Depolarisation of auricles
(D)
Depolarisation of ventricles
(D)

Solution

The QRS complex represents the depolarisation of the ventricles, which initiates the ventricular contraction. The contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the systole.
Q.65
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between second and seventh ribs
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the Humerus
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum
(A)
(A) (ii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (iii)
(B)
(A) (i), (B) (iii), (C) (ii), (D) (iv)
(C)
(A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (i), (D) (ii)
(D)
(A) (iii), (B) (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (i)
(C)

Solution

11th and 12th pairs of ribs are not connected ventrally and are therefore, called floating ribs. Acromion is a flat expanded process of spine of scapula. The lateral end of clavicle articulates with acromion process. Scapula is a flat triangular bone in the dorsal part of the thorax between 2nd and the 7th rib. Glenoid cavity of scapula articulates with head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint.
Q.66
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx
(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval window
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the basilar membrane
(A)
(A) (ii), (B) (iii), (C) (i), (D) (iv)
(B)
(A) (iv), (B) (ii), (C) (i), (D) (iii)
(C)
(A) (iii), (B) (i), (C) (iv), (D) (ii)
(D)
(A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (iii)
(B)

Solution

Organ of Corti is located on the basilar membrane, thus (a) in column-I matches with (iv) in column-II. Cochlea, so (b) matches with (ii) in. The coiled portion of the labyrinth is called column II.
Q.67
Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
(A)
Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(B)
Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(C)
Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
(D)
AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(C)

Solution

Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes are sexually transmitted diseases. Gonorrhoea is caused by a bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Syphilis is caused by a bacterium Treponema pallidum. Genital herpes is caused by a virus Type-II-Herpes simplex virus.
Q.68
In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
(A)
GIFT and ICSI
(B)
ZIFT and IUT
(C)
GIFT and ZIFT
(D)
ICSI and ZIFT
(B)

Solution

ART in which embryos are transferred, include ZIFT and IUT i.e. Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer and Intra Uterine Transfer respectively, both are embryo transfer (ET) methods.
Q.69
Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in
(A)
Ducts of salivary gland
(B)
Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(C)
Eustachian tube
(D)
Lining of intestine
(B)

Solution

Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in proximal convoluted tubule of nephron (PCT).
Q.70
Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.
(A)
Ileum opens into small intestine
(B)
Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum
(C)
Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal
(D)
Ileum is a highly coiled part
(D)

Solution

The option (d) is correct as ileum is a highly coiled tube with reference to human digestive system. Other option can be corrected as Serosa is the outermost layer of the alimentary canal. A narrow finger-like tubular projection, the vermiform appendix arises from caecum part of large intestine. Ileum opens into the large intestine.
Q.71
The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of
(A)
pepsinogen into pepsin
(B)
protein into polypeptides
(C)
trypsinogen into trypsin
(D)
caseinogen into casein
(C)

Solution

Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin. Trypsinogen is a zymogen from pancreas.
Q.72
Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from
(A)
Columnar epithelial cells
(B)
Compound epithelial cells
(C)
Squamous epithelial cells
(D)
Chondrocytes
(A)

Solution

The correct answer is:

Option A: Columnar epithelial cells

Explanation:

  1. Goblet cells are specialized for secretion of mucus.

  2. They are found in the lining of the alimentary canal (for example, in the intestine).

  3. Goblet cells are modified from columnar epithelial cells, which are tall and pillar-like in shape.

  4. The other options are not correct:

  • Compound epithelial cells form layers (like skin) and are not modified into goblet cells.

  • Squamous epithelial cells are flat and thin, not columnar.

  • Chondrocytes are cells found in cartilage, not in the epithelial tissue.

So, the goblet cells are modified columnar epithelial cells.

Q.73
Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
(A)
Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(B)
Uremia and Renal Calculi
(C)
Uremia and Ketonuria
(D)
Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(A)

Solution

Presence of Ketone bodies in urine (Ketonuria) and presence of glucose in urine (Glycosuria) are indicative of Diabetes mellitus.
Q.74
Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?
(A)
Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(B)
More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
(C)
Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
(D)
Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
(C)

Solution

Adrenal cortex secretes mineralocorticoids like aldosterone which increase the reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubule that prevent diuresis. Diuresis is a condition in which the kidneys filter too much bodily fluid.
Q.75
Match the following columns and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
(A)
(A) (iii), (B) (ii), (C) (i), (D) (iv)
(B)
(A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (i), (D) (ii)
(C)
(A) (ii), (B) (i), (C) (iv), (D) (iii)
(D)
(A) (iii), (B) (i), (C) (iv), (D) (ii)
(D)

Solution

Grave’s disease is due to excess secretion of thyroid hormones (T3 & T4). Diabetes mellitus is due to hyposecretion of insulin from beta-cells of pancreas. Diabetes insipidus is due to hyposecretion of ADH from posterior pituitary. Addison’s disease is due to hyposecretion of hormone from adrenal cortex.
Q.76
Select the correct statement
(A)
Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(B)
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis
(C)
Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
(D)
Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(B)

Solution

Glucagon is associated with hyperglycemia. Insulin acts on hepatocytes and adipocytes and is associated with hypoglycemia. Glucocorticoid stimulates gluconeogenesis, so increase blood sugar level.
Q.77
Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed
(A)
At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
(B)
At the time of copulation
(C)
Prior to ovulation
(D)
After zygote formation
(A)

Solution

Meiotic division of secondary oocyte is completed after the entry of sperm in secondary oocyte which lead to the formation of a large ovum and a tiny 2nd polar body
Q.78
Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle?
(A)
Low concentration of FSH
(B)
High concentration of Progesterone
(C)
Low concentration of LH
(D)
High concentration of Estrogen
(D)

Solution

The gonadotropin (LH and FSH) increases gradually during the follicular phase, and stimulates follicular development as well as secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles. Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle of cycle (about 14th day). Rapid secretion of LH leading to its maximum level during the mid-cycle called LH surge induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby the release of ovum (ovulation).
Q.79
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Placenta (i) Androgens
(B) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
(C) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
(D) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the Penis
(A)
(A) (ii), (B) (iii), (C) (iv), (D) (i)
(B)
(A) (i), (B) (iv), (C) (ii), (D) (iii)
(C)
(A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (i), (D) (ii)
(D)
(A) (iii), (B) (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (i)
(A)

Solution

Placenta secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Zona pellucida is a primary egg membrane secreted by the secondary oocyte. The secretions of bulbourethral glands help in lubrication of the penis Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.
Q.80
Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by
(A)
Platyhelminthes
(B)
Aschelminthes
(C)
Annelida
(D)
Ctenophora
(A)

Solution

Platyhelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and acoelomate animals with organ level of organisation.
Q.81
Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata

(i) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.
(ii) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.
(iii) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
(iv) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
(A)
(iii) and (i)
(B)
(i) and (ii)
(C)
(ii) and (iii)
(D)
(i) and (iii)
(C)

Solution

In vertebrata, notochord is present during embryonic period only as it is replaced by vertebral column. In chordates, central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
Q.82
If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because
(A)
the cockroach does not have nervous system.
(B)
the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.
(C)
the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
(D)
the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.
(B)

Solution

Cockroaches breathe passively through a network of pipes connected to holes called spiracles along the length of their body. They are independent of blood circulation to move oxygen around and their body fluids are at a much lower pressure. The sensory input from the eyes and antennae, along with many other behaviours, are transmitted and handled by their brain such as running and reacting to touch, handled by ‘mini brains’ called ganglia in each body segment. A decapitated cockroach will eventually starve to death but this can still take few days.
Q.83
Match the following columns and select the correct option :
Column-I Column-II
(a) Gregarious,
      polyphagous pest
(i) Asterias
(b) Adult with radial
     symmetry and larva
     with bilateral symmetry
(ii) Scorpion
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(A)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(A)

Solution

Locusta is a gregareous pest. In Echinoderms, adults are radially symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally symmetrical. Scorpions respire through book lungs. Bioluminescence is well marked in ctenophores.
Q.84
Match the following columns and select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II
(a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits (i) Trygon
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
(A)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(C)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D)

Solution

Cyclostomes have an elongated body bearing 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration. The caudal fin is the tail fin located at the end of the caudal peduncle and is used for propulsion. See body-caudal fin locomotion.

Heterocercal means the vertebrae extend into the upper lobe of the tail, making it longer (as in sharks). It is the opposite of hypocercal.

Air bladder and poison string (for. e.g, Trygon) are found in Chondrichthyes as they have to swim constantly to avoid sinking.
Q.85
Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.
(i) Contraction of diaphragm
(ii) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(iii) Pulmonary volume decreases
(iv) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
(A)
Only (iv)
(B)
(iii) and (iv)
(C)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
(D)
(i) and (ii)
(D)

Solution

Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of diaphragm, which increases the volume of thoracic chamber in the anterio-posterior axis. The contraction of external inter-coastal muscles lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis.
Q.86
Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.
(A)
Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2
(B)
Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin
(C)
Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(D)
Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(C)

Solution

Higher H+ concentration favours the dissociation of oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin in tissues. In the alveoli, high pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+ concentration and lower temperature favour formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
Q.87
Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by
(A)
Oparin
(B)
Alfred Wallace
(C)
Karl Ernst von Baer
(D)
Charles Darwin
(C)

Solution

Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by Karl Ernst von Baer.

To elaborate, Karl Ernst von Baer, a pioneering embryologist, analyzed the development stages of embryos and pointed out that embryos of different species do not resemble each other as closely as was previously thought, especially in their early stages. His observations indicated that while there may be superficial similarities in the embryonic stages of different species, these similarities do not necessarily support a common ancestry. This contradicted earlier notions that embryological development could provide strong evidence for evolution.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Option C: Karl Ernst von Baer

Q.88
From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask
(A)
CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(B)
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
(C)
CH3 , H2 , NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
(D)
CH4 , H2 , NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(B)

Solution

In 1953, S.L. Miller, an American scientist created electric discharge in a closed flask containing CH4 , H2 , NH3 and water vapor at 800°C.
Q.89
Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of
(A)
Adaptive radiation
(B)
Natural selection
(C)
Industrial melanism
(D)
Convergent evolution
(D)

Solution

The flippers of penguins and dolphins are examples of convergent evolution.

Convergent evolution is a process in which organisms that are not closely related independently evolve similar adaptations to similar environments or ecological niches. In the case of penguins and dolphins, both are adapted to aquatic environments and have evolved similar adaptations in their body shape and appendages to optimize swimming and diving.

Penguins and dolphins are not closely related; penguins are birds, while dolphins are mammals. However, they have evolved similar adaptations for swimming, such as streamlined bodies and flippers that are modified for swimming rather than flight or walking.

Adaptive radiation is a process in which a single ancestral species gives rise to a diverse array of descendant species, each adapted to a different ecological niche. Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution in which individuals with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on those traits to their offspring. Industrial melanism is a phenomenon in which dark-colored individuals of a species become more common in industrialized areas due to environmental pollution.

So, option D, "Convergent evolution," is the correct answer.
Q.90
Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?

(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.
(A)
(b), (c) and (d)
(B)
only (a)
(C)
(a) and (c)
(D)
only (d)
(A)

Solution

Herbicide resistant weeds, drug resistant eukaryotes and man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs are examples of evolution by anthropogenic action. Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands are example of natural selection, adaptive radiation and founder’s effect.