NEET-UG 2021

NEET 2021

Physics (Maximum Marks: 200)
  • This section contains 50 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
The E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then has the dimensions of :
(A)
[M2] [L2] [T1]
(B)
[M2] [L1] [T0]
(C)
[M] [L1] [T1]
(D)
[M] [L0] [T0]
(B)

Solution

E = energy = [ML2T2]

G = Gravitational constant = [M1L3T2]

So,
Q.2
A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire

Main scale reading : 0 mm

Circular scale reading : 52 divisions

Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is :
(A)
0.052 cm
(B)
0.52 cm
(C)
0.026 cm
(D)
0.26 cm
(A)

Solution

L.C. =

= 0.01 m = 0.001 cm

Radius = M.S. + CSR(L.C)

= 0 + 52 (0.001)

= 0.052 cm
Q.3
If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.
(A)
[F] [A1] [T]
(B)
[F] [A] [T]
(C)
[F] [A] [T2]
(D)
[F] [A] [T1]
(C)

Solution

E Fa Ab Tc

[M1L2T2] [M1L1T2]a [LT2]b [T]c

[ML2T–2] [Ma La + b T–2a – 2b + c]

a = 1

a + b = 2 b = 1

2a 2b + c = 2

c = 2

a = 1, b = 1, c = 2

E [F] [A] [T2]
Q.4
A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the distance travelled by the block in the interval t = n 1 to t = n. The the ratio is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Q.5
A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution.

If this particle were projected with the same speed at an angle '' to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, , is then given by :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution













Q.6
A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5m/s2. At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(A)
20 m/s, 10 m/s2
(B)
20 m/s, 5 m/s2
(C)
20 m/s, 0
(D)
20 m/s, 0
(A)

Solution

u = 0

a = 5

t = 4

velocity of car at t = 4 sec is

V = u + at

V = 0 + 5 4

V = 20 m/s

For ball :

At t = 4 s, A ball is dropped out of a window so velocity of ball at this instant is 20 ms–1 along horizontal.

After 2 seconds of motion :

Horizontal velocity of ball , Vx = 20 m/sec

Vy = u + ut

= 10 2

Vertical velocity of ball, Vy = 20 m/sec

So magnitude of velocity of ball

V = = 20

and Acceleration of ball at t = 6 s is g = 10 m/sec2 As ball is under free fall.
Q.7
A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively -
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

Take the surface of the Earth as the reference level for potential energy.

Initially, the particle is released from height , so

  • Initial potential energy

  • Initial kinetic energy

So, total mechanical energy is

Now suppose at some instant the particle is at height above the surface.

Then,

  • Potential energy at that instant

  • Kinetic energy at that instant is given to be three times the potential energy:

Using conservation of mechanical energy:

Substitute and :

So the height from the surface is

Now find the speed at that instant.

Since

and also

So,

Cancel :

Now put :

Therefore,

Hence, the correct answer is:

So, Option A is correct.

Q.8
Water falls from a height of 60m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine? (g = 10 m/s2)
(A)
7.0 kW
(B)
10.2 kW
(C)
8.1 kW
(D)
12.3 kW
(C)

Solution

E = mgh

Pinput =

kW

10% loss = 0.9 103

Poutput = 9 103 0.9 103 = 8.1 kW
Q.9
A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g = 10 m/s2) nearly :
(A)
1.4 kg m/s
(B)
0 kg m/s
(C)
4.2 kg m/s
(D)
2.1 kg m/s
(C)

Solution

To calculate the impulse imparted to the ball, we need to look at the change in momentum during the collision with the ground. The impulse can be determined by the following relationship:

Where:

  • is the change in momentum.
  • Momentum is defined as the product of the mass of an object and its velocity .

Since the ball rebounds to the same height, its speed just before it hits the ground and just after it leaves the ground will be the same (ignoring air resistance), although the direction of the velocity will change.

Let's calculate the speed of the ball just before the impact. The ball drops from a height with initial velocity m/s. Using the kinematic equation for constant acceleration under gravity , we have:

Plugging in the values for , m/s2, and m, we get:

m/s

Since the ball bounces back to the same height, its speed on the way up just after the collision will be m/s but in the opposite direction.

The change in velocity is:

m/s

Given that the mass is 0.15 kg, we can now calculate :

kg m/s

The magnitude of the impulse imparted to the ball is therefore approximately 4.242 kg m/s, which most closely matches:

Option C: 4.2 kg m/s.

Q.10
From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc corresponding to a 90 sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the center of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K' times 'MR2'. Then the value of 'K' is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

Given that,

Mass of Ring = M; Radius of Ring = R

Now 90° arc is removed from circular ring, then

Mass removed =

Mass of remaining portion =

NEET 2021 Physics - Rotational Motion Question 18 English Explanation

I = MR2

I' = R2

I' = I

K =
Q.11
A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of 'm' such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2)

NEET 2021 Physics - Rotational Motion Question 19 English
(A)
kg
(B)
kg
(C)
kg
(D)
kg
(A)

Solution

By balancing torque

2g 20 = 0.5g 60 + mg 120

m = kg = kg
Q.12
The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is :
(A)
4
(B)
(C)
2
(D)
3
(A)

Solution







Q.13
A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity = kVe = (k < 1) from the surface of the earth. (Ve = escape velocity)

The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution















Q.14
The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerin becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerin is , then the viscous force acting on the ball will be :
(A)
2Mg
(B)
(C)
Mg
(D)
Mg
(B)

Solution

Let Fv be the viscous force and FB be the Bouyant force acting on the ball.

NEET 2021 Physics - Properties of Matter Question 21 English Explanation

Then, when body moves with constant velocity

Mg = FB + Fv        [a = 0]

Fv = Mg – FB

=   (Mg = dVg)   V = volume of ball.

=

Fv =
Q.15
A cup of coffee cools from 90C to 80C in t minutes, when the room temperature is 20C. The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80C to 60C at a room temperature same at 20C is :
(A)
t
(B)
t
(C)
t
(D)
t
(C)

Solution











Q.16
Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the correct match from the given choices.

Column - I Column - II
(A) Root mean square speed of gas molecules (P)
(B) Pressure exerted by ideal gas (Q)
(C) Average kinetic energy of a molecule (R)
(D) Total internal energy of 1 mole of a diatomic gas (S)
(A)
(A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)
(B)
(A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
(C)
(A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
(D)
(A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
(D)

Solution

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q.17
A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is :
(A)
4n
(B)
n
(C)
2n
(D)
3n
(C)

Solution

Displacement equation of SHM of frequency 'n'

x = A sin (t) = A sin (2nt)

Now,

Potential energy





So frequency of potential energy = 2n
Q.18
A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is -
(A)
0.628 s
(B)
0.0628 s
(C)
6.28 s
(D)
3.14 s
(A)

Solution

F = Kx

10 = K 0.05

K =





= .628 s
Q.19
Polar molecules are the molecules :
(A)
having a permanent electric dipole moment
(B)
having zero dipole moment
(C)
acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of charges
(D)
acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent
(A)

Solution

Polar molecules have centres of positive and negative charges separated by some distance, so they have permanent dipole moment.
Q.20
A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?

NEET 2021 Physics - Electrostatics Question 21 English
(A)
towards the right as its potential energy will increase.
(B)
towards the left as its potential energy will increase.
(C)
towards the right as its potential energy will decrease.
(D)
towards the left as its potential energy will decrease.
(C)

Solution



As field lines are closed at charge +q.

So, net force on the dipole acts towards right side. A system always moves to decrease it's potential energy.

NEET 2021 Physics - Electrostatics Question 21 English Explanation
Q.21
Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres (1 / 2) is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

NEET 2021 Physics - Electrostatics Question 22 English Explanation









Q.22
Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
(A)
1980 V
(B)
660 V
(C)
1320 V
(D)
1520 V
(A)

Solution

Let charge and radius of smaller drop is q and r respectively

For smaller drop, V =

Let R be radius of bigger drop,

As volume remains the same



R = 3r

Now, using charge conservation,

Q = 27q

Vbig drop =

= 9 220 = 1980 V
Q.23
In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?
(A)
62 cm
(B)
60 cm
(C)
21.6 cm
(D)
64 cm
(B)

Solution

= constant

Eunknown = Ib

Eunknown Ib



cm
Q.24
The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25. What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?
(A)
4
(B)
0.25
(C)
0.5
(D)
1
(A)

Solution

= .25

R = 1

Now these four resistances are arranged in series

RS = R + R + R + R = 4R

= 4 1 = 4
Q.25
Column - I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor. Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match column-I and column-II with appropriate relations.

Column - I Column - II
(A) Drift Velocity (P)
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q)
(C) Relaxation Period (R)
(D) Current Density (S)
(A)
(A)-(R); (B)-(Q); (C)-(S); (D)-(P)
(B)
(A)-(R); (B)-(S); (C)-(P); (D)-(Q)
(C)
(A)-(R); (B)-(S); (C)-(Q); (D)-(P)
(D)
(A)-(R); (B)-(P); (C)-(S); (D)-(Q)
(B)

Solution

Current density, J = = nevd

Drift velocity, Vd = ;

Electrical resistivity, = or =

Relaxation period,

A R

B S

D Q

C P
Q.26
Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is :

NEET 2021 Physics - Current Electricity Question 35 English
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution



Q.27
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is 'd' and the area of each plate is 'A', the energy stored in the capacitor is : (0 = permittivity of free space)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

Energy = Energy density volume

=
Q.28
The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is :

NEET 2021 Physics - Capacitor Question 16 English
(A)
3C/2
(B)
3C
(C)
2C
(D)
C/2
(C)

Solution

NEET 2021 Physics - Capacitor Question 16 English Explanation

CAB = 2C
Q.29
A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the cable is represented by :
(A)
NEET 2021 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 23 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2021 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 23 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2021 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 23 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2021 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 23 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

From Ampere's circuital law





NEET 2021 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 23 English Explanation
Q.30
An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron and the conductor is 20cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.

NEET 2021 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 22 English
(A)
8 1020 N
(B)
4 1020 N
(C)
8 1020 N
(D)
4 1020 N
(A)

Solution



F = BVq sin

= 90

F = BVq



F = 8 1020 N
Q.31
In the product





For q = 1 and and

What will be the complete expression for ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Given q = 1 and and

Also given,





Thus, calculating values of RHS,



= (4B0 - 6B) - (2B0 - 6B) + (2B - 4B)

Comparing L.H.S and R.H.S,

4B0 – 6B = 4 .....(1)

–(2B0 – 6B)= –20 .....(2)

2B – 4B = 12 B = –6 .....(3)

From (2) and (3) B = –6 and B0 = –8

=
Q.32
A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of ,

(i) an equilateral tringle of side 'a'

(ii) A square of side 'a'

The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are :
(A)
4Ia2 and 3Ia2
(B)
Ia2 and 3I a2
(C)
3Ia2 and Ia2
(D)
3Ia2 and 4Ia2
(B)

Solution

NEET 2021 Physics - Magnetism and Matter Question 12 English Explanation 1













NEET 2021 Physics - Magnetism and Matter Question 12 English Explanation 2







Q.33
Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R1 >> R2, the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)

Solution

Two concentric coils are of radius R1 and R2 as shown

NEET 2021 Physics - Electromagnetic Induction Question 11 English Explanation
Let current in outer loop be i

Magnetic field at center = B =

Magnetic flux through inner coil = B

=

As per definition, = Mi

M =

M
Q.34
An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference 'V' volts as shown in figure. Potential difference across L, C and R is 40V, 10V and 40V, respectively. The amplitude of current flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 A. The impedance of the circuit is :

NEET 2021 Physics - Alternating Current Question 25 English
(A)
5
(B)
4
(C)
5/
(D)
4
(A)

Solution

I0 = 10 A

IRMS = = 10A





= 50 V

Impedance,
Q.35
A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by

V = V0sint

The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)

Solution

Given, V = V0sint

We know,

Now displacement current Id is given by,

Id =



Q.36
A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit ?
(A)
4A
(B)
0.2A
(C)
0.4A
(D)
2A
(B)

Solution

Power loss = 0

= 100%

Pin = Po/p

VPIp = VSIs

220 Ip = 44

Ip = A = .2A
Q.37
A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80F capacitor and 40 resistor is connected to 230V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be :
(A)
42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
(B)
25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
(C)
50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
(D)
46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
(D)

Solution

rad/sec

rad/sec

rad/sec

rad/sec
Q.38
For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Wave in x direction

C =





Q.39
Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is

NEET 2021 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 25 English
(A)
90
(B)
60
(C)
30
(D)
45
(B)

Solution

NEET 2021 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 25 English Explanation

from Snell's law

sin 30o = 1 sin r

r = 60o
Q.40
A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance 'd' between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a parallel beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be :
(A)
30
(B)
25
(C)
15
(D)
50
(C)

Solution

NEET 2021 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 24 English Explanation

Parallel beam of light after refraction from convex lens converge at the focus of convex lens. In question it is given light after refraction pass through concave lens becomes parallel. Therefore light refracted from convex lens virtually meet at focus of concave lens.

According to above ray diagram, d = fA fB

= 20 5

= 15 cm
Q.41
A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since :
(A)
a large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.
(B)
a large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.
(C)
a large aperture provides a better resolution.
(D)
All the above.
(D)

Solution

With larger aperture of objective lens, the light gathering power in telescope is high.

Also, the resolving power or the ability to observe two objects distinctly also depends on the diameter of the objective. Thus objective of large diameter is preferred.

Also, with large diameters fainter objects can be observed. Hence it also contributes to the better quality and visibility of images.

Hence, all options are correct.
Q.42
A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of -

NEET 2021 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 23 English
(A)
20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
(B)
20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
(C)
30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
(D)
30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
(A)

Solution

First for image formation from lens

u = 60 cm

f = +30 cm

cm

This real image formed by lens acts as virtual object for mirror.

NEET 2021 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 23 English Explanation

Real image from plane mirror is formed 20 cm in front of mirror, hence at 20cm distance from lens. Now for second refraction from lens,

u = 20 cm

f = +30 cm

cm

So, final virtual image is 60 cm from lens, or 20 cm behind mirror.
Q.43
A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6MeV while that of fragments is 8.5MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is :
(A)
216MeV
(B)
0.9MeV
(C)
9.4MeV
(D)
804MeV
(A)

Solution

Given binding energy per nucleon of X, Y & Z are

7.6MeV, 8.5MeV & 8.5MeV respectively,

Gain in binding energy is :

Q = Binding Energy of products Binding energy of reactants

= (120 8.5 2) (240 7.6) MeV

= 216 MeV
Q.44
The half life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 hours would be :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Q.45
A radioactive nucleus
,
where Z is the atomic number of element X. The possible decay particles in the sequence are :
(A)
, , +
(B)
, , +
(C)
, +,
(D)
+, ,
(D)

Solution

+ decreases atomic number by 1.

decreases atomic number by 2.

increases atomic number by 1.
Q.46
The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600nm, when it delivers the power of 3.3 103 watt will be : (h = 6.6 1034 Js)
(A)
1015
(B)
1018
(C)
1017
(D)
1016
(D)

Solution



Q.47
An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '' is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength d, then :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)

Solution

[given is negligible]

So,



Q.48
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.

(A) A Zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator.

(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
(A)
(A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
(B)
(A) and (B) both are correct.
(C)
(A) and (B) both are incorrect.
(D)
(A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
(D)

Solution

In reverse biased, after breakdown, voltage across the zener diode becomes constant. Therefore zener diode is connected in reverse biased when used as voltage regulator.

for Ge Potential barrier V0 = 0.3 V

Si Potential barrier V0 = 0.7 V
Q.49
The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.
(A)
No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow in n-type
(B)
Current in n-type = current in p-type
(C)
current in p-type > current in n-type
(D)
current in n-type > current in p-type
(D)

Solution

In N type semiconductor majority charge carriers are e and P type semiconductor majority charge carriers are holes.

I = neAVd = neA (E)

As e > h Ie > Ih
Q.50
For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the output at the terminal y?

NEET 2021 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 29 English 1 NEET 2021 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 29 English 2
(A)
NEET 2021 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 29 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2021 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 29 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2021 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 29 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2021 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 29 English Option 4
(C)

Solution



NEET 2021 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 29 English Explanation
Chemistry (Maximum Marks: 200)
  • This section contains 50 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
(A)
CH4
(B)
CH
(C)
CH2
(D)
CH3
(D)

Solution


Based on above calculation, possible empirical formula is CH3.NEET 2021 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Question 19 English Explanation
Q.2
A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light c = 3.0 108 ms1]
(A)
21.92 cm
(B)
219.3 m
(C)
219.2 m
(D)
2192 m
(B)

Solution

Energy of electromagnetic radiation (E)



So,



m
Q.3
From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?
(A)
Fe2+, Mn2+
(B)
O2, F
(C)
Na+, Mg2+
(D)
Mn2+, Fe3+
(A)

Solution

Isoelectronic species have some number of electrons.

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Structure of Atom Question 18 English Explanation
Q.4
Choose the correct option for graphical representation of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different temperatures :
(A)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Gaseous State Question 7 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Gaseous State Question 7 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Gaseous State Question 7 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Gaseous State Question 7 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

According to Boyle's law, at constant temperature, pressure of a gas of fixed amount varies inversely with volume.

p p = pV = k

where k is proportionality constant and equal to nRT.

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Gaseous State Question 7 English Explanation
As temperature increases, gas expands i.e. volume of gas increases.

So, the product pV increases and the p vs V curve of Boyle’s law shifts upwards.
Q.5
Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4g O2 and 2g H2 confined in a total volume of one litre at 0C is :

[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol1K1, T = 273 K]
(A)
26.02
(B)
2.518
(C)
2.602
(D)
25.18
(D)

Solution









atm
Q.6
The pKb of dimethyl amine and pKa of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethyl ammonium acetate solution is :
(A)
6.25
(B)
8.50
(C)
5.50
(D)
7.75
(D)

Solution

Dimethylammonium acetate is a salt of weak acid and weak base whose pH can be calculated as

pH = 7 + (pKa pKb)

pKa of acetic acid = 4.77

pKb of dimethyl amine = 3.27

pH = 7 + (4.77 3.27)

= 7.75
Q.7
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), 10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
(A)
P3 > P1 > P2
(B)
P2 > P1 > P3
(C)
P1 > P2 > P3
(D)
P2 > P3 > P1
(B)

Solution

Osmotic pressure () = iCRT where C is molar concentration of the solution

With increase in molar concentration of solution osmotic pressure increases.

Since, weight of all solutes and its solution volume are equal, so higher will be the molar mass of solute, smaller will be molar concentration and smaller will be the osmotic pressure.

Order of molar mass of solute decreases as Sucrose > Glucose > Urea

So, correct order of osmotic pressure of solution is P3 > P1 > P2
Q.8
The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3 : 2 is :

[At 45C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
(A)
350 mm of Hg
(B)
160 mm of Hg
(C)
168 mm of Hg
(D)
336 mm of Hg
(D)

Solution

Given :

So,

Total vapour pressure of solution,







mm of Hg
Q.9
Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole of ideal gas?
(A)
CV = RCP
(B)
CP + CV = R
(C)
CP CV = R
(D)
CP = RCV
(C)

Solution

At constant volume, qV = CVT = U

At constant pressure, qP = CPT = H

For a mole of an ideal gas,

H = U + (PV)

= U + (RT)

= U + RT

On putting the values of H and U, we have

CPT = CVT + RT

CP = CV + R

CP CV = R
Q.10
For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is :
(A)
U 0, Stotal = 0
(B)
U = 0, Stotal = 0
(C)
U 0, Stotal 0
(D)
U = 0, Stotal 0
(D)

Solution

For a spontaneous process, Stotal > 0 and since irreversible process is always spontaneous therefore Stotal > 0.

Since U = nCVT and T = 0 for isothermal process therefore U = 0.
Q.11
The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm2 mol1 respectively. The molar conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is. Choose the right option for your answer.
(A)
540.48 S cm2 mol1
(B)
201.28 S cm2 mol1
(C)
390.71 S cm2 mol1
(D)
698.28 S cm2 mol1
(C)

Solution

According to Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions.





= 91.0 S cm2 mol1 + 426.16 S cm2 mol1 126.45 S cm2 mol1

= 390.71 S cm2 mol1
Q.12
The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm2 mol1. What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid? Choose the correct option.

[ = 350 S cm2 mol1

= 50 S cm2 mol1]
(A)
2.50 105 mol L1
(B)
1.75 104 mol L1
(C)
2.50 104 mol L1
(D)
1.75 105 mol L1
(D)

Solution

= 20 S cm2 mol1

According to Kohlrausch’s law,



= 50 + 350 = 400 S cm2 mol1

Degree of dissociation,



NEET 2021 Chemistry - Electrochemistry Question 19 English Explanation


As << 1 so 1 - 1





mol L-1
Q.13
For a reaction, A B, enthalpy of reaction is 4.2 kJ mol1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol1. The correct potential energy profile for the reaction is shown in option.
(A)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Kinetics Question 21 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Kinetics Question 21 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Kinetics Question 21 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Kinetics Question 21 English Option 4
(B)

Solution

The enthalpy of reaction is negative, – 4.2 kJ mol−1 . The reaction is an exothermic reaction i.e. the energy of product B, is less than the energy of reactant A. So, the potential energy profile for the reaction is
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Kinetics Question 21 English Explanation
Q.14
The slope of Arrhenius plot of first order reactino is 5 103K. The value of Ea of the reaction is. Choose the correct option for your answer.

[Given R = 8.314 JK1mol1]
(A)
83 kJ mol1
(B)
41.5 kJ mol1
(C)
83.0 kJ mol1
(D)
166 kJ mol1
(B)

Solution

Arrhenius equation





.... (1)

Slope of vs curve,





Ea = 5 103 8.314 J/mol

= 41.57 103 J/mol

41.5 kJ/mol
Q.15
The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is :
(A)
3
(B)
7
(C)
5
(D)
2
(A)

Solution

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Solid State Question 9 English Explanation
In 14 types of Bravais lattices, body centred unit cell is present in cubic, tetragonal and orthorhombic crystal systems.

Hence, body centred possible variation is present in three crystal systems.
Q.16
Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
(A)
12, 6
(B)
8, 4
(C)
6, 12
(D)
2, 1
(A)

Solution

Number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids formed by N closed packed atoms are N and 2N respectively.

Each hexagonal unit cell contains 6 atoms therefore, number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids are 12 and 6 respectively.
Q.17
The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is exhibited by", is :
(A)
Urea solution
(B)
NaCl solution
(C)
Glucose solution
(D)
Starch solution
(D)

Solution

Tyndall effect is exhibited by colloidal solution only.

Among the given options, Urea, NaCl and Glucose solutions are true solutions, so cannot show Tyndall effect.

Starch solution is a colloidal solution therefore can show Tyndall effect.
Q.18
BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are :
(A)
sp2 and 8
(B)
sp3 and 4
(C)
sp3 and 6
(D)
sp2 and 6
(D)

Solution

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 33 English Explanation

Number of electrons around boron atom is 6.

Hybridization of B is sp2.

Shape is trigonal planar.
Q.19
Match List - I with List - II :

List - I List - II
(a) (i) Square pyramidal
(b) (ii) Trigonal planar
(c) (iii) Octahedral
(d) (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(B)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(C)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(D)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(B)

Solution

(a) NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 31 English Explanation 1

Hybridisation of P → sp3d

Structure of PCl5 → Trigonal bipyramidal

(b) NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 31 English Explanation 2

Hybridisation of S → sp3d2

Structure of SF6 → Octahedral

(c) NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 31 English Explanation 3

Hybridisation of Br → sp3d2

Structure of BrF5 → Square pyramidal

(d) NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 31 English Explanation 4

Hybridisation of B → sp2

Structure of BF3 → Trigonal planar
Q.20
The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C-X' bond is :
(A)
CH3 - Cl > CH3 - F > CH3 - Br > CH3 - l
(B)
CH3 - F < CH3 - Cl < CH3 - Br < CH3 - l
(C)
CH3 - F > CH3 - Cl > CH3 - Br > CH3 - l
(D)
CH3 - F < CH3 - Cl > CH3 - Br > CH3 - l
(C)

Solution

On moving down the group from F to I, the size of atom increases. Order of the size of halogen atoms is I > Br > Cl > F.

So, the bond length of C—X bond also increases from F to I and hence, the bond enthalpy decreases from F to I. Correct order of bond length of C—X bond is

H3C - I > H3C - Br > H3C - Cl > H3C - F.

Correct order of bond enthalpy is

H3C - F > H3C - Cl > CH3 - Br > H3C - I.
Q.21
Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?
(A)
NO2
(B)
POCl3
(C)
CH2O
(D)
SbCl5
(D)

Solution

SbCl5 : NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 34 English Explanation 1
Net vector summation of bond moments will be zero so SbCl5 is a non-polar molecule.

NO2 : NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 34 English Explanation 2
POCl3 : NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 34 English Explanation 3
CH2O : NEET 2021 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 34 English Explanation 4
Q.22
The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is :
(A)
Upto 5000 K
(B)
Upto 1200 K
(C)
Upto 2200 K
(D)
Upto 1900 K
(C)

Solution

A blast furnace is generally used for reduction of iron oxides but it can be used for extraction of other metals like Pb from PbO, etc.

In a blast furnace, hot air is blown from the bottom of furnace. This bottom surface has the maximum temperature of upto 2200 K.
Q.23
Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature?
(A)
Zone refining
(B)
Electrolysis
(C)
Chromatography
(D)
Distillation
(D)

Solution

Distillation method is generally used for the purification of metals having low boiling point such as Hg, Zn etc.
Q.24
Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is :
(A)
Beryllium chloride
(B)
Calcium chloride
(C)
Strontium chloride
(D)
Magnesium chloride
(A)

Solution

Except for beryllium chloride all other chloride of alkaline earth metals are ionic in nature.

Due to small size of Be, Beryllium chloride is essentially covalent and soluble in organic solvents.
Q.25
The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are :
(A)
Chain in both
(B)
Chain and dimer, respectively
(C)
Linear in both
(D)
Dimer and Linear, respectively
(B)

Solution

Beryllium chloride has a chain structure in the solid state as shown below

NEET 2021 Chemistry - s-Block Elements Question 11 English Explanation 1
In vapour phase Beryllium chloride tends to form a chloro-bridged dimer.

NEET 2021 Chemistry - s-Block Elements Question 11 English Explanation 2
Q.26
Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the the following particles?
(A)
Neutron (n)
(B)
Beta ()
(C)
Alpha ()
(D)
Gamma ()
(B)

Solution

Hydrogen has three isotopes : protium(H) deuterium(H or D) and tritium (H or T). Of these isotopes, only tritium is radioactive and emits low energy particles (t1/2, 12.33 years).
Q.27
Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI.

Statement II : As the size of the elements, F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(C)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(D)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(B)

Solution

In the modern periodic table, moving down the group as the size of halogen atom increases, the H - X bond length also increases as a result the bond enthalpy decreases. Hence, the acidic strength also increases.

So, the correct order of acidic strength is

HI > HBr > HCl > HF
Q.28
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
(A)
Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy
(B)
Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
(C)
Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points
(D)
Noble gases have weak dispersion forces
(C)

Solution

Nobles gases have weak interatomic forces (van der Waals' forces). So, they have low melting and boiling points.
Q.29
In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicted against it?
(A)
CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : Increasing oxidizing order
(B)
HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength
(C)
H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : Increasing pKa values
(D)
NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Increasing acidic character
(C)

Solution

Stronger is the acid, lower is the value of pKa. On moving down the group, bond dissociation enthalpy of hydrides of group 16 elements decreases hence acidity increases and pKa value decreases. Correct order of pKa value will be

H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
Q.30
The incorrect statement among the following is :
(A)
Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
(B)
Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than lanthanoid contraction.
(C)
Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state.
(D)
Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity.
(C)

Solution

The surface area increases when actinoids are finely divided which results in exposure of more reactant molecules to react. Hence, rate increases and so, actinoids are highly reactive metals when finely divided.

The shielding effect of 5f-orbitals in actinoids is poor than the shielding effect of4f-orbitals. So, the effective nuclear charge on valence electrons is more in actinoids. Hence, actinoid contraction is greater than lanthanoid contraction.

Trivalent lanthanoid ions are coloured in the solid state due to presence of f-electrons.

Lanthanoids are inner transition metals. So, they are good conductors of heat and electricity.
Q.31
Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)

Solution

Both reactions (a) and (b) are examples of decomposition reactions.

Reactions (c) and (d), both are examples of displacement reactions, while reaction (c) is an example of metal displacement reaction n in which a more reactive metal displaces/replaces the less reactive metal.
Q.32
Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :
(A)
Having similar chemical properties
(B)
Belonging to same group
(C)
Diagonal relationship
(D)
Lanthanoid contraction
(D)

Solution

Hf is a post lanthanoid element. Due to presence of4f-orbitals which have poor shielding effect, the effective nuclear charge on valence shell electrons is more which result in the decrease of the size of Hf. This effect is known as lanthanoid contraction.

The almost identical radii of Zr (160 pm) and Hf (159 pm) is a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction.
Q.33
Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
(A)
Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms
(B)
hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" donor atoms
(C)
Unidentate ligand
(D)
Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
(B)

Solution

Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is a hexadented ligand having four donor oxygen atoms and two donor nitrogen atoms

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 28 English Explanation
Q.34
Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(a) (i) 5.92 BM
(b) (ii) 0 BM
(c)
(iii) 4.90 BM
(d)
(iv) 1.73 BM


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(B)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(C)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(D)
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(A)

Solution

Magnetic moment, BM (where n = number of unpaired electrons)

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 29 English Explanation
Q.35
Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(a) (i) Acid rain
(b) (ii) Smog
(c) (iii) Ozone depletion
(d) (iv) Tropospheric pollution


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(B)
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(D)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D)

Solution

Tropospheric pollution : In the presence of pollutant, SO2 converts into SO3.



In spring season, sunlight breaks HOCl and Cl2 to give chlorine radicals.



These chlorine radicals deplete ozone layer

High level of sulphur causes acid rain which reacts with marble and causes discolouring and disfiguring



A chain reaction occurs from interaction of NO with sunlight in which NO is converted to NO2 which absorb energy from sunlight and breaks into NO and O, which causes photochemical smog.

Q.36
The compound which shows metamerism is :
(A)
C4H10O
(B)
C5H12
(C)
C3H8O
(D)
C3H6O
(A)

Solution

Metamerism compound which have same molecular formula but different number of carbon atoms on either sides of functional group are known as metamers and this phenomenon is known as metamerism.

Compounds with formula C4H10O has ether functional group in which following arrangements are possible. So, it shows metamerism. For example

CH3 - CH2 - O - CH2 - CH3,

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 36 English Explanation

and CH3 - O - CH2 - CH2 - CH3 are metamers as structure of alkyl chains are different around the functional group.
Q.37
Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :
(A)
0
(B)
120
(C)
180
(D)
60
(A)

Solution

Ethane has two conformers (i) Eclipsed (ii) Staggered

Eclipsed conformer is least stable while staggered conformer is most stable. In eclipsed conformer the dihedral angle is 0.
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 35 English Explanation
Q.38
The correct structure of 2, 6-dimethyl-dec-4-ene is
(A)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 14 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 14 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 14 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 14 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 14 English Explanation
The structure can be identified with the help of branches at 2 and 6 positions and a double bond at 4 position.
Q.39
The major product of the following chemical reaction is :

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 12 English
(A)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 12 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 12 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 12 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 12 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

Addition of HBr to an alkene in presence of a peroxide (benzoyl peroxide [(C6H5CO)2O2] gives an antiMarkownikoff’s product. Anti-Markownikoff’s rule states that hydrogen is added to a more substituted carbon atom of an unsymmetrical alkene.

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 12 English Explanation
Q.40
The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on?
(A)
Huckel's Rule
(B)
Saytzeff's Rule
(C)
Hund's Rule
(D)
Hofmann Rule
(B)

Solution

Major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-bromopentane is pent-2-ene because according to Saytzeff's Rule, in dehydrohalogenation reactions, the preferred product is that alkene which has greater number of alkyl group(s) attached to the doubly bonded carbon atoms.

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 13 English Explanation
Q.41
What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction?

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 32 English
(A)
2-methylbutan-2-ol
(B)
2-methylpropan-2-ol
(C)
pentan-2-ol
(D)
pentan-3-ol
(A)

Solution

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 32 English Explanation
IUPAC name of product is 2-methylbutan-2-ol.
Q.42
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 31 English
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.
(A)
DIBAL-H
(B)
B2H6
(C)
Red Phosphorus
(D)
CaO
(D)

Solution

In this reaction, removal of carbon dioxide takes place. So, this is a decarboxylation reaction. A decarboxylation reaction takes place with soda lime (NaOH + CaO).

So, missing reagent is CaO.
Q.43
Match List-I with List-II

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 34 English
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(B)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(C)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(D)
(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(A)

Solution

Gattermann-Koch reaction :

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 34 English Explanation 1
Haloform reaction :

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 34 English Explanation 2
Esterification :
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 34 English Explanation 3
Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction :

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 34 English Explanation 4
Q.44
The intermediate compound 'X' in the following chemical reaction is :

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 30 English
(A)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 30 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 30 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 30 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 30 English Option 4
(A)

Solution

This is Etard reaction in which reaction of toluene with chromyl chloride in CCl4 followed by hydrolysis gives benzaldehyde. Toluene reacts with chromyl chloride to form a precipitate called the Etard complex.

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 30 English Explanation
Q.45
The product formed in the following chemical reaction is :

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 33 English
(A)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 33 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 33 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 33 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 33 English Option 4
(D)

Solution

NaBH4 is a reducing agent. If reduces carbonyl group into alcohols but does not reduce esters.

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 33 English Explanation
Q.46
Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
(A)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 19 English Option 1
(B)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 19 English Option 2
(C)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 19 English Option 3
(D)
NEET 2021 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 19 English Option 4
(C)

Solution

Benzenesulphonyl chloride (C6H5SO2Cl) is also known as Hinsberg's reagent.

The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent (C6H5SO2Cl) with primary amine (CH3CH2NH2) yields N-ethylbenzene sulphonamide.

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 19 English Explanation 1
The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent (C6H5SO2Cl) with secondary amine (C2H5NHCH3) gives, N-Ethyl-N-Methyl benzene sulphonamide

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 19 English Explanation 2
3 amine do not react with Hinsberg reagent.
Q.47
Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation?
(A)
Dacron
(B)
Teflon
(C)
Nylon-66
(D)
Novolac
(B)

Solution

Dacron, Nylon-66 and Novolac are prepared by condensation polymerisation.

Teflon is an addition polymer. Monomer of teflon is tetrafluoroethene.

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Polymers Question 5 English Explanation
Q.48
The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical reaction is :

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Polymers Question 6 English
(A)
CuCN/KCN
(B)
H2O
(C)
CH3CH2OH
(D)
HI
(C)

Solution

NEET 2021 Chemistry - Polymers Question 6 English Explanation
Reagent R is C2H5OH with diazonium salt.
Q.49
Given below are two statements :

Statement I :

Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.

Statement II :

Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(C)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(D)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(C)

Solution

To determine the correctness of the given statements, we need to understand the classifications of analgesics (pain relievers).

Statement I: "Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics."

This statement is incorrect. Aspirin and Paracetamol are classified as non-narcotic (or non-opioid) analgesics. They are commonly used for pain relief and fever reduction without the addictive properties associated with narcotic analgesics.

Statement II: "Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics."

This statement is also incorrect. Morphine and Heroin are classified as narcotic (or opioid) analgesics. These drugs are derived from opium and have strong pain-relieving properties, but they also have a high potential for addiction and abuse.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Option C: Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Q.50
The RBC deficiency of deficiency disease of :
(A)
Vitamin B2
(B)
Vitamin B12
(C)
Vitamin B6
(D)
Vitamin B1
(B)

Solution

Deficiency of vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) causes cheilosis, digestive disorders and burning sensation of the skin.

Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes Pernicius anaemia which is RBC deficiency in haemoglobin.

Deficiency of vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) causes Convulsions.

Deficiency of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) causes Beri-Beri (loss of appetite and retarded growth).
Biology (Maximum Marks: 400)
  • This section contains 100 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(A)
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplsm
(B)
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles
(C)
Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells
(D)
The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm
(B)

Solution

A mature sieve tube elements possess a peripheral cytoplasm and a large central vacuole but lacks a nucleus.

Rest of other statements are correct.
Q.2
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Cristae (i) Primary constriction in chromosome
(b) Thylakoids (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
(c) Centromere (iii) Infoldings in mitochondria
(d) Cisternae (iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D)

Solution

The inner membrane of mitochondria forms infoldings called cristae.

Thylakoids are flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids.

Cisternae are disc shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus.

Primary constriction in chromosome that holds two chromatids together is called centromere.

Hence, correct option is (d)- a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
Q.3
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :
(A)
Acrocentric
(B)
Metacentric
(C)
Telocentric
(D)
Sub-metacentric
(B)

Solution

When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as Metacentric.

When the centromere is present slightly away from the middle, it is called sub-metacentric chromosome.

When the centromere is present very close to one end of the chromosome, it is called acrocentric chromosome.

When the centromere is present at terminal position, the chromosome is called telocentric.
Q.4
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are
(A)
Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(B)
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(C)
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(D)
Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(C)

Solution

Endomembrane system consist of endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, vacuoles and lysosomes.

Mitochondria is semi-autonomous cell organelle.

Ribosome is non-membranous cell organelle.
Q.5
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?
(A)
Rubber, gums
(B)
Morphine, codeine
(C)
Amino acids, glucose
(D)
Vinblastin, curcumin
(C)

Solution

The correct option is (c)

Amino acids and glucose are included under the category of primary metabolites as they have identifiable functions and play known roles in normal physiological processes.

Rubber, gums, morphine, codeine, vinblastin and curcumin are included under the category of secondary metabolites as their role or functions in host organisms is not known yet. However, many of them are useful to human welfare.
Q.6
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds
(b) Unsaturated fatty acid (ii) Phosphodiester bonds
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B)

Solution

In a polypeptide or a protein, amino acids are linked by a peptide bond which is formed when the carboxyl (COOH) group of one amino acid reacts with amino (NH2) group of the next amino acid with the elimination of a water moiety.

Unsaturated fatty acids are with one or more C = C double bonds.

In nucleic acids, a phosphate moiety links the 3'-carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the 5'-carbon of the sugar of the succeeding nucleotide. The bond between the phosphate and hydroxyl group is an ester bond. As there is one such ester bond on either side, it is called phosphodiester bond.

In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a glycosidic bond.
Q.7
Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'.

(1) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids

(2) Lecithin is a phospholipid.

(3) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol

(4) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.

(5) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(2) and (5) only
(B)
(1) and (2) only
(C)
(3) and (4) only
(D)
(2) and (3) only
(D)

Solution

The correct option is (d) because lipids having only single bonds are called saturated fatty acids and lipids having one or more C = C double bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids.

Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.

Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including the carboxyl carbon.

Lecithin is a phospholipid found in cell membrane.

Glycerol has 3 carbons, each bearing a hydroxyl (OH) group.
Q.8
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
(A)
Telophase II
(B)
Metaphase I
(C)
Metaphase II
(D)
Anaphase II
(D)

Solution

During anaphase II, each pair of chromosomes is separated into two identical, independent chromosomes. The chromosomes are separated by a structure called the mitotic spindle made up of many long proteins called microtubules, which are attached to a chromosome at one end and to the pole of a cell at the other end. The sister chromatids are separated simultaneously at their centromeres. The separated chromosomes are then pulled by the spindle to opposite poles of the cell. Thus, the centromere splits, freeing the sister chromatids from each other.

Telophase II is the last stage of meiosis II. During this phase, the chromatids reach the poles and start uncoiling.

Chromosomes form two parallel plates in metaphase I and one plate in metaphase II.
Q.9
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are synthesized
(b) phase (ii) Inactive phase
(c) Quiescent stage (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
(d) phase (iv) DNA replication


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D)

Solution

In S phase DNA replication takes place.

In G2 phase there is synthesis of proteins, RNA etc.

Quiescent stage is inactive stage of cell cycle but cells remain metabolically active in this stage.

G1 phase is the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
Q.10
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?
(A)
32
(B)
8
(C)
16
(D)
4
(B)

Solution

In S phase there is duplication of DNA. So amount of DNA increases but not the chromosome number.

So, if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8 in fruit fly then the number of chromosomes will be same in S phase that is 8 only.
Q.11
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
(A)
Pachytene
(B)
Leptotene
(C)
Zygotene
(D)
Diakinesis
(D)

Solution

Diakinesis is the final stage of meiotic prophase 1. In this stage the two homologous chromosomes do not separate completely but remain attached together at one or more points as indicated by ‘X’ arrangement known as chiasmata. The displacement of chiasmata is termed as terminalisation of chiasmata which is completed in diakinesis phase.

Bivalents are formed in zygotene stage and crossing over takes place in pachytene stage.

Compaction of chromosomal material occurs in leptotene stage.
Q.12
The centriole undergoes duplication during :
(A)
G2 phase
(B)
S-phase
(C)
Prophase
(D)
Metaphase
(B)

Solution

During S phase of cell cycle replication of DNA takes place. In animal cells during S phase, centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm.

In G2 phase there is duplication of mitochondria, chloroplast and Golgi bodies. Tubulin protein is also synthesized during this phase.

During prophase, condensation of chromatin starts.

During metaphase, chromosomes get aligned at equator to form metaphasic plate.
Q.13
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
(A)
Cleistogamy
(B)
Xenogamy
(C)
Geitonogamy
(D)
Chasmogamy
(B)

Solution

Xenogamy refers to the transfer to pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma.

Cleistogamy is a condition in which flower does not open.

Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma of another flower of the same plant.

Chasmogamy is a condition in which flowers remain open.
Q.14
Diadelphous stamens are found in
(A)
China rose and citrus
(B)
China rose
(C)
Citrus
(D)
Pea
(D)

Solution

Diadelphous condition is a condition of arrangement of filaments and stamen in a flower, e.g. Pea. In this condition, filaments of nine different stamens are connected into one unit and the tenth posterior stamen remains out of the bundle as a stand part. The androecium of pea flower is diadelphous because the filaments of the anther are united in two bundles. In the case of pea, out of ten, nine stamens form a staminal tube while one is free. Thus, the correct answer is 'Pea' which exhibit diadelphous condition

China rose has monoadelphous stamens while, Citrus has polyadelhphous stamens. Monoadelphous stamens are grouped in single bundle whereas polyadelphous stamens occur in more than two bundles.
Q.15
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
(A)
8-nucleate and 8-celled
(B)
8-nucleate and 7-celled
(C)
7-nucleate and 8-celled
(D)
7-nucleate and 7-celled
(B)

Solution

A typical angiospermic embryo sac has seven cells that are three antipodals, one central cell, one egg cell and two synergids.

The central cell has two polar nuclei, hence the embryo sac is eight nucleated.
Q.16
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
(A)
Rosaceae : Leguminosae
(B)
Poaceae : Rosaceae
(C)
Poaceae : Leguminosae
(D)
Poaceae : Solanaceae
(A)

Solution

In some members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae and Solanaceae pollen grains maintain viability for a month due to sporopollenin.

The outer wall or exine of pollen grains contains sporopollenin. It is one of the most resistant organic compounds known. It protects pollen grains from external factors such as temperature, acid, alkali, etc. because of sporopollenin, pollen grains are preserved as fossils.
Q.17
Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid
(b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactice Acid
(c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid


Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B)

Solution

Citric acid is a principal organic acid present in citrus fruits. To meet the increasing demand, it is produced from carbohydrate feedstock by fermentation with the fungus Aspergillus niger.

Acetobacter aceti uses sugars and alcohols for its carbon source and turns them into their acetic acid.

Clostridium butyricum are Gram-positive bacteria that helps in the production of butyric acid.

Lactobacillus is a genus of Gram-positive, facultative an aerobic, rod-shaped, non-spore forming bacteria. They convert sugars to lactic acid.
Q.18
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
(c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C)

Solution

Lenticels are meant for exchange of gases.

Phellogen is also known as cork cambium.

Phelloderm is also called secondary cortex because it is the cortex that develops during secondary growth.

Cork has deposition of suberin in their cell walls when they get mature.
Q.19
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Cells with active cell division capacity (i) Vascular tissues
(b) Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function (ii) Meristematic tissue
(c) Tissue having different types of cells (iii) Sclereids
(d) Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen (iv) Simple tissue


Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B)

Solution

(a) Meristematic tissues are those tissues which have cells with active cell division capacity.

(b) Simple tissues are those tissues which have all the cells similar in structure and function.

(c) Vascular tissues are complex permanent tissues hence they have different types of cells.

(d) Sclereids are sclerenchymatous cells which are dead with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen.
Q.20
Select the correct pair.
(A)
Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens shaped opening in bark - Spongy parenchyma
(B)
Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves - Subsidiary cells
(C)
In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick-walled cells - Conjunctive tissue
(D)
Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial ring - Interfascicular cambium
(D)

Solution

When the cells of medullary rays differentiated, they give rise to the new cambium called interfascicular cambium.

Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens-shaped opening in bark are called complementary cells.

Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves are called bulliform cells.

In dicot leave, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick walled cells called bundle sheath cells.
Q.21
Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(a) Cohesion (i) More attraction in liquid phase
(b) Adhesion (ii) Mutual attraction among water molecules
(c) Surface tension (iii) Water loss in liquid phase
(d) Guttation (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B)

Solution

(a) Cohesion is mutual attraction among water molecules.

(b) Adhesion is attraction towards polar surfaces.

(c) Surface tension explains water molecules are more attracted in liquid phase than gaseous phase.

(d) Guttation is loss of water is liquid form from the leaf margins.
Q.22
Match Column - I with Column - II.

Column-I Column-II
(a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
(b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite
(c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
(d) Nitrobacter (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia


Choose the correct answer from options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B)

Solution

Nitrogen fixation is conversion of atmospheric N2 to NH3 (ammonia). It is carried out by N2 fixers such as Rhizobium.

NH3 is converted to NO (nitrite) by nitrifying bacteria such as Nitrococus.

Then NO is converted to NO (nitrate) by nitrifying bacteria called Nitrobacter.

Thiobacillus carries out denitrification, a process where NO / NO is converted to N2.
Q.23
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A)
Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration
(B)
During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
(C)
In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
(D)
ATP is synthesized through complex V
(C)

Solution

During respiration, process of ATP synthesis is explained by chemiosmotic model. it says that a proton gradient is required for ATP synthesis that is established by oxidation-reduction reactions.

In ETC, one NADH + H+ produces 3 ATP while one FADH2 produces 2 ATP molecules.
NADH and FADH2 are two different types of electron donors. They differ in the ways they feed electron during electron transport chain. NADH feeds its electrons into the electron transport chain at the beginning (Complex I). FADH2 feeds into the electron transport chain at Complex II (at a lower energy level down the chain). The high energy electrons from NADH have sufficient energy to result in 3 ATP whereas the lower energy electrons in FADH2 have energy for 2 ATP production.

ATP is synthesized via complex V.

In ETS, oxygen acts as terminal electron acceptor.
Q.24
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
(A)
Polysaccharides
(B)
RNA
(C)
DNA
(D)
Histones
(C)

Solution

Various enzymes like protease, RNase, etc. are added to break down substances like proteins, RNA, etc. Once all these substances are broken down, DNA is left which is precipitated out by adding chilled ethanol.

Ethanol has a lower dielectric constant than water, making it to promote ionic bond formation the Na+ (from the salt) and the PO3 (from the DNA backbone), further, causing the DNA to precipitate.
Q.25
Match List-I with List-II .

List-I List-II
(a) Protpolast fusion (i) Totipotency
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C)

Solution

Pomato is obtained as a result of protoplast fusion.

Totipotency is a property of explant to develop into whole plant body during plant tissue culture.

Virus free plants can be obtained through meristem culture.

Somaclones are obtained by the process of micropropagation.
Q.26
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(A)
Detection of gene mutation
(B)
Molecular diagnosis
(C)
Gene amplification
(D)
Purification of isolated protein
(D)

Solution

PCR is Polymerase Chain Reaction.

It is used for making multiple copies of the gene. Hence PCR is used for

The amplification of gene fragments (Gene amplification).

PCR-based assays have been developed that detect the presence of gene sequences of the infectious agents.

Proof-reading PCR (PR-PCR) is designed to detect known mutations within genomic DNA.

Protein is not the target of PCR. Hence, plays no role in its purification.
Q.27
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(A)
Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
(B)
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(C)
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(D)
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(B)

Solution

PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction. It is a technique in which multiple copies of gene of interest is synthesised using two sets of primers and the enzyme DNA polymerase. The correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) are

Denaturation In which the double-stranded template DNA is heated at 95°C to separate it into two single strands.

Annealing In which the temperature is lowered to 50°C which enables the DNA primers to attach to the template DNA.

Extension/Extending In which the temperature is raised and the new strand of DNA is made by the taq polymerase enzyme.

These three stages are repeated 20-40 times, doubling the number of DNA copies each time.
Q.28
Plasmid pBR322 has Pst I restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for -galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
(A)
It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability
(B)
It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell
(C)
The transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce -galactoside
(D)
It will lead to lysis of host cell
(B)

Solution

pBR322 is a commonly used cloning vector. When the gene for -galactoside is inserted in the ampicillin resistance gene by using Pst I, the recombinant E.coli will lose ampicillin resistance due to insertional inactivation of the antibiotic resistance gene.

The host (recombinant) cell will produce -galactoside which is not a novel protein nor does it have dual ability.

The transformed cells cannot resist ampicillin as they have lost ampicillin resistance.

A recombinant E. coli is produced and the host cell will not undergo lysis due to insertion of -galactoside gene.
Q.29
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?
(A)
Ligation
(B)
Annealing
(C)
Extension
(D)
Denaturation
(D)

Solution

Option (d) is correct. Denaturation is first step of PCR that involves seperation of double-stranded DNA. The DNA is subjected to heating at high temperature (95C). This leads to breaking of hydrogen bonds between nucleotides and formation of single-stranded DNA. Thus, if high temperature is not maintained, denaturation will be affected.

Ligation of DNA fragments is performed with the help of an enzyme called DNA ligase.

Annealing is performed at 50-60C which is the second step that can get affected.

Addition of nucleotides to the primer, synthesizing a new DNA strand using only the template sequences with the help of enzyme DNA polymerase is called primer extension/polymerisation.
Q.30
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is :
(A)
Poly (A) tail sequences
(B)
Degenerate primer sequence
(C)
Okazaki sequences
(D)
Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
(D)

Solution

Each restriction endonuclease recognizes a specific palondromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA. Once it finds its specific recognition sequence it bind to DNA and cuts each of the two strands of DNA.

During post transcriptional modification in eukaryotes, poly(A) tail (200-300 adenylate residues) are added at 3' end of hnRNA.

During DNA replication Okazaki fragments are synthesized discontinuously and joined by DNA ligase.

A PCR primer sequence is termed degenerate if some of its position have several possible bases.
Q.31
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?
(A)
House fly
(B)
Fire fly
(C)
Grasshopper
(D)
Cockroach
(A)

Solution

Option (a) is correct because housefly belongs to the family Muscidae, class Insecta and phylum Arthropoda.

Fire flies are placed in family Lampyridae of class Insecta.

Grasshopper is also an insect placed in family Acrididae.

Cockroach is also an insect placed in family Blattidae.
Q.32
Which of the following statements is correct?
(A)
Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
(B)
Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy
(C)
Fusion of protoplasm between two motile on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
(D)
Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes
(C)

Solution

In some blue-green algae specialised cells called heterocyst fixes atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.

Fusion of two nuclei is called Karyogamy.

Organisms that depend on living plants are parasites, saprophytes grow on dead material.

Fusion of protoplasts of two cells is called plasmogamy.
Q.33
Match Column-I with Column-II

NEET 2021 Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 32 English
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B)

Solution

The floral formula of

NEET 2021 Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 32 English Explanation
So, a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) is correct matching.
Q.34
The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is
(A)
Phosphoglyceric acid
(B)
Pyruvic acid
(C)
Oxaloacetic acid
(D)
Succinic acid
(C)

Solution

Sorghum is a C4 plant. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is oxaloacetic acid.

The first stable product in C3 cycle is 3-phosphoglyceric acid.

Pyruvic acid is the end product of glycolysis.

Succinic acid is an intermediate product in krebs cycle.
Q.35
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A)
Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II
(B)
Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
(C)
Stoma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase
(D)
Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
(A)

Solution

Cyclic photophosphorylation involves only PS I. Cyclic photophosphorylation is a process in which an electron expelled by the excited photocentre is returned to it after passing through a series of electron carriers. The excited electron does not pass on to NADP+ but is cycled back to the PS I complex through the electron transport chain.
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation involves both photosystems I and II. The electron follows a non-cyclic pathway in it. The representation of it is also called Z scheme.

Both PS I and PS II are found on grana lamellae whereas stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.
Q.36
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called :
(A)
Net square
(B)
Bullet square
(C)
Punch square
(D)
Punnett square
(D)

Solution

Punnett square is a tool that helps to show all possible allelic combinations of gametes in a cross of parents with known genotypes in order to predict the probability of their offspring possessing certain sets of alleles. For a cross involving two genes, a Punnett square is still a good strategy.
Q.37
Now-a-days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because:
(A)
mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it
(B)
mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film
(C)
mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film
(D)
mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complementarity with it
(D)

Solution

Autoradiography allows the detection/localisation of radioactive isotope within a biological sample.

Probe is a radiolabelled ss DNA or ss RNA depending on the technique. To identify the mutated gene probe is allowed to hybridise to its complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography. The mutated gene will not appear on the photographic film, because the probe does not have complementarity with the mutated gene.
Q.38
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
(A)
100%
(B)
50%
(C)
75%
(D)
25%
(D)

Solution

The genotype of both male and female, heterozygous for sickle-cell anaemia gene can be represented as HbA HbS
Thus,

NEET 2021 Biology - Principles of Inheritance and Variation Question 47 English Explanation

Total number of affected progenies = 1

Percentage of diseased/affected progenies =
Q.39
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as
(A)
Bright blue bands
(B)
Yellow bands
(C)
Bright orange bands
(D)
Dark red bands
(C)

Solution

To make the DNA visible in the gel, ethidium bromide is added to the gel solution and the buffer. This positively charged polycyclic aromatic compound binds to DNA by inserting itself between the basepairs (intercalation). The DNA fragments when exposed to ultraviolet light appear as orange colour bands, due to the large increase in fluorescence of the ethidium bromide upon binding to the DNA.
Q.40
Complete the flow chart on central dogma.

NEET 2021 Biology - Molecular Basis of Inheritance Question 64 English
(A)
(a) - Transduction; (b) - Translation; (c) - Replication; (d) - Protein
(B)
(a) - Replication; (b) - Transcription; (c) - Transduction; (d) - Protein
(C)
(a) - Translation; (b) - Replication; (c) - Transcription; (d) - Transduction
(D)
(a) - Replication; (b) - Transcription; (c) - Translation; (d) - Protein
(D)

Solution

Formation of DNA from DNA is replication.

Formation of mRNA from DNA is called Transcription.

Formation of protein from mRNA is called Translation.

So,

(a) is Replication

(b) is Transcription

(c) is Translation

(d) is Protein

Transduction is transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another with the help of virus or a bacteriophage.
Q.41
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
(A)
Transcribes only snRNAs
(B)
Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
(C)
Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
(D)
Transcribes precursor of mRNA
(C)

Solution

RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA, ScRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNA.

RNA polymerase I transcribes 5.8S, 18S and 28S rRNA.

RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA which is precursor of mRNA
Q.42
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
(A)
Polymorphic DNA
(B)
Satellite DNA
(C)
Repetitive DNA
(D)
Single nucleotides
(C)

Solution

DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as repetitive DNA.

The basis of DNA fingerprinting is VNTR (a satellite DNA as probe that show very high degree of polymorphism)

Polymorphism is the variation at genetic level. Allelic sequence variation has traditionally been described as a DNA polymorphism.
Q.43
Identify the correct statement.
(A)
Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes
(B)
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3' end of hnRNA
(C)
RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria
(D)
The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA
(C)

Solution

Split gene arrangement is characteristic of eukaryotes.

In capping 5-methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at 5' end of hnRNA.

At 3' end poly-A tail is added.

The non coding or template strand is copied to an mRNA. RNA polymerase associate with factor (Rho factor) and it alters the specificity of the RNA polymerase to terminate the processes.
Q.44
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?
(A)
T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
(B)
T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
(C)
T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
(D)
T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
(D)

Solution

Chargaff rule - In DNA there is always equality in quantity between the bases A and T and between the bases G and C.

According to Chargaff's rule, for a double stranded DNA,

[A] = [T],

[A] = 30%, [T] = 30%

Since [C] = [G]

100 [A + T]

= 100 [30 + 30]

= 100 60 = 40%

and C = G = 20% each

[A] = 30%

[T] = 30%

[G] = 20%

[C] = 20%
Q.45
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?
(A)
siRNA
(B)
mRNA
(C)
tRNA
(D)
rRNA
(A)

Solution

siRNA mainly protect the cell from exogenous mRNA attacks. It degrades the growing mRNA and stop gene expression. It is highly specific and reduces the synthesis of particular proteins by reducing the translation of specific messenger RNAs. Hence, siRNA is not required for protein synthesis but is used to reduce its synthesis.

mRNA is messenger RNA that carries genetic information provided by DNA.

tRNA carries amino acids to the mRNA during translation.

rRNA is structural RNA that forms ribosomes which are involved in translation.
Q.46
Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?
(A)
DNase
(B)
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(C)
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(D)
DNA Ligase
(C)

Solution

Prokaryotes utilize one RNA polymerase for transcription of all types of RNA. The enzyme RNA polymerase is needed for RNA formation from DNA, i.e. DNA dependent RNA polymerase. It occurs in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells. RNA polymerase is the only enzyme which, has the capability to catalyse all initiation, elongation and termination in prokaryotes.
Q.47
Which one of the following statements about histones is wrong?
(A)
Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
(B)
Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules
(C)
The pH of histones is slightly acidic
(D)
Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine
(C)

Solution

Histones are rich in basic amino acids residue lysine and arginine with charged side chain.

There are five types of histone proteins i.e. H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. Four of them occur in pairs to produce a unit of 8 molecules (histone octamer).

The pH of histones is basic.
Q.48
Statement I : The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine.

Statement II : 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for the amino acid lysine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(C)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(D)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(A)

Solution

The codon AUG only codes for methionine. As the codons are universal. From bacteria to mammals AUG only codes for methionine.

Statement I is false.

Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is degenerate. AAA and AAG both codons code for the amino acid lysine.

Statement II is true.
Q.49
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
(A)
Zeatin
(B)
Kinetin
(C)
Infrared rays
(D)
Gamma rays
(D)

Solution

Several kinds of radiation like gamma rays, X-rays, UV-rays cause mutation.

These are physical mutagens.

Such induced mutation in plants is done to develop improved varieties. The first natural cytokinin was isolated from unripe maize grain known as zeatin. The cytokinin that was obtained from degraded product of autoclaved herring sperm DNA was kinetin (N6-furfuryl aminopurine). Infrared rays cause heating effect.
Q.50
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification of crops?
(A)
Improve micronutrient and mineral content
(B)
Improve protein content
(C)
Improve resistance to diseases
(D)
Improve vitamin content
(C)

Solution

Biofortification is the method developed to produce crops with high level of vitamins, proteins and minerals to improve public health.

Improving resistance to disease is not the objective of biofortification hence option(c) is correct.
Q.51
Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?
(A)
Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage
(B)
Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for supper ovulation
(C)
Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
(D)
Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
(B)

Solution

Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology is used for herd improvement in short time.

Cows are administered hormones, with FSH-like activity for superovulation.

8-32 celled embryos are transferred to surrogate mothers.

6-8 eggs are produced per cycle.

Cows can be fertilized by artificial insemination.
Q.52
When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
(A)
Safety testing
(B)
Biopiracy
(C)
Gene therapy
(D)
Molecular diagnosis
(C)

Solution

The correct option is (c)

Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed in a child/embryo.

Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment.

Molecular diagnosis refers to the act or process of determining the nature and cause of a disease.
Q.53
With regard to insulin choose correct options.

(1) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.

(2) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.

(3) The pro-insulin has C-peptide

(4) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(1) and (4) only
(B)
(2) and (4) only
(C)
(2) and (3) only
(D)
(1), (3) and (4) only
(D)

Solution

Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone which contains A-chain, B-chain and an extra stretch called the C-peptide.

C-peptide is not present in mature insulin called humulin.

Chains A and B are connected by interchain disulphide bridges.
Q.54
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?
(A)
Predation
(B)
Resource partitioning
(C)
Competitive release
(D)
Mutualism
(B)

Solution

Inspite of interspecific competition the competing species may co-exist by doing resource partitioning.

In mutualism two organisms are equally benefitted.

In predation one organism (Predator) eats the another one (Prey).

In competition release there occurs dramatical increase in population of a less distributed species when its superior competitor is removed.
Q.55
Amensalism can be represented as :
(A)
Species A (+) ; Species B (0)
(B)
Species A (); Species B (0)
(C)
Species A (+); Species B (+)
(D)
Species A (); Species B ()
(B)

Solution

Amensalism is an interaction between two organisms of different species in which one species inhibits the growth of other species by secreting certain chemicals. The first species is neither get benefited nor harmed.

(+) : (0) interaction is observed in commensalism.

(+) : (+) interaction is observed in mutualism.

() : () interaction is seen in competition.
Q.56
In the exponential growth equation
Nt = N0ert, e represents
(A)
The base of geometric logarithms
(B)
The base of number logarithms
(C)
The base of exponential logarithms
(D)
The base of natural logarithms
(D)

Solution

In the exponential growth equation
Nt = N0ert, e represents the base of natural logarithms

Nt = Population density after time t

N0 = Population density at time zero

r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase called biotic potential.
Q.57
Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(a) Allen's Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
(b) Physiological adaptation (ii) Desert lizard
(c) Behavioural adaptation (iii) Marine fish at depth
(d) Biochemical adaptation (iv) Polar seal


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D)

Solution

Polar seal generally has shorter ears and limbs (extremities) to minimize heat loss. This is with reference to Allen's rule.

Kangaroo rat exhibits physiological adaptation.

Desert lizard shows behavioural adaptation. They lack the physiological ability to cope-up with extreme temperature but manage the body temperature by behavioural means.

Marine fishes at depth are adapted biochemically to survive in great depths in ocean.
Q.58
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
(A)
Troposphere
(B)
CFCs
(C)
Stratosphere
(D)
Ozone
(D)

Solution

The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of atmosphere is measured in term of Dobson unit (1 DU = 1ppb).

The lowermost layer of atmosphere is called troposphere.

CFCs are ozone depleting substances. Ozone found in upper part of atmosphere (the stratosphere) is called good ozone.
Q.59
Gemmae are present in
(A)
Some Liverworts
(B)
Mosses
(C)
Pteridophytes
(D)
Some Gymnosperms
(A)

Solution

Gemmae are green, multicellular asexual buds that are produced by some liverworts like Marchantia.

Mosses reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation and budding of protonema.

Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms normally do not reproduce asexually
Q.60
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
(A)
Blue-green algae
(B)
Green algae
(C)
Brown algae
(D)
Red algae
(D)

Solution

The cell wall of red algae is composed of agar, carrageen and funori along with cellulose.

In brown algae cell wall contains algin while in green algae it is composed of cellulose and pectin.

In blue green algae cell wall is composed of mucopeptides.
Q.61
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reverse food material?
(A)
Ulothrix
(B)
Ectocarpus
(C)
Gracilaria
(D)
Volvox
(B)

Solution

Ectocarpus is a brown alga belongs to the class Phaeophyceae. Members of this class have mannitol and laminarin as stored food mterial.

Ulothrix and Volvox belong to Chlorophyceae (green algae). Members of this class have starch as reserve food material. Gracilaria is a member of red algae (Rhodophyceae). This class is characterised by having floridean starch as stored food material.
Q.62
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment of phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called
(A)
Maturity
(B)
Elasticity
(C)
Flexibility
(D)
Plasticity
(D)

Solution

Plant plasticity refers to the ability to modify itself by forming different kind of structures to adapt and cope with changes in its environment. It can be intrinsic plasticity or extrinsic plasticity. In both the cases plants shows heterophylly along with other morphological features, e.g. in the leaves Larkspur and buttercup.
Q.63
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is
(A)
Leaf
(B)
Shoot apex
(C)
Stem
(D)
Axillary bud
(A)

Solution

The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is leaf.

The site of perception of low temperature stimulus during vernalisation is shoot apex and embryo.

Axillary bud are not sites of perception of photoperiod.
Q.64
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
(A)
IBA
(B)
IAA
(C)
NAA
(D)
2, 4-D
(D)

Solution

Some synthetic auxins are used as weedicides. 2, 4-D is widely used to remove broad leaved weeds or dicotyledonous weeds in cereal crops or monocotyledonous plants.

Auxins like IAA and IBA are used to induce parthenocarpy. IAA also stimulate nodule formation.

Auxin like NAA is used to increase dwarf shoots.
Q.65
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :
(A)
Standing crop
(B)
Climax
(C)
Climax community
(D)
Standing state
(D)

Solution

Amount of all the inorganic substances or nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in soil at any given time, is referred as standing state.

Amount of living material present in different trophic levels at a given time, is referred s standing crop.

Climax community is the last community in biotic succession which is relatively stable and is in near equilibrium with the environment of that area.
Q.66
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A)
Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright
(B)
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
(C)
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
(D)
Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(C)

Solution

Pyramid of biomass in a sea is generally inverted because the primary producers (phytoplanktons) have a lower biomass than that of succeeding zooplanktons, which further have a lower biomass than that of succeeding small fishes and so on.

Pyramid of energy is the only pyramid that can never be inverted and is always upright. This is because some amount of energy in the form of heat is always lost to the environment at every trophic level of the food chain.

In a grassland ecosystem, the number of producers is always maximum, followed by reducing number of organisms at second trophic level, third trophic level and other higher level (if present). Thus, the pyramid of number in grassland is upright.
Q.67
In the equation GPP - R = NPP

R represents :
(A)
Respiration losses
(B)
Radiant energy
(C)
Retardation factor
(D)
Environmental factor
(A)

Solution

In the equation,

GPP - R = NPP

R refers to respiratory loss

GPP is gross primary productivity

NPP is net primary productivity
Q.68
Identify the incorrect pair
(A)
Drugs - Ricin
(B)
Alkaloids - Codeine
(C)
Toxin - Abrin
(D)
Lectins - Concanavalin A
(A)

Solution

Option (a) is incorrect because ricin is a toxin obtained from Ricinus plant. Vinblastin and curcumin are drugs.

Morphine and codeine are alkaloids.

Abrin is also a toxin obtained by plant Abrus.

Concanavalin A is a lectin.
Q.69
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?
(A)
Hybridization Technique
(B)
Western Blotting Technique
(C)
Southern Blotting Technique
(D)
ELISA Technique
(D)

Solution

The correct answer is Option D: ELISA Technique.

Explanation:

Option A: Hybridization Technique - This technique, including Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization (FISH), involves the pairing of single-stranded DNA or RNA molecules with complementary sequences, allowing the detection of specific nucleic acids within a complex mixture. It's widely used for gene mapping, diagnosis of genetic disorders, and identification of infectious agents. However, its application is more towards locating specific sequences rather than early detection of diseases.

Option B: Western Blotting Technique - This is a protein analysis method that involves the separation of proteins via gel electrophoresis, followed by their transfer to a membrane and detection using antibodies. It's used for identifying specific proteins in a sample and understanding protein size or abundance, but it is not primarily used for early disease detection.

Option C: Southern Blotting Technique - This method involves the transfer of DNA fragments from an agarose gel to a membrane followed by hybridization with a labeled DNA probe to detect specific DNA sequences. It's widely used in molecular biology for gene detection and mapping but not necessarily for early disease detection.

Option D: ELISA Technique - The Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) is a popular technique used for detecting and quantifying substances such as peptides, proteins, antibodies, and hormones. In the context of disease detection, ELISA is exceptionally valuable because it can be used to detect specific antigens or antibodies in blood samples, making it a crucial tool for early diagnosis of diseases. This might include viral infections (like HIV), bacterial infections, and autoimmune diseases. Its sensitivity and specificity make ELISA particularly useful for early detection, when the levels of the target molecule might be very low but detecting it is critical for effective treatment.

Therefore, for early detection of diseases, the ELISA Technique stands out among the options given for its ability to detect specific biomolecules related to diseases at an early stage, facilitating early diagnosis and treatment.

Q.70
Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenzae
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti
(d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica


Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(C)

Solution

The correct option is (c).

Filariasis or elephantiasis is caused by filarial worm known as Wuchereria bancrofti. It affect the lymphatic vessels of lower limbs resulting in gross deformities.

Amoebiasis/Amoebic dysentery is caused by a protozoan parasite Entamoeba histolytica in the large intestine of human.

Penumonia is caused by bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.

Ringworm is caused by fungi belonging to genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton.
Q.71
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
(A)
Addison's disease
(B)
Dysfunction of immune system
(C)
Parkinson's disease
(D)
Digestive disorder
(B)

Solution

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme is crucial for the immune system to function. Hence, its deficiency results in the dysfunction of immune system.

Hyposecretion of hormones of the adrenal cortex causes Addison's disease.

Parkinson's disease is a long-term degenerative disorder of the central nervous system.

Disorders which affect GIT & associated glands are called digestive disorders.
Q.72
Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to :
(A)
Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
(B)
Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
(C)
Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
(D)
Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
(A)

Solution

Option (a) is correct because persons with 'AB' blood group contain antigens 'A' and 'B' but lack antibodies anti-A and anti-B in plasma. So, persons with 'AB' blood group can accept blood from persons with AB as well as the other groups of blood due to lack of antibodies in their blood. Therefore, such persons are called "Universal recipients".
Q.73
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
(A)
Thrombokinase
(B)
Thrombin
(C)
Renin
(D)
Epinephrine
(B)

Solution

During coagulation of blood, an enzyme complex thrombokinase helps in the conversion of prothrombin (present in plasma) into thrombin.

Thrombin further helps in the conversion of inactive fibrinogens into fibrins which form network of threads.

Renin is secreted by JG cells in response to fall in glomerular blood flow, which converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin-I

Epinephrine or adrenaline is secreted by adrenal medulla in response to stress of any kind and during emergency.
Q.74
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :
(A)
Gout
(B)
Arthritis
(C)
Muscular dystrophy
(D)
Myasthenia gravis
(D)

Solution

Option (d) is correct because myasthenia gravis is a chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.

Gout is caused due to deposition of uric acid crystals in joints leading to its inflammation.

Arthritis is the swelling and tenderness of one or more number of joints. It is caused by injury, abnormal metabolism, and genetic makeup.

Muscular dystrophy is a disease characterised by progressive degeneration of muscle fibres without the involvement of nervous system.
Q.75
Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
(d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone


Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(A)

Solution

The correct option is (a).

Scapula It is a flat, triangular shaped bone. It is located at the upper thoracic region on the dorsal surface of the ribcage.

Cranium It is the part of the skull that encloses the brain. They have immovable fibrous joint.

Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax. Also referred as breastbone.

Vertebral column It is a series of approximately 33 bones called vertebrae. They have cartilaginous type joints designed for weight bearing.
Q.76
During muscular contraction which of the following events occur?

(1) 'H' zone disappears

(2) 'A' band widens

(3) 'I' band reduces in width

(4) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi.

(5) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(2), (4), (5), (1) only
(B)
(1), (3), (4), (5) only
(C)
(1), (2), (3), (4) only
(D)
(2), (3), (4), (5) only
(B)

Solution

The correct option is (b) because the length of A-band is retained. During muscle contraction, the following events occur:

(1) The globular head of myosin acts as ATPase and hydrolysis ATP molecule and eventually leads to the formation of cross bridge.

(2) This pulls the actin filament towards the centre of 'A-band'.

(3) The Z-line attached to these actins are also pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere.

(4) The thin myofilaments move past the thick myofilaments due to which the H-zone narrows. This reduces the length of I-band but retains the length of A-band.

(5) The myosin then releases ADP + Pi, and goes back to its relaxed state.
Q.77
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce to kinds of spores. Such plants are known as :
(A)
Heterosporous
(B)
Homosorus
(C)
Heterosorus
(D)
Homosporous
(A)

Solution

Plants like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spore i.e., microspores and macrospores. They are known as heterosporous.

Most of the pteridophytes produce single type of spores and are called homosporous

Sorus are brownish or yellowish cluster of spore-producing structures located on the lower surface of fern leaves.
Q.78
Which of the following plants is monoecious?
(A)
Cycas circinalis
(B)
Carica papaya
(C)
Chara
(D)
Marchantia polymorpha
(C)

Solution

When male and female sex organs are present on same plant body, such plants are said to be monoecious.

Most of the species of Chara are monoecious as it has oogonium (female organ) and antheridium (male organ) on the same plant.

When both reproductive structures are present on different plants then this condition is called dioecious. Cycas circinalis, Carica papaya and Marchantia polymorpha are dioecious.
Q.79
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?
(A)
Multiload 375
(B)
CuT
(C)
LNG 20
(D)
Cu 7
(C)

Solution

Levonorgestrel hormone is released from LNG-20. It is highly effective for contraception. The risk of unwanted pregnancy is lower with LNG-20 because it causes endometrial atrophy and alter the stroma to inhibit the process of implantation.

Lippes loop is an IUD impregnated with barium sulphate. IUDs like CuT and multiload-375 release copper that suppress the motility of sperm thus reducing its fertilising capacity. Thus, Lippes loop, CuT and multiload-375 are not hormone releasing IUDs.
Q.80
Veneral diseases can spread through :

(1) Using sterile needles

(2) Transfusion of blood from infected person

(3) Infector mother to foetus

(4) Kissing

(5) Inheritance

Choose the correct answer from the option given below.
(A)
(1) and (3) only
(B)
(1), (2), and (3) only
(C)
(2), (3) and (4) only
(D)
(2) and (3) only
(D)

Solution

Venereal diseases or sexually transmitted diseases or infections are transmitted by sharing of infected needles, surgical instruments with infected person, transfusion of blood or from an infected mother to foetus.

Venereal diseases are not transmitted through kissing or inheritance.
Q.81
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas deferens
(c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus
(d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube


Choose the correct answer from the option given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C)

Solution

Vaults is a rubber dome, which fits over the vaginal vault or cervix. They prevents the entry of sperm into the uterus.

IUDs are the devices which are inserted by the doctors or trained nurses into the uterus of female. These IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperm in uterus.

Vasectomy : Surgical removal of the small part of vas deferens. It is a form of male birth control that inhibits to transport of male gamete.

Tubectomy is a surgical method of contraception in females where a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or through vagina.
Q.82
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?
(A)
These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
(B)
These muscle have no striations
(C)
They are involuntary muscles
(D)
Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
(D)

Solution

Option (d) is incorrect because intercalated discs are found only in cardiac muscle tissue.

Smooth muscle fibres are non-striated and involuntary in nature and are present in the wall of blood vessels, uterus, gall bladder, alimentary canal etc.
Q.83
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?
(A)
10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci
(B)
A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut
(C)
Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts
(D)
In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital pouch
(B)

Solution

Option (b) is incorrect because a ring of gastric caecae is present at the junction of foregut and midgut. At the junction of midgut and hindgut, malpighian tubules are present.

Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by mouthparts.

In female cockroach, the 7th sternum is boat shaped and together with the 8th and 9th sterna forms a genital pouch.

10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci and 9th sternum only in male cockroach, bears a pair of chitinous anal style.
Q.84
Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
(A)
Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
(B)
Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively
(C)
Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
(D)
Adhering junctions and Tight junctions respectively
(C)

Solution

Three types of junctions are found in tissues

Tight junctions stop leakage of substances from leaking across a tissue.

Adhering junctions cement and keep neighbouring cells together.

Gap junctions or communication junctions facilitate communication between cells by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells.
Q.85
Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm.

(1) It serves as a covering for mouth.

(2) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl.

(3) It is one of the sensory structures.

(4) It is the first body segment.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(2) and (3) are correct
(B)
(1), (2) and (3) are correct
(C)
(1), (2) and (4) are correct
(D)
(1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct
(B)

Solution

The anterior end of the earthworm has mouth which has covering called prostomium.

Prostomium acts as a wedge to force open cracks in the soil.

Prostomium has receptors, so it is sensory in function.

The first body segment of earthworm is the peristomium.
Q.86
Succus entericus is referred to as :
(A)
Chyme
(B)
Pancreatic juice
(C)
Intestinal juice
(D)
Gastric juice
(C)

Solution

Option (c) is correct because succus entericus is referred to as intestinal juice. It is a fluid secreted in small intestine in small quantity. The secretion of the brush border cells of the mucosa along with the secretions of goblet cells constitute succus entericus. It consist of various enzymes like lipases, disaccharides, nucleosidases etc. and mucus.

Chyme is name given to acidic food present in stomach.

Exocrine secretion of pancreatic acini is called pancreatic juice.

Secretion of gastric glands present in stomach is called gastric juice.
Q.87
Sphincter of oddi is present at :
(A)
Junction of jejunum and duodenum
(B)
Ileo-caecal junction
(C)
Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
(D)
Gastro-oesophageal junction
(C)

Solution

The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open together into the duodenum as the common hepato-pancreatic duct which is guarded by a sphincter called the sphincter of Oddi.

Ileo-caecal valve is present at the junction of ileum and caecum to prevent the backflow of faecal matter into the ileum in humans.

Gastro-oesphageal sphincter regulates the opening of oesophagus into stomach.
Q.88
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C formation is produced by :
(A)
Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
(B)
Alpha cells of pancreas
(C)
The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
(D)
The cells of bone marrow
(A)

Solution

Erythropoietin is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the production of red blood cells (RBCs), also known as erythropoiesis. This hormone is primarily produced in response to hypoxia, which is a condition characterized by low oxygen levels in the blood. It functions by stimulating the bone marrow to increase the production of RBCs, thereby enhancing the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity.

To address the specific options provided:

Option A: Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

This is the correct answer. Juxtaglomerular cells, which are located in the kidneys, are primarily responsible for the production and secretion of erythropoietin. When the kidneys sense a decrease in oxygen levels in the blood, the juxtaglomerular cells respond by releasing erythropoietin, which then travels to the bone marrow to stimulate RBC production.

Option B: Alpha cells of pancreas

This is incorrect. The alpha cells of the pancreas are responsible for producing the hormone glucagon, which plays a key role in blood glucose regulation by promoting the release of glucose from stored glycogen in the liver.

Option C: The cells of rostral adenohypophysis

This is incorrect. The rostral adenohypophysis refers to the anterior part of the pituitary gland, which secretes various hormones, but not erythropoietin. The anterior pituitary's hormones include growth hormone, prolactin, and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), among others.

Option D: The cells of bone marrow

This is incorrect. While the bone marrow is the site where RBCs are produced, it does not produce erythropoietin. Instead, it is the target of erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow cells to proliferate and differentiate into red blood cells.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Option A: Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

Q.89
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
(A)
Zona pellucida
(B)
Corona radiata
(C)
Vitelline membrane
(D)
Perivitelline space
(A)

Solution

Option (a) is correct because zona pellucida has receptors for sperm binding (ZP3 receptors) in mammals.

Corona radiata is a layer of radially arranged cells of membrana granulosa.

Perivitelline space is present in between vitelline membrane and zona pellucida.
Q.90
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
(A)
Release of Prolactin
(B)
Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(C)
Synthesis of prostaglandins
(D)
Release of Oxytocin
(A)

Solution

At the end of gestation, the completely developed foetus is expelled out. This process is called parturition.

Parturition is controlled by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.

Estrogen and progesterone ratio increases as estrogen levels rise significantly.

Prostaglandins, which stimulate uterine contractions are also produced that act on myometrium.

Oxytocin, the main hormone, also called as birth hormone is released by maternal pituitary, which brings about strong uterine contractions.

Prolactin is a lactation hormone that has no role in initiation of parturition.
Q.91
Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
(A)
Uterus
(B)
Graafian follicle
(C)
Corpus luteum
(D)
Foetus
(C)

Solution

Corpus luteum is formed in ovary after the ovulation and degenerates if pregnancy does not occur.

In later phase of pregnancy the corpus luteum secretes relaxin hormone.Relaxin dilates the cervix and helps in parturition. Graafian follicle, uterus and foetus has no role in relaxin secretion.
Q.92
Match the following :

List-I List-II
(a) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster
(b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of War
(c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
(d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D)

Solution

Option (d) is correct because Physalia belongs to phylum-Coelenterata (Cnidaria) and is commonly known as Portuguese man of war.

Limulus is considered as a living fossil and commonly known as king crab.

Ancylostoma is a roundworm and commonly known as hookworm.

Pinctada is commonly known known as pearl oyster, included in phylum Mollusca.
Q.93
Read the following statements

(1) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.

(2) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.

(3) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.

(4) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.

(5) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(2), (3) and (5) are correct
(B)
(3), (4) and (5) are correct
(C)
Round (1), (2) and (3) are correct
(D)
(1), (4) and (5) are correct
(A)

Solution

Metagenesis (alternation of generation) is observed in members of phylum Coelenterata (Cnidaria).

Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals as true coelom is observed in them.

Roundworms (Aschelminths) have organ system level of organization.

Comb plates present in ctenophores help in locomotion.

Water vascular system is seen in echinoderms, which helps in locomotion, capture and transport of food and respiration.
Q.94
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata
(b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora
(c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida
(d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D)

Solution

Metamerism is commonly seen in the members of phylum Annelida where the body is externally and internally divided into segments with a serial repetition of at least some organs.

Water canal system is present in the members of phylum Porifera.

The body of ctenophores bears 8 external rows of ciliated comb plates which help in locomotion.

Cnidoblasts or cnidocytes are characteristic feature of cnidarians (coelantrata).
Q.95
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?
(A)
Ornithorhynchus
(B)
Neophron
(C)
Hemidactylus
(D)
Macropus
(B)

Solution

Hollow and pneumatic long bones are found in birds, which enables them to fly. Neophron(vulture) is a bird.

Ornithorhynchus (Platypus) and Macropus (Kangaroo) belong to class Mammalia.

Hemidactylus (Wall lizard) is a member of class Reptilia.
Q.96
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
(A)
Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
(B)
High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
(C)
Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
(D)
High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature.
(B)

Solution

The factors favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveolar level are; high pO2, low pCO2, less H+ concentration and lower temperature.

The conditions favourable for the dissociation of oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level are; low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration and high temperature.
Q.97
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :
(A)
pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
(B)
pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
(C)
pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
(D)
pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
(B)

Solution

Option (b) is correct because pO2 in alveoli is 104 mm Hg and pCO2 in alveoli is 40 mmHg.

In atmosphere, pO2 is 159 mm Hg and pCO2 is 0.3 mm Hg.

In deoxygenated blood, pO2 is 40 mmHg and pCO2 is 45 mmHg.

In oxygenated blood, pO2 is 95 mmHg and pCO2 is 40 mmHg.
Q.98
Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.

Reason (R) : Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
(A) is false but (R) is true
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D)
(A) is true but (R) is false
(B)

Solution

Altitude sickness can be experienced at high altitude where body does not get enough oxygen due to low atmospheric pressure and causes nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations.

Hence, correct option is (b) as [R] is correct explanation of [A].
Q.99
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :
(A)
Genetic drift
(B)
Natural selection
(C)
Genetic recombination
(D)
Mutation
(A)

Solution

Change in gene frequency in a small population by chance is known as genetic drift. Genetic drift has two ramifications, one i bottle neck effect and another is founder's effect.

When accidentally a few individuals are dispersed and act as founders of a new isolated population, founder's effect is said to be observed.

Crossing over which occurs during gamete formation results in genetic recombination.

Mutations are random and directionless.
Q.100
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Adaptive radiation (i) Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides
(b) Convergent evolution (ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale
(c) Divergent evolution (iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird
(d) Evolution by anthropogenic action (iv) Darwin Finches


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B)

Solution

The correct option is (b)

Adaptive radiation is the process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography, for example : Darwin's finches.

Analogous organs which are not anatomically similar structures though they perform similar functions, are a result of convergent evolution, for example: Wings of butterfly and of birds.

Homologous organs which are anatomically similar structures but perform different functions according to their needs, are a result of divergent evolution, for example: Bones of forelimbs in man and whale.

Evolution by anthropogenic action means evolution due to human interference, for example: Antibiotic resistant microbes, herbicides resistant varieties and pesticide resistant varieties.