NEET-UG 2022

NEET 2022 Phase 1

Physics Chemistry Biology

Physics (Maximum Marks: 200)

This section contains 50 questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

Q.1

The dimensions [MLT^{$-$ 2}A^{$-$ 2}] belong to the

(A)

Magnetic flux

(B)

Self inductance

(C)

Magnetic permeability

(D)

Electric permittivity

(C)

Solution

Dimensional formula of magnetic permeability is [MLT^{$-$ 2}A^{$-$ 2}]

Q.2

Plane angle and solid angle have

(A)

Units but no dimensions

(B)

Dimensions but no units

(C)

No units and no dimensions

(D)

Both units and dimensions

(A)

Solution

Plane angle = $\frac{\frac{A r c}{R a d i u s} = \frac{[ L ]}{[ L ]} \buildrel}{⟶}$ Unit = Radian

= [M^{0} L^{0} T^{0}]

Solid angle = $\frac{\frac{A r e a}{( R a d i u s ) ^{2}} \buildrel}{⟶}$ Unit = Steradian

$= \frac{L ^{2}}{L ^{2}} = [M^{0} L^{0} T^{0}]$

$∴$ Both have units but no dimensions.

Q.3

The area of a rectangular field (in m²) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct significant digits is

(A)

138

\times

10¹

(B)

1382

(C)

1382.5

(D)

\times

10²

(D)

Solution

Area = Length $\times$ Breadth

= 55.3 $\times$ 25 m²

= 1382.5 m²

= 14 $\times$ 10² m² (Rounding off of two significant figures)

Q.4

The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1^st, 2^nd, 3^rd and 4^th second

(A)

1 : 2 : 3 : 4

(B)

1 : 4 : 9 : 16

(C)

1 : 3 : 5 : 7

(D)

1 : 1 : 1 : 1

(C)

Solution

$S_{n^{t h}} = u + \frac{1}{2} a (2 n - 1)$

$S_{1^{s t}} = \frac{1}{2} g (2 \times 1 - 1) = \frac{g}{2}$

$S_{2^{n d}} = \frac{1}{2} g (2 \times 2 - 1) = 3 \times (\frac{1}{2} g)$

$S_{3^{r d}} = \frac{1}{2} g (2 \times 3 - 1) = 5 \times (\frac{1}{2} g)$

$S_{4^{t h}} = \frac{1}{2} g (2 \times 4 - 1) = 7 \times (\frac{1}{2} g)$

$S_{1^{s t}} : S_{2^{n d}} : S_{3^{r d}} : S_{4^{t h}}$

$= 1 : 3 : 5 : 7$

Q.5

The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30 $^{\circ}$ and 45 $^{\circ}$ with the x-axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Motion in a Straight Line Question 12 English

(A)

3

: 1

(B)

1 : 1

(C)

1 : 2

(D)

1 :

3

(D)

Solution

Slope of x-t curves gives the velocity

$\Rightarrow$ Ratio $= \frac{t a n 3 0 ^{\circ}}{t a n 4 5 ^{\circ}} = \frac{1}{\frac{3}{1}} = 1 : 3$

Q.6

A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms^{$-$ 1}, at an angle of 60 $^{\circ}$ with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be

(A)

Zero

(B)

3

ms^{$-$ 1}

(C)

5 ms^{$-$ 1}

(D)

10 ms^{$-$ 1}

(B)

Solution

At highest point vertical component of velocity become zero.

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Motion in a Plane Question 8 English Explanation

At highest point speed of object = 10cos30 $^{\circ}$

= 5 $3$ m/s

Q.7

An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms^{$-$ 1}. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is : (g = 10 ms^{$-$ 2})

(A)

23000

(B)

20000

(C)

34500

(D)

23500

(C)

Solution

F_up = 2000 g + 3000

= 23000 N

Minimum power P_min = $F$ . $v$

P_min = Fv = 23000 $\times$ $\frac{3}{2}$

= 34500 W

Q.8

The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is

(A)

\times

10⁷ J

(B)

\times

10⁴ J

(C)

\times

10⁵ J

(D)

\times

10⁵ J

(A)

Solution

Energy = Power $\times$ time

E = 100 $\times$ 10³ $\times$ 3600

= 36 $\times$ 10⁷ J

Q.9

A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is :

(A)

(B)

2

(C)

2

(D)

2

(C)

Solution

Momentum of the system would remain conserved.

Initial momentum = 0

Final momentum should also be zero.

Let masses be 2m, 2m and m

Momentum along x-direction = 2mv $i$

Momentum along y-direction = 2mv $j$

Net momentum = $(2 m v)^{2} + (2 m v)^{2} = 2.2$ mv

Now, 2 $2$ mv = mv'

v' = 2 $2$ v

Q.10

Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is :

(A)

\frac{10}{3}

(B)

\frac{20}{3}

(C)

10 m

(D)

5 m

(B)

Solution

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Center of Mass and Collision Question 11 English Explanation

$X_{c m} = \frac{m _{1} x _{1} + m _{2} x _{2}}{m _{1} + m _{2}}$

$= \frac{10 \times 0 + 20 \times 10}{10 + 20}$

$= \frac{200}{30}$

$= \frac{20}{3}$ m

Q.11

The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s² is

(A)

π

(B)

π

(C)

π

(D)

104

π

(B)

Solution

Angular acceleration $α = \frac{ω _{f} - ω _{i}}{t}$

$ω_{f} = 3120 \times \frac{2 π}{60}$ rad/s

$ω_{i} = 1200 \times \frac{2 π}{60}$ rad/s

$\Rightarrow α = \frac{( 3120 - 1200 )}{16} \times \frac{2 π}{60} = 4 π$

Q.12

The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is

(A)

2 : 1

(B)

2

: 1

(C)

4 : 1

(D)

1 :

2

(B)

Solution

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Rotational Motion Question 17 English Explanation 1

$l_{1} = \frac{M R ^{2}}{2}$

$k_{1} = \frac{l _{1}}{M}$

$= \frac{R}{2}$

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Rotational Motion Question 17 English Explanation 2

$l_{2} = \frac{M R ^{2}}{4}$

$k_{2} = \frac{l _{2}}{M}$

$= \frac{R}{2}$

$\frac{k _{1}}{k _{2}} = \frac{\frac{R}{2}}{\frac{R}{2}}$

$= 2 : 1$

Q.13

A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is

(A)

0.05 N/kg

(B)

50 N/kg

(C)

20 N/kg

(D)

180 N/kg

(B)

Solution

$F = m E_{G}$

$3 = \frac{60}{1000} E_{G}$

$E_{G} = 50$ N/kg

Q.14

Match List - I with List - II

	List - I		List - II
(a)	Gravitational constant (G)	(i)	$[L^{2} T^{- 2}]$
(b)	Gravitational potential energy	(ii)	$[M^{- 1} L^{3} T^{- 2}]$
(c)	Gravitational potential	(iii)	$[L T^{- 2}]$
(d)	Gravitational intensity	(iv)	$[M L^{2} T^{- 2}]$

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(B)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(C)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(D)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(B)

Solution

(a) $[G] = \frac{F r ^{2}}{m _{1} m _{2}}$

$[G] = \frac{F r ^{2}}{m _{1} m _{2}} = \frac{[ M L T ^{- 2} ] L ^{2}}{[ M M ]} = [M^{- 1} L^{3} T^{- 2}]$

(b) Gravitational potential energy $= [M L^{2} T^{- 2}]$

(d) Gravitational field intensity $= \frac{F}{m} = [L T^{- 2}]$

Q.15

A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Properties of Matter Question 19 English

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(B)

Solution

Initial speed of ball is zero and it finally attains terminal speed

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Properties of Matter Question 19 English Explanation

Q.16

If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble

(A)

Decreases

(B)

Increases

(C)

Remains the same

(D)

Is equal to the atmospheric pressure

(A)

Solution

Excess pressure inside the bubble $= Δ P - \frac{4 T}{R}$

$P_{in} = P_{o u t} + \frac{4 T}{R}$

as 'R' increases 'P' decreases

Q.17

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring.

Reason (R) : A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)

(A) is true but (R) is false

(D)

(A) is false but (R) is true

(C)

Solution

It is true that stretching of spring is determined by shear modulus of the spring as when coil spring is stretched neither its length nor its volume changes, there is only change in its shape.

Tensile strength of steel is more than that of copper.

Hence Assertion is true and Reason is false.

Q.18

An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Heat and Thermodynamics Question 25 English

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(B)

Solution

$(\frac{d P}{d V})_{a d iaba t i c} = - γ P$

$(\frac{d P}{d V})_{i so t h er ma l} = - P$

$(\frac{d P}{d V})_{a d iaba t i c} > (\frac{d P}{d V})_{i so t h er ma l}$

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Heat and Thermodynamics Question 25 English Explanation

Q.19

The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is

(A)

5.6

\times

10⁶ m³

(B)

5.6

\times

10³ m³

(C)

5.6

\times

10^{$-$ 3} m³

(D)

5.6 m³

(D)

Solution

From ideal gas equation

$P V = n R T$

$[n = \frac{ma ss o f w a t er}{m o l . w t .} = \frac{4.5 \times 10 ^{3}}{18}]$

$V = \frac{n R T}{P}$

At $S T P \Rightarrow T = 273 K$

$P = 1 0^{5}$ N/m²

$V = \frac{4.5 \times 10 ^{3}}{18} \times \frac{8.3 \times 273}{10 ^{5}} = 5.66$ m³

Q.20

Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(A)

Solution

$T = 2 π \frac{L}{g}$

Let n₁ and n₂ be integer.

$n_{1} T_{1} = n_{2} T_{2}$

$2 π n_{1} \frac{1.21}{g} = 2 π n_{2} \frac{1.00}{g}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{n _{2}}{n _{1}} = \frac{11}{10}$

$∴$ After completion of 11^th oscillation of shorter pendulum, it will be in phase with longer pendulum.

Q.21

If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is

(A)

1 : 1

(B)

2

: 1

(C)

1 :

2

(D)

1 : 2

(C)

Solution

We know, velocity of transverse wave

$v = \frac{T}{μ}$

$∴$ $v_{i} = \frac{T}{μ}$ and $v_{f} = \frac{2 T}{μ}$

$∴$ $\frac{v _{i}}{v _{f}} = \frac{1}{2}$

Q.22

The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is

(A)

^{\circ}

(B)

^{\circ}

(C)

^{\circ}

(D)

180

^{\circ}

(C)

Solution

dV = $-$ $E$ . d $r$

dV = $-$ Edr cos $θ$

For equipotential surface,

dV = 0

cos $θ$ = 0

$\Rightarrow$ $θ$ = 90 $^{\circ}$

Q.23

Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R₁ and R₂ (R₁ >> R₂) have equal charges. The potential would be

(A)

Solution

Potential of conducting hollow sphere $= \frac{K Q}{R}$

Now, Q = same

$\Rightarrow V \propto \frac{1}{R} \Rightarrow$ more the radius less will be the potential.

$\Rightarrow$ Hence potential would be more on smaller sphere.

Q.24

Two point charges $-$ q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure.

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Electrostatics Question 19 English

The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R(R >> L) varies as:

(A)

\frac{1}{R ^{2}}

(B)

\frac{1}{R ^{3}}

(C)

\frac{1}{R ^{4}}

(D)

\frac{1}{R ^{6}}

(B)

Solution

For R >> L, arrangement is an electric dipole

$E = \frac{2 p}{4 π ε _{0} R ^{3}}$ ; where $p = q L$

$E \propto \frac{1}{R _{3}}$

Q.25

Two resistors of resistance, 100 $Ω$ and 200 $Ω$ are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 $Ω$ to that in 200 $Ω$ in a given time is

(A)

1 : 2

(B)

2 : 1

(C)

1 : 4

(D)

4 : 1

(B)

Solution

For parallel combination

$P = \frac{V ^{2}}{R}$

$\frac{P _{1}}{P _{2}} = \frac{R _{2}}{R _{1}}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{P _{1}}{P _{2}} = \frac{200}{100} = \frac{2}{1}$

Q.26

A copper wire of length 10 m and radius $(\frac{10 ^{- 2}}{π})$ m has electrical resistance of 10 $Ω$ . The current density in the wire for an electric field strength of 10 (V/m) is

(A)

10⁴ A/m²

(B)

10⁶ A/m²

(C)

10^{$-$ 5} A/m²

(D)

10⁵ A/m²

(D)

Solution

Resistance, $R = ρ \frac{L}{A} = \frac{L}{σ A}$

$\Rightarrow σ = \frac{L}{R A}$

Also current density $j = σ E = \frac{L E}{R A}$

$J = \frac{10 \times 10}{10 \times π ( \frac{10 ^{- 2}}{π} ) ^{2}} = \frac{100}{10 \times π \times ( \frac{10 ^{- 4}}{π} )}$

$= 1 0^{5}$ A/m²

Q.27

A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of X, the resistance P and Q

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Current Electricity Question 31 English

(A)

Should be approximately equal to 2X

(B)

Should be approximately equal and are small

(C)

Should be very large and unequal

(D)

Do not play any significant role

(B)

Solution

We know, a wheatstone bridge is said to be most precise when it is most sensitive. This can be done by making ratio arms equal. Thus (2) is correct option.

Q.28

A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a). Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Capacitor Question 15 English

(A)

4.5

\times

10^{$-$ 6} J

(B)

3.25

\times

10^{$-$ 6} J

(C)

2.25

\times

10^{$-$ 6} J

(D)

1.5

\times

10^{$-$ 6} J

(C)

Solution

q₁ = CV

= 900 $\times$ 10^{$-$ 12} $\times$ 100

= 9 $\times$ 10^{$-$ 8} C

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Capacitor Question 15 English Explanation 1

$V = \frac{C _{1} V _{1} + C _{2} V _{2}}{C _{1} + C _{2}}$

$= \frac{9 \times 10 ^{- 8} + 0}{1800 \times 10 ^{- 12}} = \frac{100}{2} = 50$ V

$U = \frac{1}{2} (C_{1} + C_{2}) V^{2}$

$= \frac{1}{2} \times 1800 \times 1 0^{- 12} \times 50 \times 50$

$= 225 \times 1 0^{- 8}$

$U = 2.25 \times 1 0^{- 6}$ J

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Capacitor Question 15 English Explanation 2

Q.29

A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is

(A)

6.28

\times

10^{$-$ 2} T

(B)

12.56

\times

10^{$-$ 2} T

(C)

12.56

\times

10^{$-$ 4} T

(D)

6.28

\times

10^{$-$ 4} T

(B)

Solution

We know, magnetic field at centre of solenoid

$B = μ_{0} \frac{N}{l} l = μ_{0} n l$ $[n = \frac{N}{l}]$

$= 4 π \times 1 0^{- 7} \times 100 \times 1 0^{3} \times 1$ $[n = \frac{100}{10 ^{- 3}}]$

$= 4 π \times 1 0^{- 2} T$

$B = 12.56 \times 1 0^{- 2} T$

Q.30

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only.

Statement II : Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law of charge q, with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source, q.

In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

(C)

Solution

According to Biot-Savart's law $d B = \frac{μ _{0}}{4 π} \frac{I d l \times r}{r ^{3}}$ which is applicable for infinitesimal element. It is analogous to Coulomb's law, where $I d l$ is vector source and electric field is produced by scalar source q. Here statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

Q.31

From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is

(A)

Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.

(B)

A linearly increasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing for the outside region.

(C)

A linearly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with

\frac{1}{r}

dependence for the outside region.

(D)

A linearly decreasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then a linearly increasing one of the outside region.

(C)

Solution

For solid wire

Inside point

$B = \frac{μ _{0} I r ^{2}}{R ^{2} \times 2 π r}$

$= \frac{μ _{0} I r}{R ^{2} \times 2 π}$

$B \propto r$

Outside point

$B = \frac{μ _{0} I}{2 π r}$

$B \propto \frac{1}{r}$

Q.32

A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad s^{$-$ 1}. If the vertical component of earth's magnetic field at that place is 2 $\times$ 10^{$-$ 5} T and electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56 $Ω$ , then the maximum induced current in the coil will be

(A)

0.25 A

(B)

1.5 A

(C)

1 A

(D)

2 A

(C)

Solution

$ϕ_{B} = N B A cos ω t$

$ε = \frac{- d ϕ _{B}}{d t} = - N B A ω (- sin ω t)$

$ε = N B A ω sin ω t$

$i_{m a x} = \frac{ε _{m a x}}{R} - \frac{N B A ω}{R}$

$= \frac{1000 \times 2 \times 10 ^{- 5} \times π ( 10 ) ^{2} \times 2}{12.56}$

= 1 A

Q.33

A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 $Ω$ is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is

(A)

2 weber

(B)

0.5 weber

(C)

1 weber

(D)

Zero weber

(B)

Solution

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Electromagnetic Induction Question 10 English Explanation

Magnetic flux ( $ϕ$ _B) = $B$ . $A$

$B$ and $A$ are in same direction, therefore

$ϕ$ _B = B . A = 0.5 $\times$ 1²

= 0.5 Wb

Q.34

The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to

(A)

The value of voltage supplied to the circuit

(B)

The rms value of the ac source

(C)

2

times the rms value of the ac source

(D)

2

times the rms value of the ac source

(C)

Solution

We know,

RMS value of A.C. $E_{r m s} = \frac{E _{0}}{2}$

$E_{0} = 2 E_{r m s}$

Q.35

A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 $μ$ F, resistance 50 $Ω$ is connected to an ac source of voltage, V = 200sin(100t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is v₀ and the frequency of the ac source is v, then

(A)

v_{0} = v = 50

(B)

v_{0} = v = \frac{50}{π}

(C)

v_{0} = \frac{50}{π}

Hz,

v = 50

(D)

v = 100

Hz,

v_{0} = \frac{100}{π}

(B)

Solution

$ω L = \frac{1}{ω C}$

$ω = \frac{1}{L C} = \frac{1}{10 \times 10 \times 10 ^{- 6}}$

$ω = 100$

$ω = 2 π f \Rightarrow f = \frac{ω}{2 π}$

$v_{0} = f_{0} = \frac{100}{2 π} = \frac{50}{π}$ Hz, $ω = 100$

$v = f = \frac{100}{2 π} = \frac{50}{π}$

Q.36

Match List - I with List - II

	List - I (Electromagnetic waves)		List - II (Wavelength)
(a)	AM radio waves	(i)	$1 0^{- 10}$ m
(b)	Microwaves	(ii)	$1 0^{2}$ m
(c)	Infrared radiations	(iii)	$1 0^{- 2}$ m
(d)	X-rays	(iv)	$1 0^{- 4}$ m

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A)

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

(B)

(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

(C)

(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

(D)

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

(D)

Solution

Waves	Wavelength
AM radio waves	$1 0^{2}$ m
Microwaves	$1 0^{- 2}$ m
Infrared radiations	$1 0^{- 4}$ m
X-rays	$1 0^{- 10}$ m

(a) - (ii)

(b) - (iii)

(d) - (i)

Q.37

When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity $ε$ _r and relative permeability $μ$ _r, the velocity of light, v is given by (c-velocity of light in vacuum)

(A)

v = c

(B)

v = \frac{μ _{r}}{ε _{r}}

(C)

v = \frac{ε _{r}}{μ _{r}}

(D)

v = \frac{c}{ε _{r} μ _{r}}

(D)

Solution

$v = \frac{1}{ε _{m} μ _{m}}$

$v = \frac{1}{ε _{0} ε _{r} μ _{0} μ _{r}}$

Since $c = \frac{1}{ε _{0} μ _{0}}$

$\Rightarrow v = \frac{c}{ε _{r} μ _{r}}$

Q.38

A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is

(A)

+2 D

(B)

+20 D

(C)

+5 D

(D)

Infinity

(C)

Solution

Power of lens is given by

$P = \frac{1}{f ( m )}$

$\frac{1}{f} = (μ - 1) (\frac{1}{R _{1}} - \frac{1}{R _{2}})$

$\frac{1}{f} = {\frac{3}{2} - 1} (\frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{20})$

$f = 20$ cm

$P = \frac{1}{20 \times 10 ^{- 2}}$

$= 5$ D

Q.39

A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index $3$ , at an angle 60 $^{\circ}$ . The angle between the refracted and reflected rays would be

(A)

^{\circ}

(B)

^{\circ}

(C)

^{\circ}

(D)

120

^{\circ}

(C)

Solution

Given i = 60 $^{\circ}$ and $μ$ = $3$

$\Rightarrow$ Here, angle of incidence $\Rightarrow$ i = tan^{$-$ 1} ( $μ$ )

Hence, reflected and refracted rays would be perpendicular to each other.

Q.40

Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are 1.5 $\times$ 10⁸ m/s and 2.0 $\times$ 10⁸ m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is

(A)

sin^{$-$ 1} (0.500)

(B)

sin^{$-$ 1} (0.750)

(C)

tan^{$-$ 1} (0.500)

(D)

tan^{$-$ 1} (0.750)

(B)

Solution

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 22 English Explanation

$μ_{A} = \frac{3 \times 10 ^{8}}{1.5 \times 10 ^{8}} = 2$

$μ_{B} = \frac{3 \times 10 ^{8}}{2 \times 10 ^{8}} = 1.5$

For TIR, ray of light should travel from denser to rarer medium

$μ_{A} sin θ_{C} = μ_{B} sin 9 0^{\circ}$

$2 sin θ_{C} = 1.5 sin 9 0^{\circ}$

$sin θ_{C} = 0.75$

$θ_{C} = sin^{- 1} (0.75)$

Q.41

In a Young's double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution

$β = \frac{λ D}{d}$

Let length of segment of screen = l

$\Rightarrow l = 8 β_{1} = \frac{8 λ _{1} D}{d}$ ..... (1)

and $l = n β_{2} = \frac{n λ _{2} D}{d}$ .... (2)

from (1) and (2)

$8 λ_{1} = n λ_{2}$

8(600 nm) = n(400 nm)

n = 12

Q.42

The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength ( $λ$ ) of a particle and its associated momentum (p) is

(A)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Atoms and Nuclei Question 28 English Option 1

(B)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Atoms and Nuclei Question 28 English Option 2

(C)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Atoms and Nuclei Question 28 English Option 3

(D)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Atoms and Nuclei Question 28 English Option 4

(D)

Solution

de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle is given by

$λ = \frac{h}{p}$

$λ \propto \frac{1}{p}$

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Atoms and Nuclei Question 28 English Explanation

Q.43

In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is

$_{11}^{22} N a \to X + e^{+} + v$

(A)

_{11}^{23} N a

(B)

_{10}^{23} N e

(C)

_{10}^{22} N e

(D)

_{12}^{22} M g

(C)

Solution

The nuclear reaction is given as

$_{11}^{22} N a \to_{Z}^{A} X +_{+ 1} e^{0} + v$

From conservation of atomic number

$11 = Z + 1 \Rightarrow Z = 10 \Rightarrow N e$

From conservation of mass number

$22 = A + 0 \Rightarrow A = 22$

$∴$ $_{Z}^{A} X =_{10}^{22} N e$

Q.44

Let T₁ and T₂ be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms, respectively. According to the Bohr's model of an atom, the ratio T₁ : T₂ is

(A)

1 : 4

(B)

4 : 1

(C)

4 : 9

(D)

9 : 4

(D)

Solution

$E_{n} = \frac{E _{0}}{n ^{2}}$ , For first excited state $\Rightarrow$ n = 2

For second excited state $\Rightarrow$ n = 3

$\Rightarrow \frac{T _{1}}{T _{2}} = \frac{\frac{E _{0}}{4}}{\frac{E _{0}}{9}} = \frac{9}{4}$

Q.45

A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is

(A)

1 : 1

(B)

4 : 5

(C)

5 : 4

(D)

25 : 16

(C)

Solution

Radius of nuclei with mass number A varies as

$R = R_{0} A^{1/3}$

$\frac{R _{1}}{R _{2}} = (\frac{125}{64})^{1/3} = \frac{5}{4} = 5 : 4$

Q.46

When two monochromatic lights of frequency, v and $\frac{v}{2}$ are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping potential becomes $\frac{V _{s}}{2}$ and V_s respectively. The threshold frequency for this metal is

(A)

(B)

(C)

\frac{2}{3}

(D)

\frac{3}{2}

(D)

Solution

Since $k_{m a x} = e V_{s} = h v - ϕ$

$\frac{e V _{s}}{2} = h v - h v_{0}$ ....... (i)

$e V_{s} = \frac{h v}{2} - h v_{0}$ ...... (ii)

$\frac{1}{2} [\frac{h v}{2} - h v_{0}] = h v - h v_{0}$

$\Rightarrow h v_{0} - \frac{h v _{0}}{2} = h v - \frac{h v}{4}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{h v _{0}}{2} = \frac{3 h v}{4}$

$v_{0} = \frac{3 v}{2}$

* Language of question is wrongly framed. The values of stopping potentials should be interchanged.

Q.47

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 24 English

In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in

(A)

Circuit (a) only

(B)

Circuit (b) only

(C)

Circuit (c) only

(D)

Both circuits (a) and (c)

(D)

Solution

Potential drops across the p-n junctions will be same if either both junctions are forward biased or both junction are reverse biased.

In figure (a) and (c), both junctions are forward biased therefore both have same potential.

In figure (b) first junction is forward biased and second junction is reverse biased, so both junctions have different potential difference.

Q.48

As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance

(A)

Increases for both conductors and semiconductors

(B)

Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors

(C)

Increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors

(D)

Decreases for conductors but increases for semiconductors

(C)

Solution

As the temperature increases the resistivity of the conductor increases hence the electrical resistance increases. However for semiconductor the resistivity decreases with the temperature. Hence electrical resistance of semiconductor decreases.

Q.49

In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be

(A)

Zero

(B)

30 Hz

(C)

60 Hz

(D)

120 Hz

(C)

Solution

In half wave rectifier, the output frequency is same as that of input frequency.

Q.50

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 26 English

The truth table for the given logic circuit is

(A)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 26 English Option 1

(B)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 26 English Option 2

(C)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 26 English Option 3

(D)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 26 English Option 4

(C)

Solution

$C = (\overline{A . B}) . (\overline{\overline{A} . B})$

$\Rightarrow C = \overline{A . B + \overline{A} . B}$

$\Rightarrow C = \overline{(A + \overline{A}) B}$

$\Rightarrow C = \overline{B}$

The truth table would be

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 26 English Explanation

Chemistry (Maximum Marks: 200)

This section contains 50 questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

Q.1

In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is

(A)

500 mL of solvent

(B)

500 g of solvent

(C)

100 mL of solvent

(D)

1000 g of solvent

(B)

Solution

Molality is the moles of solute dissolved per kg of solvent therefore 500 g, 1 molal solution contains 0.5 of solute, as

$m = \frac{M o l es o f so l u t e}{M a ss o f so l v e n t ( in k g )}$

$1 = \frac{0.5}{M a ss o f so l v e n t ( in k g )}$

$∴$ Mass of solvent (in kg) = 0.5

= 500 g

Q.2

What mass of 95% pure CaCO₃ will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction?

CaCO_3(s) + 2HCl_(aq) $\to$ CaCl_2(aq) + Co_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)

[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]

(A)

1.25 g

(B)

1.32 g

(C)

3.65 g

(D)

9.50 g

(B)

Solution

Let m gram mass of CaCO₃ is required

Pure CaCO₃ in m gram $= \frac{95}{100} \times m$

Moles of CaCO₃ $= \frac{95}{100} \times \frac{m}{100}$

Moles of HCl required = 2 $\times$ moles of CaCO₃

$= 2 \times \frac{95}{100} \times \frac{m}{100}$

$2 \times \frac{95}{100} \times \frac{m}{100} = \frac{50}{1000} \times 0.5$

$m = 1.315 g \approx 1.32 g$

Q.3

Identify the incorrect statement from the following.

(A)

All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals.

(B)

All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to the respective 3d orbitals.

(C)

In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy in free state.

(D)

The shapes of d_xy, d_yz and d_zx orbitals are similar to each other; and d_{x² $-$ y²} and d_z² are similar to each other.

(D)

Solution

$∙$ In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy in free state i.e., degenerate.

$∙$ The shape of d_{x² $-$ y²} is different then shape of d_z²

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Structure of Atom Question 17 English Explanation

$∙$ The size of orbital depends on principal quantum number 'n' therefore all the five 3d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals.

$∙$ Shape of orbitals depends on azimuthal quantum number 'I' therefore shapes of 4d orbitals are similar to the respective 3d orbitals.

Q.4

If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He⁺ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li²⁺ ion?

(A)

158.7 pm

(B)

15.87 pm

(C)

1.587 pm

(D)

158.7

A o

(A)

Solution

$r_{n} \propto \frac{n ^{2}}{Z}$

$\frac{r _{3} ( L i ^{2 +} )}{r _{2} ( H e ^{+} )} = \frac{( n _{3} ) ^{2}}{Z ( L i ^{2 +} )} \times \frac{Z ( H e ^{+} )}{( n _{2} ) ^{2}}$

$\frac{r _{3} ( L i ^{2 +} )}{105.8} = \frac{( 3 ) ^{2}}{3} \times \frac{2}{( 2 ) ^{2}}$

$= 105.8 \times \frac{3}{2}$

$r_{3} (L i^{2 +}) = 158.7$ pm

Q.5

Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton's Law of partial pressure? Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture

where p_i = partial pressure of i^th gas

$χ_{i}$ = mole fraction of i^th gas in gaseous mixture where $χ_{i}$ = mole fraction of i^th gas in gaseous mixture

$p_{i}^{o}$ = pressure of i^th gas in pure state

(A)

p = p_{1} + p_{2} + p_{3}

(B)

p = n_{1} \frac{R T}{V} + n_{2} \frac{R T}{V} + n_{3} \frac{R T}{V}

(C)

p_{i} = χ_{i} p

(D)

p_{i} = χ_{i} p_{i}^{o}

(D)

Solution

$∙$ Dalton's Law of partial pressure states that the total pressure by the mixture of non-reactive gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of individual gases.

$∙$ $p_{T o t a l} = p_{1} + p_{2} + p_{3}$

$∙$ Also, $p_{i} = χ_{i} p$ ; where p_i and $χ$ _i are the partial pressure and mole fraction of i^th gas respectively and p is the total pressure.

$∙$ $p_{T o t a l} = p_{1} + p_{2} + p_{3}$

$= n_{1} \frac{R T}{V} + n_{2} \frac{R T}{V} + n_{3} \frac{R T}{V}$

$= (n_{1} + n_{2} + n_{3}) \frac{R T}{V}$

Q.6

A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27 $^{\circ}$ C. (Assume O₂ gas is behaving ideally). The pressure inside the flask in bar is (Given R = 0.0831 L bar K^{$-$ 1} mol^{$-$ 1})

(A)

2.5

(B)

498.6

(C)

49.8

(D)

4.9

(D)

Solution

We know for ideal gas

PV = nRT

P = n $\frac{R T}{V}$

P = $\frac{64}{32} \times \frac{0.0831 \times 300}{10}$

P = 4.9 bar

Pressure of O₂ gas inside the flask = 4.9 bar

Q.7

3O₂(g) $⇌$ 2O₃(g)

for the above reaction at 298 K, K_c is found to be 3.0 $\times$ 10^{$-$ 59}. If the concentration of O₂ at equilibrium is 0.040 M then concentration of O₃ in M is

(A)

4.38

\times

10^{$-$ 32}

(B)

1.9

\times

10^{$-$ 63}

(C)

2.4

\times

10³¹

(D)

1.2

\times

10²¹

(A)

Solution

3O₂(g) $⇌$ 2O₃(g)

$K_{c} = \frac{[ O _{3} ] ^{2}}{[ O _{2} ] ^{3}}$

$[O_{3}]^{2} = K_{c} [O_{2}]^{3} = 3 \times 1 0^{- 59} \times (0.04)^{3}$

$[O_{3}]^{2} = 1.9 \times 1 0^{- 63} = 19 \times 1 0^{- 64}$

$[O_{3}] = 4.38 \times 1 0^{- 32}$

Concentration of O₃ at equilibrium $= 4.38 \times 1 0^{- 32}$ M

Q.8

The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is [Given pK_a of CH₃COOH = 4.57]

(A)

5.57

(B)

3.57

(C)

4.57

(D)

2.57

(A)

Solution

To find the pH of the solution containing a mixture of sodium acetate and acetic acid, we can use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation. This equation is given by :

$pH = p K_{a} + lo g (\frac{[ Conjugate Base ]}{[ Acid ]})$

Here, sodium acetate acts as the conjugate base (acetate ion, $C H_{3} C O O^{-}$ ) and acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is the acid. Given the $p K_{a}$ of acetic acid is 4.57, we can plug in the values.

The molarity of sodium acetate and acetic acid are given as 0.10 M and 0.01 M, respectively. Since the volumes of the solutions are equal, the molarities can be directly used in the equation :

$pH = 4.57 + lo g (\frac{0.10}{0.01})$

Let's calculate the pH :

The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is approximately 5.57. Therefore, the correct option is :

Option A : 5.57

Q.9

Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?

(A)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Thermodynamics Question 19 English Option 1

(B)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Thermodynamics Question 19 English Option 2

(C)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Thermodynamics Question 19 English Option 3

(D)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Thermodynamics Question 19 English Option 4

(B)

Solution

Work done under any thermodynamic process can be determined by area under the 'p-V' graph. As it can be observed maximum area is covered in option '2'.

1. NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Thermodynamics Question 19 English Explanation 1

2. NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Thermodynamics Question 19 English Explanation 2

3. NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Thermodynamics Question 19 English Explanation 3

4. NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Thermodynamics Question 19 English Explanation 4

Q.10

At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu²⁺ / Cu, Zn²⁺ / Zn, Fe²⁺ / Fe and Ag⁺ / Ag are 0.34 V, $-$ 0.76 V, $-$ 0.44 V V and 0.80 V, respectively.

On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?

(A)

CuSO₄(aq) + Zn(s)

\to

ZnSO₄(aq) + Cu(s)

(B)

CuSO₄(aq) + Fe(s)

\to

FeSO₄(aq) + Cu(s)

(C)

FeSO₄(aq) + Zn(s)

\to

ZnSO₄(aq) + Fe(s)

(D)

2CuSO₄(aq) + 2Ag(s)

\to

2Cu(s) + Ag₂SO₄(aq)

(D)

Solution

For a reaction to be spontaneous, E $_{ce l l}^{o}$ must be positive.

$∙$ For, FeSO₄(aq) + Zn(s) $\to$ ZnSO₄(aq) + Fe(s)

E $_{ce l l}^{o}$ = E $_{c a t h o d e}^{o}$ $-$ E $_{an o d e}^{o}$

= $-$ 0.44 V $-$ ( $-$ 0.76 V)

= 0.32 V

$∙$ For, 2CuSO₄(aq) + 2Ag(s) $\to$ 2Cu(s) + Ag₂SO₄(aq)

E $_{ce l l}^{o}$ = 0.34 V $-$ 0.80 V

= $-$ 0.46 V

$∙$ For, CuSO₄(aq) + Zn(s) $\to$ ZnSO₄(aq) + Cu(s)

E $_{ce l l}^{o}$ = 0.34 V $-$ ( $-$ 0.76 V)

= 1.1 V

$∙$ For, CuSO₄(aq) + Fe(s) $\to$ FeSO₄(aq) + Cu(s)

E $_{ce l l}^{o}$ = 0.80 V $-$ ( $-$ 0.44 V)

= 1.24 V

Q.11

Given below are half cell reactions:

$M n O_{4}^{-} + 8 H^{+} + 5 e^{-} \to M n^{2 +} + 4 H_{2} O$ ,

$E_{M n^{2 +} / M n O_{4}^{-}}^{o} = - 1.510 V$

$\frac{1}{2} O_{2} + 2 H^{+} + 2 e^{-} \to H_{2} O$

$E_{O_{2} / H_{2} O}^{o} = + 1.223 V$

Will the permanganate ion, $M n O_{4}^{-}$ liberate O₂ from water in the presence of an acid?

(A)

Yes, because

E_{ce l l}^{o}

= + 0.287 V

(B)

No, because

E_{ce l l}^{o}

-

0.287 V

(C)

Yes, because

E_{ce l l}^{o}

= + 2.733 V

(D)

No, because

E_{ce l l}^{o}

-

2.733 V

(A)

Solution

$∙$ $M n O_{4}^{-} + 8 H^{+} + 5 e^{-} \to M n^{2 +} + 4 H_{2} O$ ..... (i)

$E_{M n O_{4}^{-} / M n^{2 +}}^{o} = - E_{M n^{2 +} / M n O_{4}^{-}}^{o} = 1.51 V$

$∙$ $H_{2} O \to \frac{1}{2} O_{2} + 2 H^{+} + 2 e^{-}$ ..... (ii)

$E_{O_{2} / H_{2} O}^{o} = 1.223 V$

Using 2 $\times$ (i) + 5 $\times$ (ii), net cell reactions is

$2 M n O_{4}^{-} + 6 H^{+} \to 2 M n^{2 +} + \frac{5}{2} O_{2} + 3 H_{2} O$

$E_{ce l l}^{o} = E_{C}^{o} - E_{A}^{o} = E_{M n O_{4}^{-} / M n^{2 +}}^{o} - E_{O_{2} / H_{2} O}^{o} = 1.51 - 1.223 = 0.287 V$

Since $E_{ce l l}^{o} > 0$ , therefore net cell reaction is spontaneous and so $M n O_{4}^{-}$ liberate O₂ from H₂O in presence of an acid.

Q.12

Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K

Ni(s) + 2Ag⁺ (0.001 M) $\to$ Ni²⁺ (0.001 M) + 2Ag(s)

(Given that E $_{ce l l}^{o}$ = 10.5 V, $\frac{2.303 R T}{F} = 0.059$ at 298 K)

(A)

10.4115 V

(B)

10.385 V

(C)

0.9615 V

(D)

10.05 V

(A)

Solution

To determine the electromotive force (EMF) of the given cell reaction at 298 K:

Reaction: Ni(s) + 2Ag⁺ (0.001 M) → Ni²⁺ (0.001 M) + 2Ag(s)

Given data:

Standard cell potential, E°_cell = 10.5 V

Value at 298 K, $\frac{2.303 R T}{F}$ = 0.059

Using the Nernst equation to find the cell potential, E_cell:

$E_{ce l l} = E_{ce l l}^{o} - \frac{0.059}{n} lo g \frac{[ Ni ^{2 +} ]}{[ Ag ^{+} ] ^{2}}$

Where:

n = number of moles of electrons transferred = 2

$[Ni^{2 +}] = 0.001 M$

$[Ag^{+}] = 0.001 M$

Substituting the values:

$E_{ce l l} = 10.5 - \frac{0.059}{2} lo g \frac{( 1 0 ^{- 3} )}{( 1 0 ^{- 3} ) ^{2}}$

$= 10.5 - \frac{0.0295}{2} lo g (1 0^{3})$

$= 10.5 - 0.0295 \times 3$

$= 10.5 - 0.0885$

$= 10.4115 V$

Therefore, the EMF of the cell is 10.4115 V.

Q.13

The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Chemical Kinetics Question 19 English

The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, respectively are

(A)

zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = t_1/2 and x = concentration)

(B)

zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = rate constant and x = concentration)

(C)

zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = t_1/2 and x = concentration)

(D)

zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = rate and x = t_1/2)

(C)

Solution

$∙$ For zero order reaction

r = k[A]⁰

r = k (constant)

hence, 'y' as 'rate' and 'x' as concentration will give desired graph.

$∙$ For first order reaction

$t_{1/2} = \frac{0.693}{k}$ (constant)

hence, 'y' as 't_1/2' and 'x' as concentration will given desired graph.

Q.14

For a first order reaction A $\to$ Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min^{$-$ 1} is

(A)

1.3818

(B)

0.9212

(C)

0.4606

(D)

0.2303

(B)

Solution

For first order reaction,

$K = \frac{2.303}{t} lo g \frac{[ A _{0} ]}{[ A ]}$ ; where A₀ is the initial concentration of reactant A.

A₀ = 0.1 M

A = 0.001 M

t = 5 minute

$K = \frac{2.303}{5} lo g \frac{0.1}{0.001} = \frac{2.303}{5} lo g 1 0^{2}$

$= \frac{2.303}{5} \times 2$

K = 0.9212 min^{$-$ 1}

Q.15

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells.

Reason (R) : In an ionic solid, Frankel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(D)

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(B)

Solution

∙

Assertion statement is classic explanation of Schottky defect in which cation and anion leaves their site, or impurity defect.

$∙$ Reason statement is true but not correct explanation as it is defining Frenkel defect in which ion does not leave crystal.

Q.16

Choose the correct statement:

(A)

Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.

(B)

Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.

(C)

Diamond is sp³ hybridized and graphite is sp² hybridized

(D)

Both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.

(C)

Solution

Diamond :

$∙$ sp³ hybridised carbon atom

$∙$ Covalent solid

$∙$ 3-D structure

$∙$ Cannot be used as dry lubricant

Graphite :

$∙$ sp² hybridised carbon atom

$∙$ Covalent solid

$∙$ 3-D structure

$∙$ Used as dry lubricant

Q.17

Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edge length of 3.608 $\times$ 10^{$-$ 8} cm. The density of copper is 8.92 g cm^{$-$ 3}. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.

(A)

63.1 u

(B)

31.55 u

(C)

60 u

(D)

65 u

(A)

Solution

$d = \frac{Z M}{N _{A} ( a ) ^{3}}$

Z = 4(FCC), d = 8.92 g cm^{$-$ 3}, N_A = 6.023 $\times$ 10²³, a = 3.608 $\times$ 10^{$-$ 8} cm

$M = \frac{d N _{A} ( a ) ^{3}}{Z}$

$= \frac{8.92 \times 6.023 \times 10 ^{23} \times ( 3.608 \times 10 ^{- 8} ) ^{3}}{4}$

$= \frac{8.92 \times 6.023 \times 10 ^{23} \times 46.97 \times 10 ^{- 24}}{4} = \frac{2523.47 \times 10 ^{- 1}}{4}$

$= 630.8 \times 1 0^{- 1} = 63.08 ≃ 63.1 u$

Q.18

Given below ae two statements

Statement I:

In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is in the order Al³⁺ > Ba²⁺ > Na⁺

Statement II:

In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three given salts is in the order NaCl > Na₂SO₄ > Na₃PO₄

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

(C)

Solution

According to hardy Schulze rule

$∙$ Flocculating power of cation increases with increases in charge on cation of electrolyte in case of negatively charge colloid, hence order is

Al³⁺ > Ba²⁺ > Na⁺

$∙$ Flocculating power of anion increases with increases in charge on anion of electrolyte in case of positively charge colloids

Hence order is

NaCl < Na₂SO₄ < Na₃PO₄

Q.19

The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is

(A)

ununennium

(B)

unnilennium

(C)

unununnium

(D)

ununoctium

(A)

Solution

IUPAC name of element : 119 : ununennium

Q.20

Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of

(A)

small size

(B)

high exchange enthalpy

(C)

high electronegativity

(D)

high basic character

(B)

Solution

Electronic configuration of Gadolinium

Gd :- [Xe] 4f⁷ 5d¹ 6s²

In case of 3^rd ionisation enthalpy electron will be removed from 5d and resultant configuration will be [Xe]4f⁷ that is stable electronic configuration as it will have high exchange energy, hence less energy will be required to remove 3^rd electron.

Q.21

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A) : ICI is more reactive than I₂

Reason (R) : I-CI bond is weaker than I-I bond.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(D)

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

(A)

Solution

In general, interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogens (except fluorine). This is because X - X' bond in interhalogens is weaker than X - X bond in halogens excepts F - F bond. Therefore I-Cl is more reactive than I₂ because of weaker I - Cl bond then I - I bond.

Q.22

Amongst the following which one will have maximum 'lone pair - lone pair' electron repulsions?

(A)

CIF₃

(B)

IF₅

(C)

SF₄

(D)

XeF₂

(D)

Solution

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 29 English Explanation

XeF₂ having maximum lone pairs, so, it has maximum 'lone pair-lone pair' electron repulsions.

Q.23

Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?

(A)

The bond orders of O

_{2}^{+}

, O₂, O

_{2}^{-}

and O

_{2}^{2 -}

are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively

(B)

C₂ molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate

π

molecular orbitals

(C)

_{2}^{+}

ion has one electron

(D)

_{2}^{+}

ion is diamagnetic

(D)

Solution

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 28 English Explanation

Due to one unpaired electron in $π$ * 2p molecular orbital, O $_{2}^{+}$ is a paramagnetic ion.

Q.24

Match List - I with List - II.

	List - I (Ores)		List - II (Composition)
(a)	Haematite	(i)	Fe $_{3}$ O $_{4}$
(b)	Magnetite	(ii)	ZnCO $_{3}$
(c)	Calamine	(iii)	Fe $_{2}$ O $_{3}$
(d)	Kaolinite	(iv)	[Al $_{2}$ (OH) $_{4}$ Si $_{2}$ O $_{5}$ ]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(B)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(C)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(D)

(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(B)

Solution

	List - I (Ores)		List - II (Composition)
(a)	Haematite	$\to$	Fe $_{2}$ O $_{3}$
(b)	Magnetite	$\to$	Fe $_{3}$ O $_{4}$
(c)	Calamine	$\to$	ZnCO $_{3}$
(d)	Kaolinite	$\to$	[Al $_{2}$ (OH) $_{4}$ Si $_{2}$ O $_{5}$ ]

Q.25

Identify the incorrect statement from the following

(A)

Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.

(B)

The oxidation number of K in KO₂ is +4.

(C)

Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases from top to bottom in the group.

(D)

Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals.

(B)

Solution

$∙$ Alkali metals show only '+1' oxidation state in all of their compounds.

KO₂ is a super-oxide in which O $_{2}^{-}$ is anion and K⁺ is cation oxidation state of K is +1.

Q.26

Match List - I with List - II

	List - I		List - II
(a)	Li	(i)	absorbent for carbon dioxide
(b)	Na	(ii)	electrochemical cells
(c)	KOH	(iii)	coolant in fast breeder reactors
(d)	Cs	(iv)	photoelectric cell

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

(B)

(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

(C)

(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

(D)

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

(D)

Solution

$∙$ Cs is used in photoelectric cell due to its low ionisation enthalpy

$∙$ KOH used to absorb CO₂ and changes into K₂CO₃

$∙$ Liquid sodium metal is used as a coolant in fast breeder nuclear reactor

$∙$ Lithium is used in electrochemical cells

Q.27

The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of:

(a) particulate matter (b) ozone (c) hydrocarbons (d) hydrogen peroxide

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A)

(a), (d) only

(B)

(a), (b), (d) only

(C)

(b), (c), (d) only

(D)

(a), (c), (d) only

(B)

Solution

Presence of particulate matter in polluted air catalyzes the oxidation of SO₂ to SO₃

i.e., 2SO₂ (g) + O₂ (g) $\to$ 2SO₃ (g)

This reaction can also be promoted by O₃ and H₂O₂, as

SO₂ (g) + O₃ (g) $\to$ SO₃ (g) + O₂ (g)

SO₂ (g) + H₂O₂ (l) $\to$ H₂SO₄ (aq)

Q.28

In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO₄ oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is form

(A)

+7 to +4

(B)

+6 to +4

(C)

+7 to +3

(D)

+6 to +5

(A)

Solution

In neutral or faintly alkaline solution.

$2 M n O_{4}^{-} + 7 + H_{2} O + (i o d i d e) I^{-} - 1 \to 2 M n O_{2} + 4 + 2 O H^{-} + (i o d a t e) I O_{3}^{-} + 5$

Manganese (Mn) oxidation state change from +7 to +4.

Q.29

Match List-I with List-II.

	List - I (Hydrides)		List - II (Nature)
(a)	MgH $_{2}$	(i)	Electron precise
(b)	GeH $_{4}$	(ii)	Electron deficient
(c)	B $_{2}$ H $_{6}$	(iii)	Electron rich
(d)	HF	(iv)	Ionic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

(B)

(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

(C)

(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

(D)

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

(A)

Solution

	List - I (Hydrides)		List - II (Nature)
(a)	MgH $_{2}$	$\to$	Ionic
(b)	GeH $_{4}$	$\to$	Electron precise
(c)	B $_{2}$ H $_{6}$	$\to$	Electron deficient
(d)	HF	$\to$	Electron rich

(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

Q.30

Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?

(A)

There are two 3-centre-2-eletron bonds.

(B)

The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two electron bonds.

(C)

The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two Boron atoms lie in one plane.

(D)

Both the Boron atoms are sp² hybridised.

(D)

Solution

Each boron atoms in diborane uses sp³ hybrid orbitals for bonding.

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - p-Block Elements Question 20 English Explanation

Q.31

Given below are two statements

Statement I : The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order -

H₂O < H₂S < H₂Se < H₂Te

Statement II : The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(B)

Solution

Compound	Boiling point (K)
H $_{2}$ O	373
H $_{2}$ S	213
H $_{2}$ Se	232
H $_{2}$ Te	269

$∙$ The boiling points of these hybrids not exactly increases with increase in molar mass.

$∙$ H₂O has maximum boiling point due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

Q.32

The IUPAC name of the complex -

[Ag(H₂O)₂][Ag(CN)₂] is:

(A)

dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate (II)

(B)

diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)

(C)

dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)

(D)

diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)

(D)

Solution

[Ag(H₂O)₂][Ag(CN)₂]

IUPAC name : diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)

Q.33

The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes

(A) [Ni(H₂O)₂(en)₂]²⁺

(B) [Ni(H₂O)₄(en)]²⁺ and

(A)

(A) > (B) > (C)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(B) > (A) > (C)

(C)

Solution

Stronger the field strength of ligand, higher will be the energy absorbed by the complex.

$\Rightarrow$ 'en' has a stronger field strength than 'H₂O' according to spectrochemical series

$∴$ Correct order of energy absorbed will be :

[Ni(en)₃]²⁺ > [Ni(H₂O)₂(en)₂]²⁺ > [Ni(H₂O)₄(en)]²⁺

i.e. (C) > (A) > (B)

Q.34

Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?

(A)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 34 English Option 1

(B)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 34 English Option 2

(C)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 34 English Option 3

(D)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 34 English Option 4

(D)

Solution

Planar, cyclic, conjugated species containing (4n + 2) $π$ electrons will be aromatic in nature (n is an integer)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 34 English Explanation 1

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 34 English Explanation 2

Q.35

The incorrect statement regarding chirality is

(A)

S_N1 reaction yields 1 : 1 mixture of both enantiomers

(B)

The product obtained by S_N2 reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows inversion of configuration

(C)

Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other

(D)

A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation

(C)

Solution

The stereoisomers related to each other as non-superimposable mirror image are called enantiomers.

Q.36

The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?

(A)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 31 English Option 1

(B)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 31 English Option 2

(C)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 31 English Option 3

(D)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 31 English Option 4

(C)

Solution

Kjeldahl method is not applicable to compounds containing nitrogen in nitro group, azo groups and nitrogen present in the ring (e.g., pyridine) as nitrogen of these compounds does not change to ammonium sulphate under these conditions.

Q.37

The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 32 English

(A)

1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol

(B)

6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methythexan-4-ol

(C)

1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-ol

(D)

6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol

(A)

Solution

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 32 English Explanation

Q.38

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group.

Statement II : o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

(C)

Solution

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 15 English Explanation

$∙$ Nitro group has electron withdrawing tendency. It can withdraw electrons both by $-$ I effect and $-$ R effect. Thus the acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol.

$∙$ Nitro group present at o- and p-positions will have strong $-$ R effect while nitro group present at m-position will influence only $-$ I effect hence acidity or o/p isomer will be more meta isomer.

Q.39

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl₂, known as Lucas Reagent.

Statement II : Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(C)

Solution

Primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols can be differentiated by their reaction with (HCl + anhy ZnCl₂) Lucas reagent

$∙$ 3 $^{\circ}$ alcohol $\frac{\buildrel Z n C l _{2} + H C l}{⟶}$ Immediate turbidity at room temperature

$∙$ 2 $^{\circ}$ alcohol $\frac{\buildrel Z n C l _{2} + H C l}{⟶}$ Turbidity after 5 minutes at room temperature

$∙$ 1 $^{\circ}$ alcohol $\frac{\buildrel Z n C l _{2} + H C l}{⟶}$ Do not gives turbidity at room temperature

Q.40

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole - dipole interactions.

Statement II : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the given below

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(A)

Solution

$∙$ The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses due to weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones arising out of the dipole - dipole interaction.

$∙$ Alcohols involved intermolecular hydrogen bonding, because of which the boiling point of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular masses.

Q.41

RMgX + CO₂ $e t h er ⟶ d r y$ Y $\frac{\buildrel H _{3} O ^{+}}{⟶}$ RCOOH

What is Y in the above reaction?

(A)

RCOO^$-$Mg⁺X

(B)

R₃CO^$-$Mg⁺X

(C)

RCOO^$-$X⁺

(D)

(RCOO)₂Mg

(A)

Solution

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 27 English Explanation

Here Y is RCOO^$-$Mg⁺X

Q.42

Match List-I with List-II.

	List - I (Products formed)		List - II (Reaction of carbonyl compound with)
(a)	Cyanohydrin	(i)	NH $_{2}$ OH
(b)	Acetal	(ii)	RNH $_{2}$
(c)	Schiff's base	(iii)	Alcohol
(d)	Oxime	(iv)	HCN

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A)

(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

(B)

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iiii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

(C)

(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

(D)

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

(D)

Solution

	List - I (Products formed)		List - II (Reaction of carbonyl compound with)
(a)	Cyanohydrin	$\to$	HCN
(b)	Acetal	$\to$	Alcohol
(c)	Schiff's base	$\to$	RNH $_{2}$
(d)	Oxime	$\to$	NH $_{2}$ OH

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 29 English Explanation

Q.43

Compound X on reaction with O₃ followed by Zn/H₂O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products. The compound X is

(A)

3-Methylbut-1-ene

(B)

2-Methylbut-1-ene

(C)

2-Methylbut-2-ene

(D)

Pent-2-ene

(A)

Solution

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 28 English Explanation 1

The given reaction is the reductive ozonolysis of an alkene. The alkene will be

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 28 English Explanation 2

Q.44

Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating?

(A)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 26 English Option 1

(B)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 26 English Option 2

(C)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 26 English Option 3

(D)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 26 English Option 4

(B)

Solution

Cross Aldol condensation reaction:

Both reactants contain $α$ -Hydrogens, so multiple products are possible which are as follows:

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 26 English Explanation

Q.45

Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?

(A)

Benzene, Cl₂, anhydrous FeCl₃

(B)

Phenol, NaNO₂, HCl, CuCl

(C)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 17 English Option 3

(D)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 17 English Option 4

(A)

Solution

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 17 English Explanation

Benzene reacts with chlorine in presence of anhydrous FeCl₃ to give chlorobenzene.

Q.46

Given below are two statements

Statement I : Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO₂ to give unstable diazonium salts.

Statement II : Primary aromatic amines react with HNO₂ to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

(C)

Solution

$∙$ Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO₂ and give unstable diazonium salt which turns into alcohol

$R - N{H_2} + HN{O_2}\buildrel {} \over \longrightarrow \left[ {R - N_2^ + - C{l^ - }} \right]\buildrel {{H_2}O} \over \longrightarrow ROH + {N_2} + HCl$

$∙$ Primary aromatic amines reacts with HNO₂ and give stable diazonium salt which are stable at 273 to 278 K.

$\frac{C _{6} H _{5} - N H _{2} + H N O _{2} \buildrel 273 - 278 K}{⟶ C _{6} H _{5} N _{2}^{+} C l ^{-}}$

Q.47

The product formed from the following reaction sequence is

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 16 English

(A)

(B)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 16 English Option 2

(C)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 16 English Option 3

(D)

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 16 English Option 4

(D)

Solution

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 16 English Explanation

Q.48

Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?

(A)

Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces

(B)

Fibers possess high tensile strength

(C)

Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on heating and cooling respectively

(D)

Thermosetting polymers are reusable

(D)

Solution

$∙$ Thermoplastic polymers are the linear or slightly long chain molecules capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on cooling.

$∙$ Thermosetting polymers are cross-linked or heavily branched molecules, which on heating undergo extensive cross-linking in moulds and again become infusible. These cannot be reused.

$∙$ Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces.

$∙$ Fibres possess high tensile strength.

Q.49

The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is

(A)

Enzymes are biocatalysts.

(B)

Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the activation energy of bio processes.

(C)

Enzymes are polysaccharides.

(D)

Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate.

(C)

Solution

Enzymes are complex nitrogenous organic compounds which are produced by living plants and animals. They are protein molecules of high molecular mass. They are not polysaccharides.

Q.50

Match List - I with List - II.

	List - I (Drug class)		List - II (Drug molecule)
(a)	Antacids	(i)	Salvarsan
(b)	Antihistamines	(ii)	Morphine
(c)	Analgesics	(iii)	Cimetidine
(d)	Antimicrobials	(iv)	Seldane

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

(B)

(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

(C)

(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

(D)

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

(B)

Solution

$∙$ Cimetidine is an antacid

$∙$ Seldane is an antihistamine

$∙$ Morphine is an analgesic

$∙$ Salvarsan is an antimicrobial drug

Biology (Maximum Marks: 400)

This section contains 100 questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

Q.1

Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?

(A)

RER has ribosomes attached to ER

(B)

SER is devoid of ribosomes

(C)

prokaryotes only RER are present in

(D)

SER are the sites for lipid synthesis

(C)

Solution

In prokaryotes, ER is absent be it RER or SER.

Q.2

Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements :

(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid

(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds

(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents

(e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(A)

(a), (b) and (c) only

(B)

(a), (d) and (e) only

(C)

(c), (d) and (e) only

(D)

(a), (b) and (d) only

(C)

Solution

Option (c) is the correct answer because statements (c), (d) and (e) correct as oils have lower melting point and hence remain oil in winters. Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents.

Option (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect because statements (a) and (b) are incorrect. Lecithin is a type of phospholipid found in plasma membrane. Saturated fatty acids are without double bond.

Q.3

A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to product maltose. If the formula for glucose is C₆H₁₂O₆ then what is the formula for maltose?

(A)

C₁₂H₂₀O₁₀

(B)

C₁₂H₂₄O₁₂

(C)

C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁

(D)

C₁₂H₂₄O₁₁

(C)

Solution

Option (c) is correct because maltose is a disaccharide formed by dehydration process i.e., synthesis by elimination of one water molecule to form a glycosidic bond in between two glucose molecules. So, its molecular formula is

C₆H₁₂O₆ $\times$ 2 $H_{2} O ⟶$ C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁

Q.4

Match List-I with List-II:

	List - I (Biological Molecules)		List - II (Biological functions)
(a)	Glycogen	(i)	Hormone
(b)	Globulin	(ii)	Biocatalyst
(c)	Steroids	(iii)	Antibody
(d)	Thrombin	(iv)	Storage product

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(B)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(C)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(D)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is the correct answer as glycogen is a polysaccharide and is a storage product in animals.

$∙$ Globulins form antibodies which are also known as immunoglobulins.

$∙$ Steroids form hormones like testosterone.

$∙$ Thrombin is a biocatalyst which converts soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin.

Q.5

Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?

(A)

Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes

(B)

Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles

(C)

Pairing of homologous chromosomes

(D)

Coiling and condensation of the chromatids

(C)

Solution

Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs during prophase I of meiosis.

Coiling and condensation of chromatids, spindle fibres attachment to the kinetochores and movement of centrioles towards opposite poles occur in both mitosis and meiosis.

Q.6

The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes:

(A)

Synaptonemal complex

(B)

Bivalent

(C)

Sites at which crossing over occurs

(D)

Terminalization

(C)

Solution

Pachytene stage of meiosis is characterized by the appearance of recombination nodules, the sites at which crossing over occurs between non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

Q.7

Match List I with List II.

	List - I		List - II
(a)	Metacentric chromosome	(i)	Centromere situated close to the end forming one extremely short and one very long arms
(b)	Acrocentric chromosome	(ii)	Centromere at the terminal end
(c)	Submetacentric	(iii)	Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms of chromosomes
(d)	Telocentric chromosome	(iv)	Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one shorter arm and one longer arm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(B)

(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(C)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(D)

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(A)

Solution

In metacentric chromosome, centromere is in the middle of the chromosomes. Acrocentric chromosome has centromere close to the end of the chromosome. In submetacentric chromosome, centromere is slightly away from the middle of the chromosome. Telocentric chromosome has terminal centromere.

Q.8

Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?

(A)

There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II

(B)

DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II

(C)

Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I

(D)

Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II

(B)

Solution

Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II but only single cycle of DNA replication.

The stage between two meiotic divisions is called interkinesis and is generally short lived and involves no DNA replication.

Q.9

Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis :

(A)

All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase

(B)

Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes

(C)

Chromosomes decondense at telophase

(D)

Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase

(B)

Solution

Spindle fibres attach to the kinetochores of chromosomes.

Kinetochores are the disc shaped structures present on sides of primary constriction or centromere of chromosomes.

Q.10

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous

Statement II : Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(A)

Solution

Cleistogamous flowers does not open at all. In such flowers autogamy occurs. Lack of cross pollination is a disadvantage of cleistogamy.

Q.11

Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination:

(A)

Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants

(B)

Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination

(C)

Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated

(D)

Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects

(D)

Solution

Among the animals, insects, particularly bees are the dominant biotic pollinating agents.

Q.12

Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A :

(A)

Trichoderma polysporum

(B)

Clostridium butylicum

(C)

Aspergillus niger

(D)

Streptococcus cerevisiae

(A)

Solution

Bioactive molecule, cyclosporin A, that is used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant patients, is produced by the fungus, Trichoderma polysporum.

Q.13

"Girdling Experiment" was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:

(A)

water is transported

(B)

food is transported

(C)

for both water and food transportation

(D)

osmosis is observed

(B)

Solution

The girdling experiment shows that phloem is the tissue responsible for translocation of food; and that transport takes place in one direction i.e. towards the root.

Q.14

Read the following statements about the vascular bundles:

(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii.

(b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium

(d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem

(e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

(a), (b) and (d) only

(B)

(a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) only

(C)

(a), (b), (c) and (d) only

(D)

(a), (c), (d) and (e) only

(B)

Solution

Let us check each statement one by one according to NCERT concepts.

(a)

In roots, xylem and phloem are arranged alternately on different radii.

This type of arrangement is called a radial vascular bundle.

So, (a) is correct.

(b)

In conjoint closed vascular bundles, cambium is absent.

So, (b) is correct.

(c)

In open vascular bundles, cambium is present between xylem and phloem.

So, (c) is correct.

(d)

In a dicot stem, the protoxylem lies towards the centre and metaxylem towards the periphery. This condition is called endarch.

So, (d) is correct.

(e)

In a monocot root, the number of xylem bundles is usually more than six. This condition is called polyarch.

So, (e) is correct.

Thus, all statements $(a)$ , $(b)$ , $(c)$ , $(d)$ and $(e)$ are correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

$Option B$

Q.15

In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to :

(a) secretion of secondary metabolities and their deposition in the lumen of vessels.

(b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem.

(d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem.

(e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

(a) and (b) only

(B)

(C)

(d) and (e) only

(D)

(b) and (d) only

(A)

Solution

In old trees, the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown due to deposition of organic compounds like tannins, resins, oils, gums, aromatic substances and essential oils in the central or innermost layers of the stem. These substances make it hard, durable and resistant to the attacks of micro-organisms and insects.

Q.16

what is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C₄ plants?

(A)

To provide the site for photorespiratory pathway

(B)

To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle

(C)

To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature

(D)

To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity

(B)

Solution

The large cells around the vascular bundles of C₄ plants form bundle sheath. These cells have large number of chloroplasts to perform calvin cycle.

Q.17

The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood.

(a) It is also called as the earlywood

(b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels

(d) The springwood along with autumn wood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings

(e) It has lower density

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

(a), (b), (d) and (e) only

(B)

(a), (c), (d) and (e) only

(C)

(a), (b) and (d) only

(D)

(c), (d) and (e) only

(B)

Solution

Spring wood is also called early wood. It is lighter in colour and has a lower density. The vessels are produced with the wider lumens to transport more water to meet the requirement by increased transpiring surface in spring season.

The spring and autumn wood appear as alternate concentric rings of light and dark colour forming annual rings.

Q.18

Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway?

(A)

Movement of water occurs through intercellular spaces and wall of the cells

(B)

The movement does not involve crossing of cell membrane

(C)

The movement is aided by cytoplasmic streaming

(D)

Apoplast is continuous and does not provide any barrier to water movement

(C)

Solution

The symplastic system is system of interconnected protoplasts. Neighbouring cell are connected through cytoplasmic strands that extend through plasmodesmata. The water travels through cell cytoplasm and plasmodesmata, hence the movement is relatively slower. Symplastic movement is aided by cytoplasmic streaming.

Q.19

Addition of more solutes in a given solution will:

(A)

raise its water potential

(B)

lower its water potential

(C)

make its water potential zero

(D)

not affect the water potential at all

(B)

Solution

If some solute is dissolved in pure water, he solution has lower free water and the concentration of water decreases, reducing it's water potential. The magnitude of this lowering due to dissolution of a solute is called solute potential.

Q.20

Match List-I with List-II

	List - I		List - II
(a)	Manganese	(i)	Activates the enzyme catalase
(b)	Magnesium	(ii)	Required for pollen germination
(c)	Boron	(iii)	Activates enzymes of respiration
(d)	Iron	(iv)	Functions in splitting of water during photosynthesis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(B)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(C)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(D)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(B)

Solution

Manganese plays a major role in the splitting of water to liberate oxygen during photosynthesis.

Magnesium activates several enzymes involved in photosynthesis and respiration.

Boron is involved in pollen germination. Iron activates the catalase and some other enzymes.

Q.21

Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?

(A)

Rhizobium

(B)

Frankia

(C)

Rhodospirillum

(D)

Beijerinckia

(B)

Solution

The microbe, Frankia, produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of non-leguminous plants (e.g. Alnus)

Q.22

What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?

(A)

Four

(B)

Six

(C)

Two

(D)

Eight

(C)

Solution

During glycolysis, total 4 ATPs are produced from one glucose molecule with a net gain of 2 ATPs.

Q.23

What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?

(A)

Approximately 15%

(B)

More than 18%

(C)

About 10%

(D)

Less than 7%

(D)

Solution

Less than seven percent of the energy in glucose is released during lactic acid fermentation and not all of it is trapped as high energy bonds of ATP.

Q.24

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.

Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(D)

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(B)

Solution

Both the statements are correct but the given reason is not the correct explanation. Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.

Ampicillin resistance gene is a selectable marker that helps to check transformation by selection of transformants.

Q.25

Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?

(A)

The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.

(B)

The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.

(C)

The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.

(D)

Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.

(C)

Solution

Option (c) is the incorrect statement, as bright coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when EtBr (Ethidium bromide) treated DNA is exposed to UV light.

Q.26

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence.

Statement II : Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(A)

Solution

Option (a) is the correct answer because both the statements I and II are correct. Each restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA. It will bind to the DNA and cut each of the two strands of double helix at specific points. Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome site; but between the same two bases on the opposite strands. So both the statements I and II are correct.

Q.27

Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?

(A)

Presence of origin of replication

(B)

Presence of a marker gene

(C)

Presence of single restriction enzyme site

(D)

Presence of two or more recognition sites

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is the correct answer. Cloning vectors are the carriers of the desired gene in the host cell. The features desirable in a cloning vector are :-

$∙$ Presence of origin of replication

$∙$ Presence of marker genes

$∙$ Presence of very few, preferably single recognition site for the commonly used restriction enzymes

Q.28

Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?

(A)

In vitro fertilization

(B)

National Parks

(C)

Micropropagation

(D)

Cryopreservation

(B)

Solution

In-situ conservation means on site conservation i.e. when we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels is protected.

National parks are type of in-situ conservation.

Whereas, micropropagation, cryopreservation and in-vitro fertilization are methods of ex-situ conservation.

Q.29

Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for :

(A)

Population explosion

(B)

Competition

(C)

Biodiversity loss

(D)

Natality

(C)

Solution

Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for biodiversity loss.

Q.30

In-situ conservation refers to :

(A)

Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem

(B)

Conserve only high-risk species

(C)

Conserve only endangered species

(D)

Conserve only extinct species

(A)

Solution

When we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels is protected. This is in-situ or on site conservation strategy.

Q.31

In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals?

(A)

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

(B)

Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species

(C)

Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species

(D)

Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species

(A)

Solution

None of the options are matching with the language of the question

The correct ascending order of taxonomic categories in case of animals is

species $\to$ genus $\to$ family $\to$ order $\to$ class $\to$ phylum $\to$ kingdom

Q.32

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.

Statement II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(C)

Solution

Mycoplasma are the smallest cells and are only 0.3 $μ$ m in length. So it can pass through less than 1 $μ$ m filter size.

Mycoplasma lack cell wall.

Q.33

Which of the following is a correct statement?

(A)

autotrophic organisms classified under kingdom Monera Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera

(B)

Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms

(C)

Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.

(D)

Mycoplasma have DNA, ribosome and cell wall.

(A)

Solution

Let's evaluate each option:

Option A: "Autotrophic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera, Cyanobacteria, are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera."

Cyanobacteria are indeed autotrophic (they perform photosynthesis) and are traditionally classified under Kingdom Monera in older taxonomy systems. This statement is correct.

Option B: "Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms."

This is incorrect because many bacteria, such as cyanobacteria, are autotrophic (capable of producing their own food via photosynthesis) in addition to heterotrophic species.

Option C: "Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera."

Slime molds are not classified under Kingdom Monera. They are generally placed in the Kingdom Protista (or Amoebozoa) and are not bacteria.

Option D: "Mycoplasma have DNA, ribosome and cell wall."

Mycoplasma do have DNA and ribosomes, but they lack a cell wall. They only have a cell membrane.

Based on these evaluations, the correct statement is:

$Option A$

This option accurately describes cyanobacteria as autotrophic organisms within Kingdom Monera.

Q.34

Identify the correct set of statements:

(a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea

(b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin

(d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration

(e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

(b) and (c) only

(B)

(a) and (d) only

(C)

(b), (c), (d) and (e) only

(D)

(a), (b), (d) and (e) only

(C)

Solution

Axillary buds of stems get modified into woody, straight and pointed thorns. Thorns are found in many plants such as Citrus and Bougainvillea.

Q.35

Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?

(A)

Colchicum autumnale

(B)

Pisum sativum

(C)

Allium cepa

(D)

Solanum nigrum

(B)

Solution

$∙$ Vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens are the characteristic features of family Fabaceae.

$∙$ Pisum sativum (garden pea) belongs to family Fabaceae.

$∙$ Allium cepa (onion) and Colchicum autumnale (colchicine) belong to family Liliaceae.

$∙$ Solanum nigrum belongs to Solanaceae.

Q.36

The flowers are Zygomorphic in :

(a) Mustard (b) Gulmohar (c) Cassia (d) Datura (e) Chilly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

(a), (b) and (c) only

(B)

(b), (c) only

(C)

(d), (e) only

(D)

(c), (d), (e) only

(B)

Solution

When a flower can be divided into two similar halves only in one particular vertical plane, it is zygomorphic for e.g. pea, gulmohar, bean, Cassia. Mustard, Datura and Chilly show actinomorphic flowers.

Q.37

Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit?

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 28 English

(A)

\to

Mesocarp

(B)

\to

Endocarp

(C)

\to

Thalamus

(D)

\to

Seed

(C)

Solution

The given figure is of a false unit. False fruit develops from other floral parts and thalamus alongwith the development of ovary wall.

Q.38

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₄ plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.

Statement II : Mesophyll cells of C₄ plants lack RuBisCo enzyme.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(A)

Solution

The primary CO₂ acceptor is a 3-carbon molecule, phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) and is present in the mesophyll cells.

Mesophyll cells of C₄ plants lack RuBisCO enzyme.

Q.39

Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:

(A)

Breakdown of proton gradient

(B)

Breakdown of electron gradient

(C)

Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma

(D)

Reduction of NADP to NADPH₂ on the stroma side of the membrane

(B)

Solution

Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, a proton pump, a proton gradient and ATP synthase. Energy is used to pump protons across a membrane to create a gradient or a high concentration of protons within the thylakoid lumen.

The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane. Along with the electrons that come from the acceptor of electrons of PS I, protons are necessary for reduction of NADP⁺ to NADPH + H⁺.

The process does not involve breaking of electron gradient.

Q.40

XO type of sex determination can be found in :

(A)

Drosophila

(B)

Birds

(C)

Grasshoppers

(D)

Monkeys

(C)

Solution

Grasshopper is an example of XO type of sex determination in which the males have only one X-chromosome besides the autosomes, whereas females have a pair of X-chromosomes.

Q.41

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance.

Statement II : Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(A)

Solution

Gregor J. Mendel, conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas and selected 14 true breeding pea plant varieties (seven contrasting traits). Contrasting traits studied were smooth or wrinkled seeds, yellow or green seeds, inflated on constricted pods, green or yellow pods, tall or dwarf plants, violet or white flowers and axial or terminal flower positions.

Q.42

Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait?

(A)

Sickle cell anaemia

(B)

Myotonic dystrophy

(C)

Haemophilia

(D)

Thalessemia

(B)

Solution

Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disorder. Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder.

Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder i.e. it occurs due to the presence of autosomal linked dominant trait.

Q.43

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Mendel's law of independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome.

Reason (R) : Closely located genes assort independently.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(D)

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(C)

Solution

Closely located genes do not show independent assortment. Mendel's law of independent assortment holds good for those genes which are located on different chromosomes.

Q.44

If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness?

(A)

25%

(B)

50%

(C)

75%

(D)

100%

(D)

Solution

If mother of man is colour blind, then man will also be colour blind as colour blindness is a X-linked recessive trait and shows criss-cross inheritance.

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Biology - Principles of Inheritance and Variation Question 39 English Explanation

Q.45

The recombination frequency between the genes a & c 5&, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 25% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?

(A)

a, d, b, c

(B)

d, b, a, c

(C)

a, b, c, d

(D)

a, c, b, d

(D)

Solution

1% recombination frequency = 1 centi Morgan

To place the genes on a linear chromosome, decreasing order of recombination frequency will be considered.

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Biology - Principles of Inheritance and Variation Question 43 English Explanation

Q.46

The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as:

(A)

The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

(B)

The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

(C)

Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA

(D)

The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

(A)

Solution

When the small subunit of ribosome encounters an mRNA, the process of translation of the mRNA to protein begins. This process is followed by the binding of bigger/larger subunit.

t-RNA is activated by the addition of amino acid prior to the attachment or ribosome, in the first phase.

Q.47

DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:

(A)

Genetic mapping

(B)

DNA finger printing

(C)

Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing

(D)

Translation

(C)

Solution

Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome as well as of DNA finger printing.

Q.48

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:

(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin

(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active

(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine

(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

(b), (d), (e) only

(B)

(a), (c), (d) only

(C)

(b), (e) only

(D)

(a), (c), (e) only

(B)

Solution

Heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive. A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix.

Euchromatin is the loosely packed chromatin region.

The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called nucleosome. Histones are rich in basic amino acid residues lysine and arginine.

Q.49

Transposons can be used during which one of the following?

(A)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

(B)

Gene Silencing

(C)

Autoradiography

(D)

Gene sequencing

(B)

Solution

Option (b) is the correct answer as the source of the complementary RNA for RNAi could be mobile genetic elements (transposons) that replicate via an RNA intermediate.

Option (c) is incorrect as autoradiography usually follows hybridisation.

Option (a) is incorrect because polymerase chain reaction is used to make copies of the DNA sample and does not need transposons.

Option (d) is incorrect because transposons are not required during gene sequencing.

Q.50

If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called as :

(A)

Sequence annotation

(B)

Gene mapping

(C)

Expressed sequence tags

(D)

Bioinformatics

(A)

Solution

Sequencing the whole set of genome that contained all the coding and non-coding sequences and later assigning different regions in the sequence with functions is called sequence annotation.

Q.51

If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will b the approximate number of base pairs?

(A)

3.3

\times

bp 10⁹

(B)

6.6

\times

bp 10⁹

(C)

3.3

\times

bp 10⁶

(D)

6.6

\times

bp 10⁶

(A)

Solution

Number of base pairs $\times$ distance between 2 consecutive base pairs = Length of DNA molecule

x . 0.34 $\times$ 10^{$-$ 9} m = 1.1 m

x = $\frac{1.1}{0.3 \times 10 ^{- 9}}$

= 3.6 $\times$ 10⁹

$≃$ 3.3 $\times$ 10⁹ bp

Q.52

In an E. Coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?

(A)

Only z gene will get transcribed

(B)

z, y, a genes will be transcribed

(C)

z, y, a genes will not be translated

(D)

RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region

(C)

Solution

As the product of 'i' gene binds with the operator region and blocks the transcription and translation of z, y and a genes.

It's product is prevented from binding to the operator by attaching it with the inducer. As the inducer can not no more capable of binding with the repressor, thus, in all the cases, operator always gets attached with the repressor thereby preventing the transcription and transmission of z, y and a.

Even in the presence of lactose, transcription and translation of z, y and a would not occur.

Q.53

Ten E.coli cells with ¹⁵N - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing ¹⁴N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from ¹⁵N?

(A)

20 cells

(B)

40 cells

(C)

60 cells

(D)

80 cells

(C)

Solution

From 10 parent E.coli cells

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Biology - Molecular Basis of Inheritance Question 50 English Explanation

Therefore, after 60 minutes, 60 E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from ¹⁵N.

Q.54

Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called:

(A)

Bio-magnification

(B)

Bio-remediation

(C)

Bio-fortification

(D)

Bio-accumulation

(C)

Solution

Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals, or higher protein and healthier fats is known as Biofortification.

Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.

Bioremediation is the phenomenon of using biological organism to handle pollution.

Q.55

In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme?

(A)

5'GATACT3' ; 3'CTATGA5'

(B)

5'GAATTC3' ; 3'CTTAAG5'

(C)

5'CTCAGT3' ; 3'GAGTCA5'

(D)

5'GTATTC3' ; 3'CATAAG5'

(B)

Solution

Option (b) is the correct answer as a palindromic DNA sequence is a DNA sequence of base pairs that reads same on the two strands when orientation of reading is kept the same. Out of the four options, option (b) is the only palindromic sequence.

5'GAATTC3'

3'CTTAAG5'

Q.56

In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because:

(A)

Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes.

(B)

Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stages

(C)

Lymphocytes from patient's blood are grown in culture, outside the body

(D)

Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is the correct answer as genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells and die after some time.

Option (c) is not the correct answer as the lymphocytes from patient's blood are grown in culture, outside the body but it is not the correct reason.

In option (b), if the gene isolated from bone marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic stages, it could be a permanent cure.

Q.57

Statements related to human Insulin are given below.

Which statements is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin?

(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide

(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them.

(d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.

(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A)

(a), (b) and (d) only

(B)

(b) only

(C)

(D)

(c), (d) and (e) only

(B)

Solution

Option (b) is the correct answer as genetically engineered insulin has A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin which are produced separately in E.coli, then they are extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them.

Statement (a) is incorrect as genetically engineered insulin does not have an extra stretch of C-peptide. Statement (c) is incorrect as insulin obtained from cattles and pigs is not genetically engineered insulin. Statement (d) is incorrect because conversion of pro-insulin to insulin is not required during production of insulin by genetic engineering as A-peptide and B-peptide chains are produced separately. Statement (e) is incorrect as allergic reactions to insulin are mostly seen when the insulin is obtained from animals.

Q.58

Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?

(A)

It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community

(B)

It might lead to extinction of a species

(C)

Both the integrating species are negatively impacted

(D)

It is necessitated by nature to maintain the ecological balance

(C)

Solution

One of the species in predation gains benefit on the expense of the other. Predators help in maintaining species diversity in a community, by reducing the intensity of competition among competing prey species. If a predator is too efficient and overexploits its prey, then the prey might become extinct.

Q.59

While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, ( $-$ ) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one specifies and ( $-$ ) for another specifies involved in the interaction?

(A)

Predation

(B)

Amensalim

(C)

Commensalism

(D)

Competition

(A)

Solution

In predation, one species is benefited where as the other is harmed. It is (+ $-$ ) type of population interaction.

Q.60

If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the population is ___________ individuals per Drosophila per week.

(A)

0.1

(B)

(C)

1.0

(D)

zero

(A)

Solution

If 8 Drosophila in a laboratory population of 80 died during a week, the death rate in the population is $\frac{8}{80} = 0.1$ individuals per Drosophila per week.

Q.61

The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is:

(A)

STP

(B)

Incinerator

(C)

Electrostatic Precipitator

(D)

Catalytic Convertor

(C)

Solution

Electrostatic precipitator can remove over 99% particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant. Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases. STPs are associated with sewage treatment.

Q.62

The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false?

(A)

CNG burns more efficiently than diesel

(B)

The same diesel engine is used in CNG buses making the cost of conversion low

(C)

It is cheaper than diesel

(D)

It cannot be adulterated like diesel

(B)

Solution

CNG is cheaper than petrol and it burns more efficiently unlike petrol or diesel. It also cannot be adulterated like diesel and petrol. The same diesel engine cannot be used in CNG buses for making the cost conversion low.

Q.63

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles.

Statement II : Particulate matter (PM 2.5) cannot be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(D)

Solution

Scrubber is used by the industries which produce SO₂ as a by product.

The limestone present in slurry of scrubber remove SO₂ from the exhaust.

Electrostatic precipitator is the most effective device to remove 99% of particulate matter, 'even PM 2.5' present in the exhaust.

Q.64

Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained form :

(A)

Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae

(B)

Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae

(C)

Rhodophyceae only

(D)

Phaeophyceae only

(C)

Solution

Hydrocolloids are water holding substances for e.g. carrageen obtained from red algae (Rhodophyceae).

Q.65

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

(A)

Ectocarpus - Fucoxanthin

(B)

Ulothrix - Mannitol

(C)

Porphyra - Floridian Starch

(D)

Volvox - Starch

(B)

Solution

Ulothrix is a member of Chlorophyceae (green algae), with reserve food material, starch. Mannitol is stored food material of Phaeophyceae (brown algae).

Q.66

Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:

	List - I		List - II
(a)	Spirogyra	(i)	Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highly reduced male or female gametophyte
(b)	Fern	(ii)	Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte
(c)	Funaria	(iii)	Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with reduced gametophyte called prothallus
(d)	Cycas	(iv)	Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte alternating with partially dependent multicellular sporophyte

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(B)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(C)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(D)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(B)

Solution

Spirogyra is an alga. It shows haplontic life-cycle.

Fern is pteridophyte. The dominant phase of life-cycle is diploid sporophyte. Its gametophyte is called prothallus.

Funaria is a bryophyte. Its gametophyte is a leafy stage.

Cycas is a gymnosperm. The main plant body in gymnosperm is sporophyte. They have highly reduced gametophyte stage.

Q.67

Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?

(A)

Cotton

(B)

Coriander

(C)

Buttercup

(D)

Maize

(D)

Solution

Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called plasticity e.g. heterophylly in cotton, coriander and larkspur. In such plants, leaves of juvenile plant are different in a shape from those in mature plants.

Maize does not show plasticity.

Q.68

The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to:

(A)

speed up the malting process

(B)

promote root growth and roothair formation to increase the absorption surface

(C)

help overcome apical dominance

(D)

kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields

(B)

Solution

Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone. It induces development of adventitious roots on various types of cutting. It promotes the development of lateral roots and growth of root hairs. Cytokinin helps to overcome the apical dominance.

Auxin is used to kill dicot weeds. Gibberellin speeds up the malting process.

Q.69

Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants:

(A)

ABA

(B)

Gibberellin

(C)

Ethylene

(D)

Cytokinin

(C)

Solution

Ethylene increases the number of female flowers and fruits in certain plants such as cucumber. Gibberellins are used to increase the size of fruits in some plants.

Q.70

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes.

Statement II : Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(C)

Solution

Decomposition is the process by which decomposers breakdown complex organic matter into inorganic substances.

The rate of decomposition is controlled by chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors. Decomposition is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin and quicker, if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water soluble substances like sugars.

Q.71

Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?

(A)

Burning of fossil fuels

(B)

Volcanic activity

(C)

Weathering of rocks

(D)

Rain fall and storms

(C)

Solution

Phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary cycle. Reservoir pool of phosphorus in ecosystem is the earth's crust or lithosphere. Weathering of rocks accelerate phosphorus cycle.

Q.72

Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called :

(A)

Catabolism

(B)

Fragmentation

(C)

Humification

(D)

Decomposition

(B)

Solution

(Detritivores break down detritus into smaller particles) e.g. earthworm. This process is called fragmentation.

Q.73

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.

Statement II : Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(C)

Solution

Option (c) is the correct answer as autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognises its own cells as foreign bodies. Sometimes, due to genetic and other unknown reasons, the body attacks self cells.

Rheumatoid arthritis is an example where body attacks self cells (synovial membrane).

So Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Q.74

Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

(A)

Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.

(B)

Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.

(C)

Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter.

(D)

Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is the correct answer as acquired immunity is a specific type of defence which is not present at the time of birth.

Option (c), (a) and (b) are true statements and hence cannot be the answer.

Anamnestic response or secondary immune response is a highly intensified response due to memory of first encounter.

When our body encounters a pathogen for the first time then the body elicits the primary immune response.

When there is a subsequent encounter with the same pathogen, secondary or anamnestic immune response is elicited.

Q.75

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.

Statement II : Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is the correct answer because coagulum or clot is formed mainly of a network of threads called fibrins. Hence, Statement I is incorrect.

RBCs are destroyed in the spleen so spleen is known as the graveyard of erythrocytes. Hence, Statement II is correct.

Q.76

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A)

The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction

(B)

The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria

(C)

Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.

(D)

Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.

(C)

Solution

Option (c) is the correct answer because during joint diastole, blood moves freely from atrium to ventricle as atrioventricular valve remain open during joint diastole.

Option (d) is incorrect because decrease in ventricular pressure, during ventricular diastole closes semilunar valves to produce 'dub' heart sound.

Option (a) is incorrect because SA node generates action potential to stimulate atrial contraction.

Option (b) is incorrect because bicuspid and tricuspid valves open due to pressure exerted by blood present in atria and decrease in pressure in ventricles during ventricular diastole.

Q.77

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures.

Reason (R) : Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(D)

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(C)

Solution

Option (c) is the correct answer as osteoporosis is due to decreased levels of oestrogen. Osteoporosis is an age-related disorder characterised by decreased bone mass hence, the chances of fractures increase.

Q.78

Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?

(A)

Arthritis - Inflammed joints

(B)

Tetany - High Ca²⁺ level causing rapid spasms

(C)

Myasthenia gravis - Genetic disorder resulting in weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle

(D)

Muscular dystrophy - An auto immune disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

(A)

Solution

Option (a) is the correct answer because Arthritis is inflammation of joints.

Option (c) is incorrect because myasthenia gravis is an immune disorder affecting neuro-muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.

Option (d) is incorrect because muscular dystrophy is progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic disorder.

Option (b) is incorrect because tetany is rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca⁺⁺ in body fluid.

Q.79

Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :

(A)

The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.

(B)

Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.

(C)

Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters

(D)

Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse.

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is the correct answer as impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than that across a chemical synapse.

$\to$ Chemical synapses use chemicals for transmission which are known as neurotransmitters.

$\to$ The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.

$\to$ In an electrical synapse, the transmission of the impulse occurs in the form of an electrical current from one neuron to the next neuron.

Q.80

Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium :

(A)

Zoospores

(B)

Conidia

(C)

Gemmules

(D)

Buds

(B)

Solution

Conidia are the asexual reproductive structures produced in Penicillium.

Gemmules are produced in sponge

Buds are produced in Hydra

Zoospores are produced in Chlamydomonas

Q.81

Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as:

(A)

Cervical barrier

(B)

Vault barrier

(C)

Non-Medicated IUD

(D)

Copper releasing IUD

(C)

Solution

Option (c) is the correct answer because the intrauterine device (IUD) presently available as the non-medicated IUDs, is Lippe's loop.

Option (d) is incorrect as copper releasing IUDs are CuT, Cu7 and multiload 375.

Option (a) and (b) are incorrect as diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are included in barrier method of contraception.

Q.82

Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.

	List - I		List - II
(a)	Diaphragms	(i)	Inhibit ovulation and implantation
(b)	Contraceptive Pills	(ii)	Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus
(c)	Intra Uterine Devices	(iii)	Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition
(d)	Lactational Amenorrhea	(iv)	They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(B)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(C)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(D)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(B)

Solution

Option (b) is the correct answer because

$∙$ Diaphragms are barrier methods of contraception. They cover the cervix and block the entry of sperms.

$∙$ Contraceptive pills are preparations containing either progestogens alone or combination of progestogen and oestrogen. They inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent entry of sperms.

$∙$ Intra uterine devices increase the phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.

$∙$ Lactational amenorrhoea is a natural method of contraception and it is based on the fact that the ovulation and therefore menstrual cycle do not occur during the period of intense lactation following parturition.

Q.83

In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?

(A)

Corvus, Columba, Chameleon

(B)

Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus

(C)

Catla, Columba, Crocodilus

(D)

Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is the correct answer because two additional chambers like crop and gizzard in alimentary canal are present in birds.

Pavo (Peacock), Psittacula (Parrot), Corvus (Crow) and Columba (Pigeon) are birds.

Option (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect because Catla is a bony fish, Crocodilus, Chameleon and Bangarus are reptiles, Bufo is an amphibian and Balaenoptera is an aquatic mammal.

Q.84

Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

(A)

Blood

(B)

Adipose tissue

(C)

Cartilage

(D)

Neuroglia

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is the correct answer as neuroglia are a part of nervous tissue.

$∙$ Neuroglia are the supportive cells of nervous tissue. They make up more than half the volume of neural tissue. Neurons, the unit of neural system are excitable cells.

$∙$ Cartilage and blood are specialised type of connective tissues.

$∙$ Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue.

Q.85

Tegmina in cockroach, arises from

(A)

Prothorax

(B)

Mesothorax

(C)

Metathorax

(D)

Prothorax and Mesothorax

(B)

Solution

Option (b) is the correct answer because tegmina or forewings (the first pair of wings) in cockroach arises from mesothorax.

Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect because no wing arises from prothorax and hindwings arise from metathorax.

Q.86

Match List - I with List - II

	List - I		List - II
(a)	Bronchioles	(i)	Dense Regular Connective Tissue
(b)	Goblet Cell	(ii)	Loose Connective Tissue
(c)	Tendons	(iii)	Glandular Tissue
(d)	Adipose Tissue	(iv)	Ciliated Epithelium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(B)

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(C)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(D)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(A)

Solution

Option (a) is the correct answer because

Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and fallopian tubes. The function is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium.

Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion and are called glandular epithelium. Goblet cells are unicellular glands.

Tendons are dense regular connective tissues. They attach skeletal muscles to bones.

Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue located mainly beneath the skin. The cells of this tissue are specialised to store fats.

Q.87

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood.

Statement II : Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(A)

Solution

Option (a) is the correct answer because both the statements I and II are correct as fatty acids and glycerol being insoluble in water, cannot be absorbed into the blood. They are first incorporated into small droplets called micelles which move into the intestinal mucosa. They are re-formed into very small protein coated fat globules called chylomicrons which are transported into the lymph vessels (lacteals) in the villi. The lymph vessels ultimately release the absorbed substances into the blood stream.

Q.88

Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?

(A)

Control bacterial population in mouth

(B)

Digestion of complex carbohydrates

(C)

Lubrication of oral cavity

(D)

Digestion of disaccharides

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is the correct answer because digestion of polysaccharides like starch occurs in mouth and digestion of disaccharides occurs in small intestine.

Option (c) is incorrect because saliva contains mucus which helps in the lubrication of oral cavity.

Option (a) is incorrect because saliva contains an antibacterial agent-lysozyme so that it controls bacterial population in mouth.

Option (b) is incorrect because digestion of complex carbohydrates are performed by secretions from salivary glands.

Q.89

Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?

(A)

Intercalated discs

(B)

Cartilage

(C)

Areolar tissue

(D)

Smooth muscle

(B)

Solution

Option (b) is the correct answer because cartilage forming the intervertebral disc is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column and it is a type of cartilaginous joint.

Option (c) is incorrect because areolar tissue present beneath the skin is a type of loose connective tissue.

Option (d) is incorrect because smooth muscles are present in the visceral organs.

Option (a) is incorrect because intercalated discs are characteristic feature of cardiac muscles present in heart.

Q.90

Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by :

(A)

Ornithorhynchus

(B)

Salamandra

(C)

Hippocampus

(D)

Pavo

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is the correct answer because birds (Pavo) excrete nitrogenous wastes as uric acid in the form of pellet or paste with minimum loss of water.

Option (c) and (b) are incorrect because many bony fishes (like Hippocampus) and aquatic amphibians (like Salamandra) are ammonotelic in nature.

Option (a) is incorrect because mammals (like Ornithorhynchus) mainly excrete urea and are called ureotelic animals.

Q.91

Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone?

(a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption

(b) Decreases Ca²⁺ level in blood

(d) Decreases the absorption of Ca²⁺ from digested food

(e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A)

(a) and (c) only

(B)

(b), (d) and (e) only

(C)

(a) and (e) only

(D)

(b) and (c) only

(B)

Solution

Option (b) is the correct answer because parathyroid hormone is a hypercalcemic hormone i.e., it increases the blood calcium levels. It also increases the absorption of calcium from digested food. Glucocorticoids regulate the carbohydrate metabolism.

Option (c) is not the answer because parathyroid hormone stimulates the process of bone resorption.

Option (a) and (d) are not the answers because reabsorption of Ca²⁺ by renal tubules is a function of PTH.

Q.92

Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis?

(a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes

(b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis

(d) It is controlled by the Luteinising Hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary

(e) It is initiated at puberty

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A)

(B)

(b) and (c) only

(C)

(b), (d) and (e) only

(D)

(b), (c) and (e) only

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is the correct answer.

$∙$ In both, spermatogenesis and oogenesis haploid gametes are formed. So (a) is true for both.

$∙$ The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called spermiogenesis. Hence, (b) is true for spermatogenesis only.

$∙$ Spermatogenesis and oogenesis both are controlled by LH and FSH secreted by the anterior pituitary. Hence, (d) is true for both.

$∙$ Spermatogenesis is a continuous process that begins at puberty. So (e) is true for spermatogenesis. Oogenesis on the other hand begins during embryonic development of the female.

Q.93

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.

Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(C)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(C)

Solution

Option (c) is the correct answer because Statement II is incorrect as the transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa (sperms) are called spermiogenesis. After this, sperm head becomes embedded in the Sertoli cells and are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process called spermiation. Hence, Statement I is a correct statement. Spermatogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.

Q.94

At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?

(A)

Puberty

(B)

Embryonic development stage

(C)

Birth

(D)

Adult

(B)

Solution

Option (2) is the correct answer as oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic development stage when a couple of million gamete mother cells (oogonia) are formed within each foetal ovary.

No more oogonia are formed and added after birth in a human female.

At puberty only 60,000 to 80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary, rest degenerate during the phase from birth to puberty.

Q.95

Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of:

(A)

Cutin

(B)

Cellulose

(C)

Chitin

(D)

Glucosamine

(C)

Solution

Option (3) is the correct answer as chitin forms the exoskeleton is arthropods and is found in fungal cell wall. N-acetyl glucosamine is the monomeric unit. Cellulose is a polysaccharide. Cutin is a derived lipid.

Q.96

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

Reason (R) : Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(A)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(D)

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(A)

Solution

Option (a) is the correct answer because all chordates are divided into three subphyla - Urochordata, Cephalochordata and Vertebrata. In subphylum Vertebrata, notochord is replaced by bony or cartilaginous vertebral column in adults. Therefore, all vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

Q.97

Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ____________ ml of O₂ to the tissues.

(A)

2 ml

(B)

5 ml

(C)

4 ml

(D)

10 ml

(B)

Solution

Option (b) is the correct answer because every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O₂ to the tissues under normal physiological conditions.

Option (c), (d) and (a) are incorrect because every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO₂ to the alveoli.

Q.98

Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?

(A)

It clears inhaled air from foreign particles

(B)

Inhaled air is humidified

(C)

Temperature of inhaled air is brought to body temperature

(D)

Provides surface for diffusion of O₂ and CO₂

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is correct because the part starting with the external nostrils upto the terminal bronchioles constitute the conducting part; whereas the alveoli and their ducts form the respiratory or exchange part of the respiratory system.

The conducting part transports the atmospheric air to the alveoli, clears it from foreign particles, humidifies and also bring the air to body temperature. Exchange part is the site of actual diffusion of O₂/CO₂ between blood and atmospheric air.

Q.99

Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to

(A)

Stabilising change

(B)

Directional change

(C)

Disruptive change

(D)

Random change

(B)

Solution

Option (b) is correct because in directional natural selection more individuals acquire value other than the mean character value.

Option (c) is incorrect because in disruptive change, more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both ends of the distribution curve.

Option (d) is incorrect because there is no random change in natural selection.

Option (a) is incorrect because natural selection leads to stabilisation when more individuals acquire mean character value.

Q.100

Which of the following statements is not true?

(A)

Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution

(B)

Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy

(C)

Homology indicates common ancestry

(D)

Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs

(D)

Solution

Option (d) is the correct answer because flippers of penguins and dolphins are analogous organs as they help in swimming but do not have the same structure.

Option (c), (a) and (b) are true statements and hence cannot be the correct answer.

Homologous organs have the same structure but have different functions according to the needs of the organisms. Hence, homology indicates common ancestry.

Analogous structures have developed for the same function but do not show a similarity in structure. Hence, they are a result of convergent evolution.

Sweet potato is a root modification for food storage whereas potato is an underground stem modification for storage. Hence they are analogous.

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