NEET-UG 2026

NEET 2026

Physics (Maximum Marks: 180)
  • This section contains 45 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1

The speed of light in vacuum is taken as unity. If light takes 6 min 40 s to reach the Earth from the Sun, the distance between the Sun and the Earth in new unit is:

(A)

(B)

500

(C)

(D)

400

(D)

Solution

Time,

Distance in new system

Q.2

Each side of a metallic cube of mass 5.580 kg is measured to the 9.0 cm . Keeping the significant figures in view, the density of the material of the cube can be best expressed as where the value of is:

(A)

7.654

(B)

7.6

(C)

7.65

(D)

7.7

(D)

Solution

The side of the cube is

The volume of the cube is

Density is

Now we apply significant figures.

Mass has significant figures.

Side has significant figures.

Since density involves multiplication/division, the final answer should have the least number of significant figures, which is .

So,

Hence,

Correct option: D.

Q.3

In a vernier calliper, 20 VSD coincide with 16 MSD (each division of length 1 mm ). The least count of the vernier callipers is:

(A)

0.2 cm

(B)

0.01 cm

(C)

0.02 cm

(D)

0.1 cm

(C)

Solution

Least count of a vernier calliper

The least count (L.C.) is the smallest measurement a vernier calliper can read. It is given by:

It is given that 20 vernier scale divisions (VSD) coincide with 16 main scale divisions (MSD). Each MSD is 1 mm long.

So,

Dividing both sides by 20, we get

Substitute this value in equation (i):

Simplifying,

Since 1 MSD = 1 mm,

In centimetre, the least count is:

Q.4

The following plots show variation of velocity with time of a ball thrown vertically upward, and falling back. Which of the following plots is/are correct?

NEET 2026 Physics - Motion in a Straight Line Question 2 English
(A)

C only

(B)

D only

(C)

B only

(D)

A and E only

(A)

Solution

During the whole journey, acceleration due to gravity is vertically downward. Therefore, slope of velocity vs time curve should be negative throughout the journey.NEET 2026 Physics - Motion in a Straight Line Question 2 English Explanation

∴ Statement (C) is correct

Q.5

When a ruler falls vertically, 5 different persons catch it with different reaction times. ( )

A. Person A has reaction time of 0.20 s .

B. Person has reaction time of 0.22 s .

C. Person C has reaction time of 0.18 s .

D. Person D has reaction time of 0.19 s .

E. Person E has reaction time of 0.21 s .

What is the correct order of the distance travelled by the ruler for each person?

(A)

B E A C D

(B)

C D A B E

(C)

B E A D C

(D)

C D A E B

(C)

Solution

→ There will be large distance for large reaction time

→ Descending order of reaction time

→ Descending order of distance covered

Q.6

A box of mass 15 kg is kept on the floor of a stationary trolley. The coefficient of static friction between the box and the trolley is 0.12 . Keeping the box in stationary state over the trolley, the maximum acceleration with which the trolley can be moved horizontally in is:

(A)

2.1

(B)

1.8

(C)

1.5

(D)

1.2

(D)

Solution

NEET 2026 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 2 English Explanation

Q.7

The magnitude and direction of the acceleration produced in a body of mass 5 kg when two mutually perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N act on it, are respectively:

(A)

with 8 N force

(B)

with 6 N force

(C)

with 8 N force

(D)

with 8 N force

(D)

Solution

NEET 2026 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 3 English Explanation

Q.8

The power of a crane, which lifts a mass of 1000 kg to a height of 20 m in 10 s is:

(A)

19.6 W

(B)

39.2 W

(C)

19.6 kW

(D)

39.2 kW

(C)

Solution

Q.9

The angular speed of a flywheel is increased from 600 rpm to 1200 rpm in 10 s . The number of revolutions completed by the flywheel during this time is:

(A)

900

(B)

600

(C)

150

(D)

300

(C)

Solution

Q.10

A thin wire of length ' ' and linear mass density ' ' is bent into a circular ring (in plane) with centre ' ' as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the ring about an axis will be:

NEET 2026 Physics - Rotational Motion Question 3 English

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(B)

Solution

Mass of thin wire Linear mass density Length

, where radius of circular ring

Using parallel axis theorem,

Q.11

The amount of work done to raise a mass ' ' from the surface of the Earth to a height equal to the radius of the Earth ' ' will be

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(D)

Solution

W.D.

Q.12

A. Young's Modulus I.
B. Compressibility II.
C. Bulk Modulus III.
D. Poisson's Ratio IV.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(B)

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(C)

A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

(D)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(D)

Solution

A. Young's Modulus

B. Compressibility

C. Bulk Modulus

D. Poisson's Ratio

Q.13

A submarine is designed to withstand an absolute pressure of 100 atm . How deep can it go below the water surface?

(Consider the density of water , and gravitational acceleration )

(A)

990 m

(B)

9900 m

(C)

99 m

(D)

9000 m

(A)

Solution

Q.14

A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio of by mass. The temperature of the mixture is . The ratio of root mean square speed of the molecules of the two gases is:

(Atomic mass of argon and molecular mass of chlorine )

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(A)

Solution

For same temperature,

Q.15

An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100 W . If the system performs work at a rate of , then the rate at which internal energy increases will be:

(A)

75 W

(B)

100 W

(C)

125 W

(D)

25 W

(D)

Solution

Using law of thermodynamics for electric heater,

Q.16

For a simple pendulum, having time period , the variation of kinetic energy (K.E.) with time is represented by:

(A)

NEET 2026 Physics - Oscillations Question 3 English Option 1

(B)

NEET 2026 Physics - Oscillations Question 3 English Option 2

(C)

NEET 2026 Physics - Oscillations Question 3 English Option 3

(D)

NEET 2026 Physics - Oscillations Question 3 English Option 4

(C)

Solution

Q.17

The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple pendulum bob is 0.02 joule. The speed of the simple pendulum bob at equilibrium position is approximately:

(Consider mass of the bob )

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(B)

Solution

At equilibrium position

Total energy = K.E

Q.18

Savitha, a XI standard student, while conducting an experiment to determine the effective length of a simple pendulum , notes down the data of time taken to complete 30 oscillations as 60 s and hence calculates the length of the simple pendulum as: (Take , and )

(A)

0.75 m

(B)

1.5 m

(C)

2 m

(D)

1 m

(D)

Solution

Time taken for 30 oscillations

Time period of simple pendulum = Time taken for 1 oscillation

Q.19

For a travelling harmonic wave

, where and are in cm and in . The phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance of 0.5 m is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(B)

Solution

Total phase

Q.20

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Inside a conductor, the electrostatic field is zero.

B. Electric field at the surface of a charged conductor does not depend on its surface charge density.

C. The interior of a charged conductor can have no excess charge in the static situation.

D. At the surface of a charged conductor, the electrostatic field must be normal to the surface at every point.

E. The electrostatic potential is zero everywhere inside a charged conductor.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

A, B and D only

(B)

A, C and E only

(C)

A, C and D only

(D)

C, D and E only

(C)

Solution

A. Electrostatic field is zero inside a conductor.

B. Electric field at the surface of a charged conductor , depends on surface charge density ( ).

C. The interior of a charged conductor cannot have any excess charge in the static situation.

D. At the surface of a charged conductor, the electrostatic field ⟂ surface.

E. The electrostatic potential is constant and can be non-zero everywhere inside a charged conductor.

Q.21

A resistor is connected to a battery of 12 V emf and internal resistance . If the current in the circuit is 0.6 A , the terminal voltage of the battery is:

(A)

10 V

(B)

1.2 V

(C)

12 V

(D)

10.8 V

(D)

Solution

Sol. Circuit can be draw as,NEET 2026 Physics - Current Electricity Question 4 English Explanation

⇒ Terminal voltage of battery - ir

Q.22

A uniform metallic wire having resistance is bent to form a square loop (ABCD) (see figure). A resistance of is connected between points and and a battery of 2 V is connected across points and as shown in the figure. Now the value of current is :

NEET 2026 Physics - Current Electricity Question 2 English
(A)

2 A

(B)

8 A

(C)

4.5 A

(D)

4 A

(A)

Solution

→ Each side will have resistance of

→ It is balanced wheat stone bridge

→ No current in the resistance of

NEET 2026 Physics - Current Electricity Question 2 English Explanation

Q.23
A room heater is rated . If the supply voltage drops to 200 V , what will be the power consumed (approximately)?
(A)
200 W
(B)
400 W
(C)
331 W
(D)
121 W
(C)

Solution

Given:

  • Rated power

  • Rated voltage

  • New voltage

Using the relation

First, find the resistance of the heater:

Now find the new power at :

So, approximately,

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Q.24

A galvanometer of resistance gives full scale deflection for a current of 1 mA . It is converted into an ammeter of range . The shunt required is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(A)

Solution

NEET 2026 Physics - Current Electricity Question 3 English Explanation

Both shunt resistance and galvanometer are in parallel connection

Q.25

In a metre bridge experiment (see figure), the positions of the cell, , and galvanometer, , are interchanged. We shall observe in the galvanometer:

NEET 2026 Physics - Current Electricity Question 5 English
(A)

Only the left-sided deflection

(B)

There will be no deflection irrespective of the position of the jockey

(C)

Only the right-sided deflection

(D)

Both right-sided and left-sided deflection and at balance point, no deflection

(D)

Solution

  • Position of null point will not change when galvanometer ( ) and the cell ( ) are interchanged.

  • There will be no deflection in galvanometer only at balance point.

In an unbalanced meter bridge, if and are interchanged mutually, then the deflection in galvanometer may be towards left-side or right-side.

Q.26

Five capacitors of capacitances

and are connected as shown, along with a battery of 50 V .NEET 2026 Physics - Capacitor Question 2 English

The equivalent capacitance and the charges on each capacitor respectively are:

(A)

on to and on

(B)

on all capacitors

(C)

on all capacitors

(D)

on to and on

(B)

Solution

NEET 2026 Physics - Capacitor Question 2 English Explanation

Q.27

Consider two uncharged capacitors of equal capacitance 200 pF . One of them is charged by a 100 V supply and disconnected. Now this capacitor is connected to the uncharged capacitor. The amount of electrostatic energy lost in the process is:

(A)

(B)

1.0 J

(C)

(D)

0.5 J

(A)

Solution

Energy loss

Q.28

A 100-turn closely wound circular coil of radius 5 cm has a magnetic field of at its centre. The current flowing through the coil, and the magnitude of the magnetic moment of this coil are, respectively :

(Take )

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(D)

Solution

Magnetic field of a circular loop:

Magnetic moment

Q.29

The figure given below shows a long straight solid wire of circular cross-section of radius ' ' carrying steady current . The current is uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The plot which correctly represents the variation of magnetic field with distance from the axis of the conductor in the region is :

NEET 2026 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 3 English

(A)

NEET 2026 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 3 English Option 1

(B)

NEET 2026 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 3 English Option 2

(C)

NEET 2026 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 3 English Option 3

(D)

NEET 2026 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 3 English Option 4

(A)

Solution

For a long straight solid wire carrying steady current, which is uniformly distributed across its crosssection, the variation of magnetic field with distance from axis will be

Q.30

A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 3 cm with a small cut, is moving out of a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the plane of the loop. The emf developed across the cut, if the velocity of the loop is , in a direction normal to the shorter side of the loop, will be :

(A)

volt

(B)

volt

(C)

volt

(D)

volt

(D)

Solution

Induced emf across the shorter side

Q.31

An ac circuit contains a resistance of , a capacitor of and an inductor of 1 mH connected in series. The resonance frequency of the circuit is approximately:

(A)

13.5 kHz

(B)

10.1 kHz

(C)

20.7 kHz

(D)

15.9 kHz

(D)

Solution

Resonance frequency

Q.32

The peak value of an alternating current is 5 A and frequency is 60 Hz . How long will the current, starting from zero, take to reach the peak value?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(D)

Solution

Alternating current,

where

Q.33

List-I
(Electromagnetic wave)
List-II
(Production)
A. Microwave I. Electrons in atoms emit light when they move from a higher energy level to a lower energy level
B. Visible light II. Radioactive decay of nucleus
C. Gamma rays III. Vibration of atoms and molecules
D. Infra-red rays IV. Klystron valve or magnetron valve
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(B)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(C)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(D)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(C)

Solution

List-I
(Electromagnetic wave)
List-II
(Production)
(A-IV) Microwave Klystron valve or magnetron valve
(B-I) Visible light Electrons in atoms emit light when they move from a higher energy level to a lower energy level
(C-II) Gamma rays Radioactive decay of nucleus
(D-III) Infra-red rays Vibration of atoms and molecules
Q.34

A ray of monochromatic light is passing through an equilateral prism as shown in the figure. The refracted ray is parallel to its base and the angle of incidence is . Then the angle of deviation is:

NEET 2026 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 4 English

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(C)

Solution

NEET 2026 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 4 English Explanation

Q.35

In a concave lens, a ray of light emanating from the object parallel to the principal axis of the lens after refraction:

(A)

passes through , which is the radius of curvature of the lens.

(B)

appears to diverge from the first principal focus.

(C)

emerges parallel to the principal axis.

(D)

passes through the second principal focus.

(B)

Solution

NEET 2026 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 5 English Explanation 1

NEET 2026 Physics - Geometrical Optics Question 5 English Explanation 2 is the first principal focus ⇒ It is the virtual object position for which image is formed at infinity. The best appropriate answer is option (2), although it should be second principal focus.

Q.36

In Young's double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength , the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is , is units. The intensity of light at a point where the path difference is will be

(A)

(B)

K

(C)

(D)

(A)

Solution

maximum intensity

Q.37

In interference and diffraction, the light energy is redistributed. If it reduces in one region, producing a dark fringe, it increases in another region, producing a bright fringe.

A. As there is no gain or loss of energy, these phenomena are consistent with the principle of conservation of energy.

B. Diffraction and interference are characteristics exhibited only by light waves.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

is true and is also true

(B)

is false, but is true

(C)

is true, but is false

(D)

Both A and B are false

(C)

Solution

In interference and diffraction there is no loss of energy, the energy gets redistributed. Interference and diffraction both are exhibited in light as well as sound waves.

Q.38

In the first excited state of hydrogen atom, the energy of its electron is -3.4 eV . The radial distance of the electron from the hydrogen nucleus in this case is approximately:

(Take and )

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(C)

Solution

Q.39

Four statements are given ( is mass number):

A. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to .

B. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to .

C. The difference in mass of an atom and its nucleus is called the mass defect.

D. The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called the mass defect.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

A and C are true, but B and D are false

(B)

B and C are true, but A and D are false

(C)

A and D are true, but B and C are false

(D)

B and D are true, but A and C are false

(D)

Solution

As we know,

Size of nucleus,

So, option wrong and correct while the difference between the actual mass of nucleus and its constituents is called the mass defect.

∴ option wrong and correct

Q.40

An unknown nucleus has a nuclear density of and mass of . Its mass number is approximately:

(Take )

(A)

12

(B)

20

(C)

16

(D)

19

(A)

Solution

Given

, mass

and

Now use volume

Q.41



A. I. de Broglie wavelength
B. Diffraction and Interference II. Particle nature of light
C. III. Wave nature of light
D. Compton effect IV. Energy of photon
(A)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(B)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(C)

A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

(D)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(D)

Solution

A. is energy of photon

B. Diffraction and interference confirm wave nature of light

C. is de Broglie wavelength of particle.

D. Compton effect confirms particle nature of light.

Q.42

For a metal of work function 6.6 eV , which of the following wavelengths of incident radiation does not give rise to the photoelectric effect?

(Take Planck's constant as )

(A)

100 nm

(B)

150 nm

(C)

200 nm

(D)

50 nm

(C)

Solution

For incident radiation having wavelength ( ), photoelectric effect doesn't occur when work-function

∴ Option (3) 200 nm is correct.

Q.43

The current / in the circuit shown below is: (All diodes are ideal and identical)

NEET 2026 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 5 English

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(D)

Solution

For ideal diode, forward resistance and reverse biased resistance

Circuit can be redrawn as,

NEET 2026 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 5 English Explanation

Q.44

NEET 2026 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 4 English

(A)

NEET 2026 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 4 English Option 1

(B)

NEET 2026 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 4 English Option 2

(C)

NEET 2026 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 4 English Option 3

(D)

NEET 2026 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 4 English Option 4

(D)

Solution

Voltage drop will be across the diode, when it will be in reverse bias 1

NEET 2026 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 4 English Explanation 1

In positive half cycle it will be in reverse biased

NEET 2026 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 4 English Explanation 2

Q.45

Two statements are given below:

A. When the forward bias voltage across a p-n junction diode increases above a certain threshold voltage, the diode current increases significantly.

B. This current is called reverse saturation current.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)

Both Statements A and B are true

(B)

Statement A is true, but Statement B is false

(C)

Both Statements and are false

(D)

Statement A is false, but Statement B is true

(B)

Solution

NEET 2026 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 3 English Explanation

characteristics of a forward-biased junction diode

When forward bias voltage increases beyond threshold voltage, diode current increases significantly. This is not reverse saturation current.

Chemistry (Maximum Marks: 180)
  • This section contains 45 questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
  • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1

The number of hydrogen atoms present in 5.4 g of urea is:

(Given: Molar mass of urea :

particles )

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(D)

Solution

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Question 3 English Explanation

Q.2

When of CO2 gas is passed over hot coke the volume of gaseous mixture after complete reaction at STP becomes . The composition of the gaseous mixture at STP is :

(A)

of of

(B)

of of

(C)

of of

(D)

of of

(B)

Solution

The reaction of carbon dioxide with hot coke is:

At the same temperature and pressure, volumes of gases are in the same ratio as the number of moles.

Let of react.

Then according to the equation:

  • of is consumed

  • of is formed

Initially, volume of

So after reaction:

  • Unreacted

  • Formed

Total final volume is given as

So,

Now,

\text{Volume of CO_2} = 1 - x = 0.6 \,\mathrm{dm^3}

Hence, the gaseous mixture contains:

So the correct option is Option B.

Q.3

List I
(Quantum Numbers)
List II (Orbital)
'n' 'I'
A. 2 1 I. 3d
B. 4 0 II. 2p
C. 5 3 III. 4s
D. 3 2 IV. 5f
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

(B)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(C)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(D)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(C)

Solution

  1. Principal Quantum Number (): This number tells us the principal energy shell. In the notation of an orbital (like 3d or 4s), the number at the beginning is the value of .

  2. Azimuthal Quantum Number (): This number defines the subshell and the shape of the orbital. We use specific letters to denote the value of :

    • If , the subshell is 's'.

    • If , the subshell is 'p'.

    • If , the subshell is 'd'.

    • If , the subshell is 'f'.

The designation for an orbital is given by writing the value of followed by the letter for the subshell (determined by ).

Now, let's look at each item from List I.

A. For and :

  • The principal quantum number is 2.

  • The azimuthal quantum number is 1, which corresponds to the 'p' subshell.

  • Therefore, the orbital is designated as 2p.

  • This matches with II in List II.

B. For and :

  • The principal quantum number is 4.

  • The azimuthal quantum number is 0, which corresponds to the 's' subshell.

  • Therefore, the orbital is designated as 4s.

  • This matches with III in List II.

C. For and :

  • The principal quantum number is 5.

  • The azimuthal quantum number is 3, which corresponds to the 'f' subshell.

  • Therefore, the orbital is designated as 5f.

  • This matches with IV in List II.

D. For and :

  • The principal quantum number is 3.

  • The azimuthal quantum number is 2, which corresponds to the 'd' subshell.

  • Therefore, the orbital is designated as 3d.

  • This matches with I in List II.

So, the correct matches are:

  • A → II

  • B → III

  • C → IV

  • D → I

Looking at the options, we can see that this combination corresponds to Option C.

The correct answer is Option C: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.

Q.4

A bulb is rated at 150 watt, converting energy into light. If energy of one photon is , how many photons are emitted by the bulb per second?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(A)

Solution

Energy = Power × Time

Only of this energy is converted into light energy.

We know that total light energy is equal to the number of photons multiplied by the energy of one photon.

Energy of one photon =

Hence, the bulb emits approximately photons per second.

Q.5
Given below are certain reactions. Identify the reaction for which .
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(B)

Solution

Q.6

In a qualitative analysis, is detected by appearance of precipitate of . Calculate pH when the following equilibrium exists at 298 K .

(Given : )

(A)

8.714

(B)

4.699

(C)

5.286

(D)

9.301

(D)

Solution

Q.7

At 298 K , a certain buffer solution contains equal concentrations of and for is . What is the pH of this buffer solution?

(A)

2

(B)

4

(C)

6

(D)

10

(B)

Solution

Given that :

Q.8

Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator for the titration of sodium hydroxide solution against a standard solution of oxalic acid. The colour change that is observed at an alkaline pH close to the equivalence point during this titration is:

(A)

pinkish red to yellow

(B)

yellow to pinkish red

(C)

pink to colourless

(D)

colourless to pink

(D)

Solution

Colour of Phenolphthalein before the end point = colourless.

Colour of Phenolphthalein close to equivalence point = Pink.

∴ Colour change Colourless to pink.

Q.9

Identify the correct statements :

(A) The molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid (Molar mass : ) in 75 g of benzene solution is 0.556 m .

(B) The molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH (molar mass : ) in 450 mL of solution is 0.278 M at 298 K .

(C) Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water.

(D) The solubility of gas increases with decrease in pressure.

(E) For a binary mixture of and , the number of moles of and are and respectively. The mole fraction of will be .

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

A, B and C only

(B)

A and B only

(C)

A and C only

(D)

A, D and E only

(A)

Solution

(A) To calculate molality, we use the formula:

Moles of ethanoic acid and mass of benzene .

So,

Therefore, statement (A) is correct.

(B) To calculate molarity, we use the formula:

Moles of NaOH and volume .

So,

Hence, statement (B) is also correct.

(C) Aquatic animals find cold water more suitable because the solubility of gases increases when temperature decreases. From Henry’s law:

This means higher temperature reduces gas solubility. So, statement (C) is correct.

(D) According to Henry’s law, the relationship between pressure and solubility is given by:

Here, , i.e., solubility increases with an increase in pressure. So, the statement “solubility decreases with pressure” is incorrect.

(E) The mole fraction of component B in a binary mixture is given by:

The given statement uses in the numerator, which is wrong. Hence, (E) is incorrect.

Q.10

Mixture of chloroform and acetone forms a solution with negative deviation from Raoult's law due to :

(A)

Increase in escaping tendency of molecules of each component.

(B)

Formation of hydrogen bonding between acetone and chloroform

(C)

Stronger intermolecular forces between chloroform molecules than those between chloroform and acetone molecules.

(D)

Repulsive forces.

(B)

Solution

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Solutions Question 3 English Explanation

Acetone and chloroform show negative deviation from Raoult's law due to stronger H-bonding between acetone and chloroform mixture.

Hence, escaping tendency decreases

∴ Vapour pressure decreases

∴ Boiling point increases.

Q.11

Consider the following reaction :

Identify the correct option with for the reaction and spontaneity of the reaction at 298 K .

(Given : )

(A)

, spontaneous

(B)

, spontaneous

(C)

, non-spontaneous

(D)

, non-spontaneous

(C)

Solution

Since comes out to be positive, so given process is non-spontaneous.

Q.12

At a certain temperature, , during a process, 500 J is absorbed by the system and work of 200 J is done by the system. Then change in internal energy of the system is :

(A)

400 J

(B)

300 J

(C)

700 J

(D)

500 J

(B)

Solution

From first law of thermodynamics

Q.13

A solution of copper sulphate is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes. The mass of copper deposited at cathode is :

(Given : Molar mass of ;

(A)

1.7018 g

(B)

0.2938 g

(C)

2.4036 g

(D)

0.5876 g

(B)

Solution

When copper sulphate () is dissolved in water, it splits into ions as follows:

During electrolysis, copper ions move towards the cathode (negative electrode) where they gain electrons and get deposited as solid copper metal:

According to Faraday’s laws of electrolysis, the mass of a substance deposited is directly proportional to the quantity of charge passed. The mathematical form is:

where,

= mass of substance deposited, = electrochemical equivalent (equal to molar mass / number of electrons involved), = current in amperes, = time in seconds, and = 1 Faraday.

For copper, one atom needs 2 electrons, so .

Now substituting the given values: ,

Simplifying,

Hence, the mass of copper deposited on the cathode is .

Q.14

Calculate emf of the half cell given below :

(Given: )

(A)

-0.109 V

(B)

0.035 V

(C)

-0.035 V

(D)

0.109 V

(D)

Solution

Q.15

List-I
(Order of reaction)
List-II
(Unit of rate constant)
A. Zero order I.
B. First order II.
C. Second order III.
D. Third order IV.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)

A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

(B)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(C)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(D)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(B)

Solution

Unit for rate constant of order reaction

For zero order reaction ; unit

For first order reaction ; unit

For second order reaction ; unit

For third order reaction ; unit

Q.16

For a certain reaction Product, the plot of concentration vs time has a negative slope as shown. The order of reaction is :

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Chemical Kinetics Question 3 English
(A)

0

(B)

1

(C)

2

(D)

2.5

(A)

Solution

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Chemical Kinetics Question 3 English Explanation

For zero order

So -ve slope shows zero order reaction

Q.17

Given below is an expression for the rate constant of a first-order reaction occurring at a certain temperature, .

The energy of activation in for the reaction is :

(Given: )

(A)

24.84

(B)

14.34

(C)

18.63

(D)

12.42

(A)

Solution

Q.18

The correct order of increasing metallic character of and Si is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(A)

Solution

On moving left to right in a period, metallic character decreases and on moving top to bottom in a group, metallic character increases. So, the correct order of increasing metallic character is

Q.19

Identify the incorrect statement from the following :

(A)

The largest and the smallest species among and are Al and respectively.

(B)

The IUPAC name of the element with atomic number 107 is Unnilseptium.

(C)

The similarity in behaviour of Li with Mg is referred to as 'diagonal relationship'

(D)

The oxidation state and covalency of Al in are 3 and 6, respectively.

(A)

Solution

The largest species is Mg and the smallest one is among and .

Unnilseptium element has atomic number 107

and Mg are diagonally related and have similar properties.

The oxidation state and covalency of Al in are +3 and 6 respectively

∴ Statement A is incorrect

Q.20

List-I
List-II
A. I. bonds, bonds
B. II. bonds, one lone pair
C. III. bonds
D. IV. bonds, bond
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(B)

A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(C)

A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(D)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(B)

Solution

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 3 English Explanation 1

Number of bonds

Number of bond

Number of -bonds

Number of -bonds

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 3 English Explanation 2

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 3 English Explanation 3

Number of -bonds

Number of lone pair = one A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Q.21

Identify the correct statement about from the following options :

(A)

It has T-shaped geometry with two lone pairs on Cl atom.

(B)

It has T-shaped geometry with three lone pairs on Cl atom.

(C)

It has a trigonal pyramidal geometry with two lone pairs on Cl atom.

(D)

It has a planar trigonal geometry with two lone pairs on Cl atom.

(A)

Solution

has two lone pairs of electrons on Cl atom with bent T -shape structure (geometry)

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 5 English Explanation

Q.22

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 4 English
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(B)

Solution

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 4 English Explanation 1 NEET 2026 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 4 English Explanation 2

Formal charge on oxygen atom

Formal charge on oxygen atom

Formal charge on oxygen atom

Q.23

Methane reacts with steam at 1273 K in the presence of nickel catalyst to form :

(A)

CO and

(B)

and

(C)

and

(D)

and

(C)

Solution

(Used for industrial preparation of dihydrogen gas)

Q.24

Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

(A)

Nitrogen can form multiple bonds with itself.

(B)

and form bond with transition metals.

(C)

Phosphorus, arsenic and antimony show catenation property.

(D)

Nitrogen can form bond with oxygen.

(D)

Solution

  • Both nitrogen and oxygen do not contain d-orbitals so it cannot form bond.

  • Phosphorus and Arsenic can form bond with transition metals. Since both have vacant d -orbitals by which it can interact with transition metals and can involve in interaction.

  • Phosphorous, Arsenic and Antimony show catenation property.

Q.25

Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

(A)

Carbon has the ability to form multiple bond with itself.

(B)

and Al is a monomer when and a dimer when .

(C)

The order of catenation property of Group 14 elements is .

(D)

Oxygen exhibits only -2 oxidation state.

(D)

Solution

(1) can form multiple bond with itself.

It is observed when it forms and

(2) and Al

does not form dimer.

can form dimer in .

(3) Catenation property of group .

(4) Oxygen exhibits oxidation state of 0 in in oxides, -1 in peroxides. So this statement is incorrect.

Q.26

List I
(Transition metal/compound/ complex)
List II
(Catalytic Role)
A. I. Preparation of ammonia from mixture
B. Fe II. Polymerisation of alkynes
C. III. Preparation of and
D. Ni complex IV. Oxidation of ethyne to ethanal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(B)

A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(C)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(D)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(D)

Solution

(A) Catalyses the oxidation of into in the manufacture of . (III)

(B) Act as catalysts in preparation of ammonia from mixture. (I)

(C) Oxidation of ethyne to ethanal. (IV)

(D) Ni complex → Polymerisation of alkynes. (II)

Q.27

Although +3 oxidation state is most common in lanthanoids, cerium still shows +4 oxidation state because:

(A)

After losing one more electron, it acquires electronic configuration.

(B)

Its nearest inert gas is Radon.

(C)

Its atomic number is 61 .

(D)

After losing one more electron, it acquires electronic configuration.

(D)

Solution

Although +3 oxidation state is most common in lanthanoids, cerium still shows +4 oxidation state because after losing one more electron it acquires electronic configuration.

Q.28

The calculated 'spin-only' magnetic moment is :

(A)

5.92 BM

(B)

3.87 BM

(C)

2.84 BM

(D)

4.90 BM

(C)

Solution

The formula for the spin-only magnetic moment is given by:

Here, = number of unpaired electrons.

For , the electronic configuration is:

In the configuration, there are 2 unpaired electrons, so .

Substituting in the formula:

Therefore, the spin-only magnetic moment of is .

Q.29

List-I
(Complex)
List-II
(Type of isomerism)
A. I. Optical
B. II. Solvate
C. III. Geometrical
D. IV. Linkage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(B)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(C)

A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(D)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(D)

Solution

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Coordination Compounds Question 7 English ExplanationC. and are linkage isomers

D. and are solvate isomers

Q.30

Which one of the following is an ambidentate ligand?

(A)

Ethane-1,2-diamine

(B)

Ethylenediaminetetraacetate ion

(C)

Thiocyanate

(D)

Oxalate

(C)

Solution

An ambidentate ligand is a ligand which has two different donor atoms and either of the two ligates in complex.

(1) Ethane-1,2-diamine → didentate

(2) Ethylenediamine tetraacetate ion → hexadentate

(3) Thiocyanate Ambidentate ligand.

(4) Oxalate → didentate

Q.31

List I
(Complex/ion)
List II
(Shape/geometry)
A.
I. Octahedral
B. II. Trigonal bipyramidal
C. III. Square planar
D. IV. Tetrahedral
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(B)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(C)

A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(D)

A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(B)

Solution

A.

The formula is most likely intended to be , which has two chloride ligands and two ammonia ligands.

  1. Find the oxidation state of Platinum (Pt):

    Let the oxidation state of Pt be . The charge on each chloride ligand () is -1, and ammonia () is a neutral ligand (charge 0). The overall complex is neutral.

    So, we have Platinum in the +2 oxidation state, which is .

  2. Determine the electronic configuration:

    The atomic number of Pt is 78. Its ground-state electronic configuration is .

    For , we remove two electrons (one from and one from ).

    The electronic configuration of is .

  3. Determine the hybridization and shape:

    The coordination number is 4. For a configuration, particularly for metals in the 4d and 5d series like Pt, the ligands always cause the electrons to pair up, leaving one -orbital empty. This leads to hybridization.

    The orbital diagram for in the complex will be:

    The empty , , and two orbitals hybridize to form four hybrid orbitals.

    The geometry corresponding to hybridization is Square planar.

    Therefore, A matches with III.

B.

The complex ion here is .

  1. Find the oxidation state of Cobalt (Co):

    Let the oxidation state of Co be . Ammonia () is a neutral ligand. The overall charge on the complex ion is +3.

    So, we have Cobalt in the +3 oxidation state, which is .

  2. Determine the electronic configuration:

    The atomic number of Co is 27. Its ground-state electronic configuration is .

    For , we remove three electrons (two from and one from ).

    The electronic configuration of is .

  3. Determine the hybridization and shape:

    The coordination number is 6. The ligand is , which is a strong-field ligand. It will cause the pairing of the electrons.

    The electrons in the orbitals of will rearrange from to .

    This leaves two orbitals vacant.

    Hybridization involves two , one , and three orbitals, leading to hybridization. This is an inner orbital complex.

    The geometry corresponding to hybridization is Octahedral.

    Therefore, B matches with I.

C.

  1. Find the oxidation state of Nickel (Ni):

    Let the oxidation state of Ni be . The charge on each chloride ligand () is -1. The overall charge on the complex ion is -2.

    So, we have Nickel in the +2 oxidation state, which is .

  2. Determine the electronic configuration:

    The atomic number of Ni is 28. Its ground-state electronic configuration is .

    For , we remove two electrons from the orbital.

    The electronic configuration of is .

  3. Determine the hybridization and shape:

    The coordination number is 4. The ligand is a weak-field ligand. It does not cause the pairing of electrons.

    The orbital diagram for is:

    Since no inner -orbitals are empty, the hybridization will involve the outer orbitals: one and three orbitals. This gives hybridization.

    The geometry corresponding to hybridization is Tetrahedral.

    Therefore, C matches with IV.

D.

  1. Find the oxidation state of Iron (Fe):

    The ligand is carbonyl (), which is a neutral ligand. The overall complex is neutral.

    Therefore, the oxidation state of Fe is 0.

  2. Determine the electronic configuration:

    The atomic number of Fe is 26. Its ground-state electronic configuration is . It has 8 valence electrons.

  3. Determine the hybridization and shape:

    The coordination number is 5. The ligand is a strong-field ligand. It causes the pairing of all valence electrons (from both and ) into the orbitals.

    The 8 valence electrons will pair up in the orbitals, resulting in a configuration within the complex.

    For bonding with five ligands, one empty , one , and three orbitals are used for hybridization. This gives hybridization.

    The geometry corresponding to hybridization is Trigonal bipyramidal.

    Therefore, D matches with II.

Conclusion:

Let's summarise our findings:

  • A. is Square planar (III).

  • B. is Octahedral (I).

  • C. is Tetrahedral (IV).

  • D. is Trigonal bipyramidal (II).

Matching these results with the given options, we get:

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.

This corresponds to Option B.

The correct answer is Option B.

Q.32

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 2 English
(A)

3-ethyl-5-methylheptane

(B)

2,4-diethylhexane

(C)

3-methyl-5-ethylheptane

(D)

3,5-diethylhexane

(A)

Solution

NEET 2026 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 2 English Explanation

IUPAC name : 3-ethyl-5-methylheptane

  • Numbering of parent chain should follow lowest locant rule.

  • Prefixes should be written in alphabetical order.

  • Q.33

    During Lassaigne's test, the elements present in an organic compound are converted from :

    (A)

    Ionic form to ionic form

    (B)

    Covalent form to ionic form

    (C)

    Covalent form to covalent form

    (D)

    Ionic form to covalent form

    (B)

    Solution

    In Lassaigne's test, the elements present in an organic compound are converted from covalent form to ionic form.

    So, the correct answer is:

    Option B: Covalent form to ionic form

    Reason:

    In organic compounds, elements like nitrogen, sulphur, and halogens are usually present in the covalent state. Since covalent compounds do not give the usual ionic reactions directly, the compound is fused with sodium. This converts these elements into ionic sodium salts, such as:

    These ionic forms can then be easily tested.

    Therefore, the answer is:

    Q.34

    The number of chlorine atoms present in the organic products and of the following reactions, respectively, are :

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 4 English

    (A)

    3 and 3

    (B)

    6 and 3

    (C)

    6 and 6

    (D)

    3 and 6

    (C)

    Solution

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 4 English Explanation

    Q.35

    The pair of molecules that are metamers among the following is :

    (A)

    and

    (B)

    and

    (C)

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 3 English Option 3

    (D)

    (D)

    Solution

    Metamerism arises due to different alkyl chains on either side of the functional group in the molecule pair of molecules and are metamers of each other.

    Q.36

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 2 English
    (A)

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 2 English Option 1

    (B)

    (C)

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 2 English Option 3

    (D)

    (B)

    Solution

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 2 English Explanation

    Q.37

    The functional group that can be identified through phthalein dye test is :

    (A)

    Aldehyde

    (B)

    Phenolic

    (C)

    Carboxylic acid

    (D)

    Alcohol

    (B)

    Solution

    Phthalein Dye test: Phenol on heating with phthalic anhydride in presence of concentrated sulphuric acid forms a colourless condensation compound called phenolphthalein. On further reaction with NaOH it gives pink colour.

    So phenolic group is correct answer.

    Q.38

    Compound gives a red orange precipitate with 2,4-DNP reagent and it does not reduce Fehling's reagent. On drastic oxidation with chromic acid, gives an aromatic product that produces effervescence on treating with aq. . Compounds P and Q , respectively, are :

    (A)

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 4 English Option 1

    (B)

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 4 English Option 2

    (C)

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 4 English Option 3

    (D)

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 4 English Option 4

    (D)

    Solution

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 4 English Explanation

    Q.39

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 6 EnglishChoose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    (B)

    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    (C)

    A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

    (D)

    A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

    (B)

    Solution

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 6 English Explanation 1

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 6 English Explanation 2

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 6 English Explanation 3

    Q.40

    In a test tube containing a salt, a few drops of dilute was added, which gave colourless vapours having the smell of vinegar. The vapours turned the blue litmus paper red.

    Identify the correct anion from the following :

    (A)

    Sulphide,

    (B)

    Sulphate,

    (C)

    Acetate,

    (D)

    Carbonate,

    (C)

    Solution

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Question 5 English Explanation

    Q.41

    Select the reagents that reduce nitriles to primary amines.

    A. (i) ; (ii)

    B.

    C.

    D.

    E.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    (A)

    B, D and E only

    (B)

    A, C and D only

    (C)

    A, D and E only

    (D)

    A, B and C only

    (B)

    Solution

    Q.42

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 4 English

    and , respectively, are :

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (A)

    Solution

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 4 English Explanation

    Q.43

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 6 EnglishThe suitable method that can be used for the separation of products X and Y is :

    (A)

    Fractional distillation

    (B)

    Sublimation

    (C)

    Differential extraction

    (D)

    Continuous extraction

    (A)

    Solution

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 6 English Explanation

    The ortho and para isomers are separated by fractional distillation under reduced pressure.

    o-isomer, (M.P. , B.P. )

    p-isomer, (M.P. , B.P. )

    Q.44

    The major product Z formed in the following sequence of reactions is

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 5 English
    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (C)

    Solution

    NEET 2026 Chemistry - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 5 English Explanation

    Q.45

    The correct statement with regard to the secondary structure of DNA/RNA is

    (A)

    RNA possesses a single strand helix structure and contains thymine as one of the four bases

    (B)

    DNA possesses a double strand helix structure and contains thymine as one of the four bases

    (C)

    RNA possesses a double strand helix structure and contains uracil as one of the four bases

    (D)

    DNA possesses a single strand helix structure and contains uracil as one of the four bases

    (B)

    Solution

    • RNA is typically single standard but it contains uracil, not thymine.

    • DNA is secondary structure has a double strand helix consisting of two polynucleotide chains. Its four nitrogenous bases are adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C) and thymine (T).

    Biology (Maximum Marks: 360)
    • This section contains 90 questions.
    • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
    • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
    • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
    • Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
    Q.1

    Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis?

    (A)

    Centrosome

    (B)

    Chromatin

    (C)

    Nucleolus

    (D)

    Kinetochore

    (C)

    Solution

    Nucleolus is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
    Q.2

    Non-membrane bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are .

    (A)

    Ribosomes

    (B)

    Lysosomes

    (C)

    Centrosomes

    (D)

    Mitochondria

    (A)

    Solution

    Ribosome is a non-membrane bound cell organelle, found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

    Q.3

    Choose the correct statements regarding cell organelles and their inclusions.

    A. The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria.

    B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface.

    C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA.

    D. A network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton.

    E. Mitochondrion is a single membrane-bound structure.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    A and B only

    (B)

    A, B and C only

    (C)

    C, D and E only

    (D)

    B, C and D only

    (D)

    Solution

    The endomembrane system does not include mitochondria. Mitochondria is a double membrane bound cell organelle.

    Q.4

    Select the correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cell.

    A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately protein.

    B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer.

    C. Extensions of the plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes.

    D. Tails towards the inner part of lipids are hydrophobic and thus protected from aqueous medium.

    E. Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    C, D and E only

    (B)

    B, C and E only

    (C)

    A, B and D only

    (D)

    A, C and E only

    (C)

    Solution

    In prokaryotes, extensions of plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes. Eukaryotes lack such structure.

    • Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane in prokaryotes. Eukaryotes do not have glycocalyx.

    Hence, only statement A, B and D are correct.

    Q.5

    Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure?

    (A)

    Secondary structure

    (B)

    Tertiary structure

    (C)

    Primary structure

    (D)

    Quaternary structure

    (A)

    Solution

    Alpha-helix is shown by secondary structure of protein as it has right handed helices.

    Primary structure is linear and tertiary structure is a hollow ball-like structure. Quaternary structures are formed by more than one polypeptide chains.

    Q.6

    Identify the correct statements about biomolecules.

    A. Lipids are generally water soluble.

    B. Proteins are polypeptides.

    C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars.

    D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines.

    E. Almost all enzymes are proteins.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    B, D and E only

    (B)

    B, C and E only

    (C)

    A, B and C only

    (D)

    C, D and E only

    (B)

    Solution

    Statements B, C and E are correct.

    Statements A and D are not true.

    Lipids are not water soluble. Adenine and guanine are substituted purines.

    Q.7

    Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids?

    A. They are substituted methanes.

    B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid.

    C. Valine is a neutral amino acid.

    D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    C and D only

    (B)

    B and C only

    (C)

    A and C only

    (D)

    A and B only

    (C)

    Solution

    Statements A and C are correct while statements B and D are incorrect. Serine is an alcoholic amino acid and lysine is a basic amino acid.

    Q.8


    A. Trypsin I. Intercellular ground substance
    B. Morphine II. Lectin
    C. Concanavalin A III. Enzyme
    D. Collagen IV. Alkaloid
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A)

    A-III, B-IV. C-II, D-I

    (B)

    A-I, B-II. C-III, D-IV

    (C)

    A-IV, B-III. C-II, D-I

    (D)

    A-III, B-II. C-IV, D-I

    (A)

    Solution

    • Trypsin is a proteolytic enzyme.

    • Morphine is a secondary metabolite that belongs to the category of alkaloid.

    • Concanavalin A is a lectin.

    • Collagen acts as an intercellular ground substance.

    Q.9

    The following reaction depicts the activity of a particular class of enzymes :

    NEET 2026 Biology - Biomolecules Question 3 English

    Identify the enzymes class ' ' from the following options :

    (A)

    Transferases

    (B)

    Isomerases

    (C)

    Lyases

    (D)

    Ligases

    (C)

    Solution

    Lyases are the enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds.

    • Transferases are the enzymes that catalyse a transfer of a group between a pair of substrates.

    • Isomerases catalyse inter-conversion of optical, geometric or positional isomers.

    • Ligases catalyse the linking together of 2 compounds.

    Q.10

    List-I
    (Phase of cell cycle)
    List-II
    (Activity)
    A. phase I. Actual cell division occurs
    B. S phase II. Cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA
    C. Phase III. Synthesis of DNA occurs and the amount of DNA per cell doubles
    D. M phase IV. Proteins are synthesized while cell growth continues

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    (B)

    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    (C)

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    (D)

    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    (D)

    Solution

    During phase the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA. S-phase marks the phase during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place and amount of DNA per cell doubles.

    During the phase, proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis while cell growth continues.

    During M phase the actual cell division takes place.

    Q.11

    Arrange the following in the correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis :

    A. Microspore tetrads

    B. Sporogenous tissue

    C. Pollen grains

    D. Pollen mother cells

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (B)

    Solution

    The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell (PMC) through meiosis is called microsporogenesis.

    The correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis will be -

    Sporogenous tissue Pollen mother cell Microspore tetrads Pollen grains

    Q.12

    Which one of the following is a triploid cell?

    (A)

    Synergid

    (B)

    Central cell

    (C)

    Zygote

    (D)

    Primary endosperm cell

    (D)

    Solution

    Synergid is haploid, Zygote is diploid, Central cell initially contains two polar nuclei which fuse just before fertilization to form a secondary nucleus .

    Primary endosperm cell (PEC) is triploid.

    Q.13

    Which one of the following types of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?

    (A)

    Autogamy

    (B)

    Xenogamy

    (C)

    Geitonogamy

    (D)

    Cleistogamy

    (B)

    Solution

    Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of a different plant is known as Xenogamy. This is the only type of pollination which brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma. Cleistogamy flowers are invariably autogamous.

    Q.14



    A. Streptokinase I. Immunosuppressive agent
    B. Statins II. Removal of clots from the blood vessels
    C. Lipases III. Blood cholesterol-lowering agent
    D. Cyclosporin A IV. Detergent formulations
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (A)

    A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    (B)

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    (C)

    A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

    (D)

    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    (D)

    Solution

    Streptokinase → Used as 'clot buster' for removing clots from the blood vessels

    Statins → Blood cholesterol lowering agent, produced by Monascus purpureus

    Lipases → Used in detergent formulation

    Cyclosporin A → Used as immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant patients and produced by Trichoderma polysporum

    Q.15

    What is the reason behind production of large holes in 'Swiss Cheese'?

    (A)

    The production of large amount of by Propionibacterium sharmanii

    (B)

    The production of large amount of by Clostridium butylicum

    (C)

    The production of large amount of and by lactic acid bacteria called Lactobacillus

    (D)

    The production of large amount of and by Trichoderma polysporum

    (A)

    Solution

    The large holes in swiss cheese are due to production of large amount of by the bacterium Propionibacterium sharmanii.

    • Clostridium butylicum is commercially utilised for butyric acid production.

    • Curd is formed by Lactobacillus.

    Q.16

    The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is :

    (A)

    to make the leaf impermeable to fungal spores.

    (B)

    to transport water.

    (C)

    to perform photosynthesis.

    (D)

    to minimize water loss during water stress.

    (D)

    Solution

    Bulliform cells are large empty colourless cells that lose water and become flaccid in water scarce condition. Hence they curl the leaf inwards to minimise water loss by reducing the exposed surface area.

    Q.17

    List-I
    (Phase of cell cycle)
    List-II
    (Activity)
    A. Conjunctive tissue I. Specialised cells in the vicinity of guard cells
    B. Casparian strips II. Endodermal cells rich in starch
    C. Subsidiary cells III. Tissue between xylem and phloem
    D. Starch sheath IV. Endodermal cells with suberin deposition
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A)

    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    (B)

    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    (C)

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    (D)

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    (C)

    Solution

    (A) Conjunctive tissue is the tissue between xylem and phloem.

    (B) Casparian strips are found in endodermal cells, they are suberin depositions in the cell wall.

    (C) Subsidiary cells are specialised cells in the vicinity of guard cells.

    (D) Starch sheath is another name for endodermal cells rich in starch.

    Q.18

    The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of a biomolecule used for respiration, as per the above equation would be :

    (A)

    Between 0.5 and 0.95

    (B)

    Less than 0.5

    (C)

    1.0

    (D)

    Between 1.25 and 2

    (A)

    Solution

    As per the given equation,

    Hence the RQ can be calculated as,

    This value lies between 0.5 and 0.95 .

    Q.19



    A. Glycolysis I. Inner mitochondrial membrane
    B. ETS II. Mitochondrial matrix
    C. Accumulation of protons III. Cytoplasm
    D. Krebs' cycle IV. Intermembrane space
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (A)

    A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

    (B)

    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    (C)

    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    (D)

    A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

    (C)

    Solution

    The site of glycolysis is the cytoplasm in all living organisms. Electron transport system is localized in inner mitochondrial membrane. Accumulation of protons occur in intermembrane space and Kreb's Cycle takes place in mitochondrial matrix.

    Q.20

    A. Genetically modified organism I. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
    B. Thermostable DNA polymerase II. Bt cotton
    C. Ti plasmid III. Thermus aquaticus
    D. pBR322 IV. Escherichia coli
    (A)

    A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    (B)

    A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    (C)

    A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

    (D)

    A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

    (A)

    Solution

    Genetically modified organism - Bt cotton

    Thermostable DNA polymerase - Thermus aquaticus.

    Ti plasmid - Agrobacterium tumefaciens

    pBR322 - Escherichia coli

    Q.21

    Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction :

    (A)

    Extension → Annealing → Denaturation

    (B)

    Annealing → Denaturation → Extension

    (C)

    Denaturation → Extension → Annealing

    (D)

    Denaturation → Annealing → Extension

    (D)

    Solution

    The correct sequence of steps in PCR is

    Denaturation → Annealing → Extension

    Q.22

    Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases?

    A. They are called molecular scissors.

    B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E. coli.

    C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites.

    D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments.

    E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences.

    Choose the answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    A and B only

    (B)

    A and E only

    (C)

    D and E only

    (D)

    C and D only

    (D)

    Solution

    Statements C and D are incorrect. Restriction endonucleases usually cut the DNA slightly away from the centre of palindrome sites. They cannot remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA fragment, which is function of restriction exonuclease.

    Q.23

    Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization?

    A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors.

    B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis.

    C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light.

    D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    B and D only

    (B)

    A and B only

    (C)

    B and C only

    (D)

    A and D only

    (B)

    Solution

    The cutting of DNA is possible by the use of restriction enzymes that results in the fragments of DNA. These fragments of DNA can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel.

    The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with a compound known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation.

    Q.24

    Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E.coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:

    (A)

    Ampicillin and tetracycline

    (B)

    Ampicillin

    (C)

    Tetracycline

    (D)

    Gentamycin

    (C)

    Solution

    If one ligate a foreign DNA at the BamHI site of tetracycline resistance gene in the vector pBR322, the recombinant plasmid will lose tetracycline resistance due to insertion of foreign DNA.

    Q.25

    Exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is called

    (A)

    Biofortification

    (B)

    Bioremediation

    (C)

    Bioprospecting

    (D)

    Biomagnification

    (C)

    Solution

    Exploring molecular, genetic and species - level diversity for products of economic importance is called as bioprospecting.

    Q.26

    Since the origin and diversification of life on Earth, there have been five episodes of mass extinction of species. How is the sixth extinction, which is in progress, different from the previous episodes?

    (A)

    The present net species extinction rate is zero.

    (B)

    The current species extinction rate is nearly 10 times faster than in previous episodes.

    (C)

    The present species extinction rates are 100 to 1000 times faster than in the pre-human times.

    (D)

    The current species extinction rates are far lower than those in previous episodes.

    (C)

    Solution

    The current, sixth episode of mass extinction is estimated to be 100 to 1000 times faster than the ones in the pre-human times and our activities are responsible for the faster rates.

    Q.27

    Which of the following statements are correct?

    A. The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss.

    B. Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans.

    C. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped in population growth of cichlid fish in the lake.

    D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species.

    E. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    A, B and E only

    (B)

    A, B and D only

    (C)

    C, D and E only

    (D)

    B, C and D only

    (B)

    Solution

    The Nile Perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa led eventually to extinction of an ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the lake.

    When a species become extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an obligatory way also become, extinct.

    Statements, A, B and D are correct.

    Q.28

    Which of the following is an in situ conservation method?

    (A)

    Sacred Groves

    (B)

    Wildlife Safari Parks

    (C)

    Botanical Gardens

    (D)

    Seed Banks

    (A)

    Solution

    The correct answer is Option A: Sacred Groves.

    In situ conservation means conserving plants and animals in their natural habitat, where they normally live.

    Sacred groves are patches of natural forest protected by local communities because of religious or cultural beliefs. Since the species are protected in their original natural surroundings, sacred groves are an example of in situ conservation.

    Wildlife safari parks, botanical gardens, and seed banks are examples of ex situ conservation, where organisms or their parts are conserved outside their natural habitat.

    Q.29

    "The Evil Quartet" of biodiversity loss includes which of the following?

    (A)

    Over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Air pollution; Co-extinctions

    (B)

    Habitat loss and fragmentation; Air pollution; Water pollution; Co-extinctions

    (C)

    Habitat loss and fragmentation; over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Co-extinctions

    (D)

    Over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Soil pollution; Co-extinctions

    (C)

    Solution

    'The Evil Quartet' is the Sobriquet used to describe the four major causes of biodiversity loss which includes Habitat loss and fragmentation, over-exploitation; Alien species invasions and Co-extinctions.

    Q.30

    Which one of the following statements is not true about the universal rules of binomial nomenclature?

    (A)

    Biological names are generally in Latin

    (B)

    Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, are separately underlined or printed in italics

    (C)

    The specific epithet in the biologial name starts with a small letter

    (D)

    The first word in the biological name represents the specific epithet, while the second component denotes the genus

    (D)

    Solution

    According to universal rules of nomenclature, the first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter with the second components denotes the specific epithet and starts with small letter.

    Q.31

    The main criteria used for Five Kingdom Classification proposed By R.H. Whittaker (1969) included :

    A. Cell structure

    B. Body organization

    C. Presence of flagellum

    D. Reproduction

    E. Phylogenetic relationships

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    A, B, C, D and E

    (B)

    B, C and D only

    (C)

    A, B, D and E only

    (D)

    A, B and E only

    (C)

    Solution

    The main criteria for five kingdom classification used by (R.H. Whittaker) includes cell structure, body organization, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationships.

    Q.32

    In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root?

    (A)

    The root cap zone

    (B)

    The region of meristematic activity

    (C)

    The region of elongation

    (D)

    The region of maturation

    (D)

    Solution

    Sol. From the region of maturation, some epidermal cells form very fine and delicate, thread like structures called root hairs.

    Q.33

    (A)

    NEET 2026 Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 4 English Option 1

    (B)

    NEET 2026 Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 4 English Option 2

    (C)

    NEET 2026 Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 4 English Option 3

    (D)

    NEET 2026 Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 4 English Option 4

    (B)

    Solution

    NEET 2026 Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 4 English Explanation

    Is the floral formula for Solanaceae.

    It shows actinomorphic, bisexual, pentamerous flower with epipetalous condition

    Generally in Solanaceae, calyx (K) and Corolla (C) shows fusion in sepals and petals respectively.

    Hence the floral formula must exhibit gamosepalous and gamopetalous condition.

    Q.34

    In racemose inflorescence, .

    (A)

    The main axis terminates in a flower

    (B)

    Flowers are solitary

    (C)

    The growth is limited

    (D)

    Flowers are borne in an acropetal succession

    (D)

    Solution

    In racemose type of inflorescence, the main axis continues to grow and the flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal succession. On the contrary, in cymose type of inflorescence, the main axis terminates into a flower and hence, is limited in growth.

    Q.35

    List I
    (Placentation)

    A. Marginal I. Mustard
    B. Axile II. Pea
    C. Parietal III. Marigold
    D. Basal IV. Lemon
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A)

    A-II, B-IV. C-I, D-III

    (B)

    A-I, B-III. C-II, D-IV

    (C)

    A-III, B-I. C-IV, D-II

    (D)

    A-IV, B-II. C-I, D-III

    (A)

    Solution

    Marginal placentation is found in pea, axile placentation is found in lemon, parietal placentation is found in mustard and basal placentation is found in marigold.

    Q.36

    Find the incorrect statement(s) about photosynthesis from the following:

    A. The water splitting complex is associated with PSI.

    B. plants use the pathway of fixation as the main biosynthetic pathway.

    C. In plants, photorespiration does not occur.

    D. plants exhibit 'Kranz' anatomy.

    E. ATP synthesis in chloroplast occurs through chemiosmosis.

    Choose the answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    B and C only

    (B)

    B only

    (C)

    B and E only

    (D)

    A and D only

    (D)

    Solution

    The water splitting complex is associated with PS-II. pathway is the main biosynthetic pathway for fixation in both and plants.

    plants do not exhibit 'kranz' anatomy.

    ATP synthesis in chloroplast (Photophosphorylation) occurs by chemiosmosis.

    Q.37

    The enzyme required for carboxylation in the Calvin cycle is

    (A)

    Hexokinase

    (B)

    PEP carboxylase

    (C)

    RuBP carboxylase - oxygenase

    (D)

    Carboxypeptidase

    (C)

    Solution

    RuBisCO (RuBP carboxylase -oxygenase) is the enzyme required for carboxylation in the calvin cycle.

    Q.38

    How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway?

    (A)

    18 ATP and 12 NADPH

    (B)

    12 ATP and 18 NADPH

    (C)

    24 ATP and 18 NADPH

    (D)

    6 ATP and 12 NADPH

    (A)

    Solution

    Each turn of Calvin pathway utilizes 3ATP and NADPH molecules for fixation of molecule.

    So for 1 Glucose 6 turns are required, hence 18 ATP and are required for glucose synthesis.

    Q.39

    List-I
    (Phase of cell cycle)
    List-II
    (Activity)
    A. Incomplete dominance I. Human skin colour
    B. Co-dominance II. Inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum sp.
    C. Pleiotropy III. Phenylketonuria disease in humans
    D. Polygenic inheritance IV. ABO blood groups

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

    (B)

    A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

    (C)

    A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

    (D)

    A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

    (A)

    Solution

    Inheritance of flower colour in snapdragon (Antirrhinum sp.) is an example of incomplete dominance.

    ABO blood groups exhibit codominance in case of individuals having AB blood group ( )

    Phenylketonuria in humans is an example of pleiotropy since the gene responsible for it leads to multiple phenotypic effects.

    Human skin colour is controlled by three pairs of non allelic genes, hence it is an example of polygenic inheritance.

    Q.40

    Which of the following statements are true with reference to the sex-determination in honeybees?

    A. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and an egg, develops as a female (queen or worker).

    B. An unfertilized egg develops as a male by parthenogenesis.

    C. A male has half the number of chromosomes than that of a female.

    D. Males produce sperms by meiosis.

    E. Honeybees have a haplodiploid sex-determination system.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    A, B, C and E only

    (B)

    B, C, D and E only

    (C)

    A, B, C and D only

    (D)

    A, B, D and E only

    (A)

    Solution

    In case of honeybees, males have half the number of chromosomes than that of females. The females are diploid, having 32 chromosomes and males are haploid, i.e., having 16 chromosomes. This is called as haplodiploid sex-determination system and has special characteristic features, such as, the males produce sperms by mitosis.

    Q.41

    Which one of the following disorders is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule?

    (A)

    Thalassemia

    (B)

    Sickle-cell anaemia

    (C)

    Phenylketonuria

    (D)

    Haemophilia

    (B)

    Solution

    Sickle cell anaemia is an autosome linked recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to offsprings when both partners are carrier for the gene. The defect is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at sixth position of beta globin chain of haemoglobin molecule.

    Q.42

    What is the probability of having children with 'O' blood group, where both mother and father are heterozygous for ' ' and ' ' blood group, respectively?

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (A)

    Solution

    NEET 2026 Biology - Principles of Inheritance and Variation Question 4 English Explanation Out of four children, one is with blood group ' O '.

    ∴ The probability of having children with 'O' blood group will be

    Q.43

    In a population of a grasshopper species, the chromosome number of some members is 23 and some other members possess 24 chromosomes. The 23 and 24 chromosome-bearing members in this species are .

    (A)

    females and males, respectively

    (B)

    all males

    (C)

    males and females, respectively

    (D)

    all females

    (C)

    Solution

    In grasshopper sex determination is type, in which, males have only one X -chromosome besides the autosome (XO), whereas females have a pair of X-chromosome, besides autosomes (XX).

    Therefore, the individual with 23 chromosomes is a male grasshopper and the one with 24 chromosomes is a female grasshopper.

    Q.44

    In the lac operon, the gene codes for

    (A)

    permease

    (B)

    transacetylase

    (C)

    beta-galactosidase

    (D)

    the repressor of lac operon

    (C)

    Solution

    In lac operon,

    gene codes for - regulator protein

    gene codes for - beta-galactosidase

    gene codes for - Permease

    a gene codes for - transacetylase

    Q.45

    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit?

    A. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions : promoter, structural gene and terminator.

    B. The promoter is said to be located towards the 5'-end of the structural gene.

    C. The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase.

    D. The promoter defines the template and coding strands.

    E. The terminator is located towards the -end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    A, B, C and D only

    (B)

    A, C, D and E only

    (C)

    B, C, D and E only

    (D)

    A, B, C, D and E

    (D)

    Solution

    The promoter and terminator flank the structural gene in a transcription unit.

    The promoter is said to be located towards 5'-end of the structural gene.

    It is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase and it is the presence of promoter in a transcription unit that also defines the template and coding strands.

    The terminator is located towards 3 '-end of the coding strand and it usually defines the end of transcription.

    Q.46

    Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in a correct sequence.

    A. Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonucleases.

    B. Hybridisation using a labelled VNTR probe.

    C. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes.

    D. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.

    E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (C)

    Solution

    The following is the correct sequence of steps of DNA fingerprinting.

    A. Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonuclease.

    B. Probes made complementary to the VNTR locus are allowed to hybridise with the DNA fragments.

    C. The separated DNA fragments are transferred to synthetic membranes made of nylon or nitrocellulose.

    D. Finally, the hybridised DNA fragments are detected under X-rays in a technique called autoradiography.

    E. DNA fragments are separated based on their size by the technique of gel electrophoresis.

    Q.47

    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to packaging of DNA helix ?

    A. Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer.

    B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins.

    C. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues - lysine and arginine.

    D. The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome.

    E. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires an additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    A, C and E only

    (B)

    B, D and E only

    (C)

    C, D and E only

    (D)

    A, B and D only

    (A)

    Solution

    Eight Histones are combined to form a histone octamer. Histones are positively charged basic proteins that are rich in basic amino acids (lysine and arginine). The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels require NHC (non histone chromosomal) proteins.

    Q.48

    The sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene causing polymerization of Haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is

    (A)

    GUG

    (B)

    AUG

    (C)

    GAG

    (D)

    CAG

    (A)

    Solution

    Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder which is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid by Valine, at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule. The substitution of amino acid in the globin protein results due to the single base substitution from GAG to GUG. Hence, GUG is responsible for the change in the shape of RBC.

    Q.49

    Arrange the following steps of somatic hybridisation in a correct sequence.

    A. Digestion of cell walls.

    B. Isolation of naked protoplasts.

    C. Fusion of protoplasts to get hybrid protoplast.

    D. Isolation of single cells from two different varieites of plants.

    E. Growing of hybrid protoplast to form a new plant.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    D, A, B, C, E

    (B)

    (C)

    D, B, A, E, C

    (D)

    (A)

    Solution

    Scientist have even isolated single cell protoplasts from two different varieties of plants each having a desirable character and after digesting their cell walls have been able to isolate naked protoplasts (surrounded by plasma membrane) that can be fused to get hybrid protoplast, which can be further grown to form a new plant. These hybrids are called somatic hybrids, while the process is called somatic hybridization.

    So the correct sequence for the formation of somatic hybrids is .

    Q.50

    The human protein named -1-antitrypsin, obtained from transgenic animals, is used for the treatment of .

    (A)

    Emphysema

    (B)

    Alzheimer's disease

    (C)

    Rheumatoid arthritis

    (D)

    Cystic fibrosis

    (A)

    Solution

    The human protein named -antitrypsin, obtained from transgenic animals, is used for the treatment of emphysema.

    Transgenic models exist for the study of other diseases, such as Alzheimer's disease, rheumatoid arthritis and cystic fibrosis.

    Q.51

    The toxin proteins isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis, coded by which of the following genes would contrl cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively?

    (A)

    cryIAc and cryIAb

    (B)

    crylAc and cryllAb

    (C)

    cryllAb and crylAc

    (D)

    cryIAc and cryIIIAb

    (A)

    Solution

    Specific Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and incorporated into the several crop plants such as cotton. The choice of genes depends upon the crop and the targeted pest, as most Bt toxins are insect-group specific. The toxin is coded by a gene named cry. The proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and cryIIAb control the cotton bollworms, that of cryIAb controls corn borer. So, the correct answer is crylAc for cotton bollworms and crylAb for corn borer that is represented in option (1)

    Q.52

    Which of the following equations depicts Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth?

    (A)

    .

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (B)

    Solution

    Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth is depicted by the equation

    Where

    • Carrying capacity

    • Intrinsic rate of natural increase

    • Population density at time 't'

    Q.53

    Which one of the following is an appropriate example of sexual deceit?

    (A)

    Female wasp and fig

    (B)

    Ophrys and bumblebee

    (C)

    Sea anemone and clown fish

    (D)

    Cuckoo and crow

    (B)

    Solution

    Female wasp and fig - Mutualism

    Ophrys and bumblebee - Sexual deceit

    Sea anemone and clown fish - Commensalism

    Cuckoo and crow - Brood Parasitism

    Q.54

    Choose the correct statements regarding population interactions between two species.

    A. In both parasitism and commensalism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed.

    B. Both species benefit in mutualism.

    C. Both species benefit in commensalism.

    D. In parasitism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed.

    E. In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    B and E only

    (B)

    A and B only

    (C)

    B, D and E only

    (D)

    A and D only

    (C)

    Solution

    In parasitism, one species is benefitted and the other is harmed. Whereas, in commensalism one species gets benefitted and the other remains unaffected.

    Q.55

    In which one of the following, the ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall and remain exposed?

    (A)

    Funaria

    (B)

    Pinus

    (C)

    Selaginella

    (D)

    Wolffia

    (B)

    Solution

    The gymnosperms are plants in which the ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed, both before and after fertilisation.

    Pinus is a gymnosperm.

    Funaria is a moss.

    Selaginella is a pteridophyte.

    Q.56

    Which one of the following is not a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation?

    (A)

    New cell wall deposition

    (B)

    Cell enlargement

    (C)

    Increased vacuolation

    (D)

    Large conspicuous nuclei

    (D)

    Solution

    Phase of elongation is characterised by new cell wall deposition, increased vacuolation and enlargement of cell. Presence of large conspicuous nuclei is a feature of cells in the meristematic phase.

    Q.57

    List-I
    (Growth Regulator)
    List-II
    (Function/Effect)
    A. I. Brewing industry
    B. II. Stimulation of stomatal closure
    C. Kinetin III. Herbicide
    D. ABA IV. Nutrient mobilisation
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A)

    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    (B)

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    (C)

    A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

    (D)

    A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

    (A)

    Solution

    List-I
    (Growth Regulator)
    List-II
    (Function/Effect)
    A. 2,4-D (Auxin) I. Herbicide
    B. (Gibberellic Acid) II. Brewing industry
    C. Kinetin (Cytokinin) III. Nutrient mobilisation
    D. ABA (Abscisic Acid) IV. Stimulation of stomatal closure
    Q.58

    Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of which of the following phenomena?

    (A)

    Redifferentiation

    (B)

    Elasticity

    (C)

    Dedifferentiation

    (D)

    Plasticity

    (D)

    Solution

    Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called plasticity, e.g., heterophylly in cotton, coriander and larkspur.

    Q.59

    A. Productivity I. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses
    B. Net primary productivity II. Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers
    C. Gross primary productivity III. Rate of biomass production
    D. Secondary productivity IV. Rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A)

    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    (B)

    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    (C)

    A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

    (D)

    A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    (A)

    Solution

    Productivity is the rate of biomass production.

    Net primary productivity is the Gross primary productivity (GPP) minus respiration losses (R). Gross primary productivity is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.

    Q.60

    List-I
    (Phase of cell cycle)
    List-II
    (Activity)
    A. Decomposition I. Accumulation of dark coloured amorphous colloidal substance
    B. Detritus II. Release of inorganic nutrients by the activity of microbes in soil
    C. Mineralisation III. Breaking down of complex organic matter into inorganic substances.
    D. Humification IV. Dead remains of plants and animals including fecal matter
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (A)

    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    (B)

    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    (C)

    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    (D)

    A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    (B)

    Solution

    Decomposition is the process of breaking down of complex organic matter into inorganic substance. Detritus includes dead remains of plants and animals including fecal matter and acts as the raw material for decomposition.

    Degradation of humus by activity of microbes leading to release of inorganic nutrients is called Mineralisation.

    Accumulation of the dark coloured amorphous substance called humus, is called humification.

    Q.61

    Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between the organisms at different trophic levels and they are generally inverted for:

    (A)

    Pyramid of number in grassland

    (B)

    Pyramid of energy in pond ecosystem

    (C)

    Pyramid of biomass in grassland

    (D)

    Pyramid of biomass in sea

    (D)

    Solution

  • Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem is upright

  • Pyramid of energy in pond ecosystem is upright

  • Pyramid of biomass in grassland is upright

  • Pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted

  • Q.62

    The following are the stages of life cycle of Plasmodium. Arrange the stages in the proper order.

    A. The parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting the cells.

    B. The parasites reproduce asexually in liver cells, bursting the cells and releasing into blood.

    C. Gametocytes develop in RBCs.

    D. Sporozoites reach the liver through the blood.

    E. Female mosquito injects sporozoites into humans during bite.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (A)

    Solution

    Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito. The parasites initially multiply asexually within the liver cells and then attack the RBCs resulting in their rupture.

    • Sexual stages (gametocytes) develop in red blood cells.

    • When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, these parasites enter the mosquito's body and undergo further development.

    Q.63



    A. Nicotine I. Causes sense of euphoria and increased energy
    B. Morphine II. Stimulates adrenal gland to release catecholamines into blood circulation
    C. Heroin III. Effective sedative and painkiller
    D. Cocaine IV. A depressant; slows down body function
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (A)

    A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

    (B)

    A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    (C)

    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    (D)

    A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    (C)

    Solution

    Nicotine is present in tobacco and it activates adrenal medulla to release catecholamines into circulation, so (A) → II

    Morphine acts as an effective sedative and painkiller. It is an opioid, so III

    Heroin acts as a depressant and slows down body function, so (C) → IV

    Cocaine acts as a stimulant and causes a sense of euphoria and increased energy, so (D) → I

    Thus,

    Q.64

    The WBC count of a person's blood sample is . How many eosinophils and lymphocytes would be in the same blood sample approximately?

    (A)

    and respectively

    (B)

    and respectively

    (C)

    and respectively

    (D)

    and respectively

    (B)

    Solution

    Eosinophils constitute of total WBCs. Hence its value is approximately 2 to of

    Lymphocytes constitute of total WBCs. Hence its value is approximately 20 to of

    Q.65

    Select the incorrect statement with reference to Rh grouping.

    A. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition observed having foetus with blood and mother with blood.

    B. Rh antigen is observed on RBCs in the majority of human beings.

    C. Before blood transfusion, Rh group should also be matched.

    D. Rh incompatibility is observed when a pregnant mother is and the foetus is .

    E. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the second child.

    Choose the answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    C and D only

    (B)

    A and B only

    (C)

    A and E only

    (D)

    B and C only

    (C)

    Solution

    (A) Incorrect → A special case of Rh incompatibility has been observed between the Rh-ve blood of a pregnant mother with blood of the foetus.

    (B) Correct → Rh antigen is observed on the surface of RBCs of majority (nearly 80 percent) of humans.

    (C) Correct → Before blood transfusion, Rh group should also be matched to avoid severe problems of destruction of RBCs.

    (D) Correct → Rh incompatibility (Erythroblastosis foetalis) is observed when a pregnant mother is and the foetus is .

    (E) Incorrect → Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first child.

    Thus, the incorrect statements are (A) and (E).

    Q.66

    Choose the correct statements regarding muscle contraction.

    A. A motor neuron carries a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre.

    B. The neural signal generates an action potential which causes the release of into sarcoplasm.

    C. Increase in inactivates the actin for breaking cross bridges.

    D. Actin binds to the myosin head to form a cross bridge.

    E. Shortening of sarcomere takes place, by pulling actin filaments towards the centre of ' A ' band.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    C and D only

    (B)

    A and B only

    (C)

    C and E only

    (D)

    A, B, D and E only

    (D)

    Solution

    Statements A, B, D and E are correct while statement C is incorrect.

    A neural signal reaching neuromuscular junction releases a neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine) which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. This spreads through muscle fibre and causes the release of into the sarcoplasm. This binds to the subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby remove the masking of active site for myosin on actin and hence facilitates the formation of cross bridge.

    Q.67

    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton?

    A. Human skull is monocondylic.

    B. The joint between any two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint.

    C. In human beings, the number of cervical vertebrae is seven.

    D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic.

    E. The occipital bone of skull is articulated with atlas vertebra.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    B and E only

    (B)

    B, C and E only

    (C)

    C, D and E only

    (D)

    A, B and D only

    (B)

    Solution

    (A) Incorrect : Human skull is dicondylic. The skull region articulates with the superior region of the vertebral column (Atlas) with the help of two occipital condyles.

    (B) Correct : The joint present between the adjacent vertebrae of vertebral column is cartilaginous joints.

    (C) Correct : There are 7 cervical vertebrae in human beings.

    (D) Incorrect : All ribs of humans are bicephalic, i.e., they have two articulation surfaces on their dorsal end.

    (E) Correct : The occipital bone of the skull articultes with the atlas vertebra via occipital condyles, forming the atlanto-occiptal joint.

    Q.68



    A. Tetany I. Inflammation of joints
    B. Arthritis II. Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction
    C. Myasthenia gravis III. Wild contraction in muscle due to low in body fluid
    D. Muscular dystrophy IV. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (A)

    A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    (B)

    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    (C)

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    (D)

    A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    (A)

    Solution

    • Arthritis is an inflammation of joints.

    • Tetany is rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle due to low in body fluids.

    • Muscular dystrophy is progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic disorder

    • Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.

    Hence, A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV is the correct match.

    Q.69

    The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on .

    (A)

    Schwann cell

    (B)

    Pre-synaptic membrane

    (C)

    Myelin sheath

    (D)

    Post-synaptic membrane

    (D)

    Solution

    The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on post-synaptic membrane.

    Q.70

    In which animal do haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes?

    (A)

    Male honeybees

    (B)

    Male earthworms

    (C)

    Male frogs

    (D)

    Male grasshoppers

    (A)

    Solution

    The male honeybee is haploid and females are diploid. The gamete formation in female honey bee is by meiosis, whereas male honeybee form gametes by mitosis. Thus haploid cell undergoes mitosis in male honeybees.

    Q.71

    List-I
    List-II
    A. Progestasert I. Barrier made of rubber used by females
    B. Multiload 375 II. Oral contraceptive
    C. Diaphragm III. Hormone releasing IUD
    D. Saheli IV. Copper releasing IUD

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (A)

    Solution

    Progestasert - Hormone releasing IUD

    Multiload 375 - Copper releasing IUD

    Diaphragm - Barrier made of rubber used by females

    Saheli - Oral contraceptive

    Q.72

    Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT to overcome infertility.

    (A)

    Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the uterus of an infertile female.

    (B)

    Early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred to the uterus of an infertile female.

    (C)

    Early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube of an infertile female.

    (D)

    It is the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot

    (D)

    Solution

    produce ovum but can provide suitable envoronment for fertilization and development.

    GIFT is an in-vivo technique used to assist infertility

    GIFT: Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer technique facilitates the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one, but can provide suitable environment for fertilization and further development.

    ZIFT : Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer is an in-vitro technique in which zygote or early embryo upto 8 blastomeres is transferred in fallopian tube.

    Q.73

    Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of

    A. Bulging eyes

    B. Vocal sacs

    C. Webbed digits in feet

    D. Copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs

    E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below

    (A)

    B and C only

    (B)

    and only

    (C)

    A and B only

    (D)

    B and D only

    (D)

    Solution

    Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of vocal sacs and copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs.

    Bulging eyes, webbed digit in feet and olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots are common in both male and female frogs.

    Q.74

    Choose the correct statements regarding frog's anatomy:

    A. Hepatic portal system is the special venous connection between liver and intestine.

    B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.

    C. The ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca in female frogs.

    D. Hind-brain consists of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and optic lobes.

    E. Sinus venosus joins the right atrium of heart.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    A, B and C only

    (B)

    B and D only

    (C)

    B and C only

    (D)

    A, C and E only

    (D)

    Solution

    A. Correct → In frogs, the special venous connection between liver and intestine is called the hepatic portal system.

    B. Incorrect → There are ten pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain of frog.

    C. Correct → In female frogs, the uterus and oviduct open separately in the cloaca.

    D. Incorrect → In frogs, the midbrain consists of the optic lobes.

    • The hindbrain consists of cerebellum, and medulla oblongata.

    E. Correct → In frogs, a triangular structure called sinus venosus joins the right atrium.

    Thus, correct statements are (A), (C) and (E)

    Q.75

    Arrange the following events occuring in Renin-Angiotensin mechanism in the correct order:

    A. Increase in blood pressure and Glomerular filtration rate

    B. Reabsorption of and water from distal parts of tubule due to Aldosterone

    C. Fall in Glomerular filtration rate

    D. Vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone.

    E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I, followed by Angiotensin II.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (D)

    Solution

    The JGA plays a complex regulatory role

    • A fall in glomerular blood flow/GFR can activate the JG cells to release renin which converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin I and further to angiotensin II

    • Angiotensin II, being a powerful vasoconstrictor, increases the glomerular blood pressure and thereby GFR.

    • Angiotensin II activates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.

    • Aldosterone causes reabsorption of and from the distal parts of the tubule. This leads to an increase in blood pressure and GFR.

    Q.76

    The JGA (Juxta Glomerular Apparatus) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in

    related to the same nephron.

    (A)

    Distal convoluted tubule and efferent renal arteriole

    (B)

    Proximal convoluted tubule and efferent renal arteriole

    (C)

    Proximal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole

    (D)

    Distal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole

    (D)

    Solution

    JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in the distal convoluted tubule and the afferent arteriole at the location of their contact.

    Q.77


    A. Cortisol I. Stimulates the formation of alveoli in mammary glands
    B. Aldosterone II. Produces anti-inflammatory reactions
    C. Cholecystokinin III. Stimulates reabsorption of and water from renal tubule
    D. Progesterone IV. Stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (A)

    A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

    (B)

    A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

    (C)

    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    (D)

    A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    (C)

    Solution

    • Cortisol produces anti-inflammatory reactions and suppresses the immune response.

    • Aldosterone acts mainly at the renal tubules and stimulates the reabsorption of and water and excretion of and phosphate ions.

    • Cholecystokinin (CCK) acts on both pancreas and gall bladder and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice, respectively.

    • Progesterone acts on the mammary glands and stimulates the formation of alveoli.

    Q.78

    Spermatogonia undergo a series of cell divisions statements to produce sperms. Select the correct from the following :

    A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division.

    B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes.

    C. Secondary spermatocytes, through their second meiotic division, produce haploid spermatids.

    D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis.

    E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    A and E only

    (B)

    C and E only

    (C)

    A, C and E only

    (D)

    B, C and D only

    (B)

    Solution

    (A) Incorrect : Spermatogonia undergo mitotic differentiation.

    (B) Incorrect : Primary spermatocytes undergo meiotic division to form secondary spermatocytes.

    (C) Correct : Secondary spermatocytes undergo meiotic division to form the haploid spermatids.

    (D) Incorrect : Spermatids form spermatozoa through a differentiation process called spermiogenesis.

    (E) Correct : Spermatids produce spermatozoa via spermiogenesis.

    Thus, the correct statements are (C) and (E) only.

    Q.79



    A. The foetus movement starts and hair appears on the head I. 24 weeks of pregnancy
    B. The foetus develops limbs and digits II. 20 weeks of pregnancy
    C. The foetus develops external genital organs III. 8 weeks of pregnancy
    D. The foetus body is covered with fine hair; eyelids separate and eyelashes are formed IV. 12 weeks of pregnancy

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

    (B)

    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    (C)

    A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

    (D)

    A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

    (B)

    Solution

    • By the end of second month of pregnancy ( 8 weeks), the foetus develops limbs and digits

    • By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester) of pregnancy, most of the major organ system are formed. The limbs and external genital organs are also well developed.

    • During the fifth month ( 20 weeks) of pregnancy, the first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed.

    • By the end of about 24 weeks (ends of second trimester) of pregnancy, the body is covered with fine hair, eye lids separate and eyelashes are formed.

    So, the correct match is A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Q.80

    Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete, from outer to inner side :

    A. Zona pellucida

    B. Perivitelline space

    C. Corona radiata

    D. Plasma membrane of ovum

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (C)

    Solution

    The cell layer/structure around the female gamete from outer to inner side is : Corona radiata → zona pellucida → perivitelline space → plasma membrane of ovum.

    So the correct answer is .

    NEET 2026 Biology - Human Reproduction Question 6 English Explanation
    Q.81

    A group of researchers procured some fish like animals and upon investigation the following characters were observed:

    A. Endoskeleton was made of cartilage.

    B. Ectoparasitic; as they were found attached on fish skin with their circular sucking mouth.

    C. Paired fins and scales were absent, but 7 pairs of gill slits were present.

    Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters?

    (A)

    Scoliodon .

    (B)

    Petromyzon .

    (C)

    Exocoetus .

    (D)

    Branchiostoma sp.

    (B)

    Solution

    Petromyzon sp. have cartilaginous endoskeleton. They have circular sucking mouth. They are ectoparasites on some fishes. Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins. They have 7 pairs (6-15 pairs) of gill slits.

    Scoliodon and Exocoetus are not parasites.

    Q.82

    Select the set of fishes which belong to the class Osteichthyes:

    (A)

    Devil fish, Cuttlefish and Hagfish

    (B)

    Saw fish, Fighting fish and Dog fish

    (C)

    Starfish, Hagfish and Cuttlefish

    (D)

    Flying fish, Angel fish and Fighting fish

    (D)

    Solution

    Flying fish (Exocoetus) is a marine bony fish. Angel fish (Pterophyllum) and fighting fish (Betta) are aquarium bony fishes.

    Option (1) is incorrect as:-

    Devil fish (Octopus) and cuttlefish (Sepia) are molluscs.

    Hag fish (Myxine) is a cyclostome.

    Option (2) is incorrect as:-

    Saw fish (Pristis) and dog fish (Scoliodon) are cartilaginous fishes.

    Option (3) is incorrect as:-

    Star fish (Asterias) is an echinoderm.

    Q.83

    Select the incorrect statements from the following:

    A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete.

    B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of adult Echinoderms.

    C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes.

    D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in the class Chondrichthyes.

    E. Members of class Reptilia maintain a constant body temperature.

    Choose the answer from the options given below:

    (A)

    A and C only

    (B)

    B and E only

    (C)

    C and D only

    (D)

    B and D only

    (B)

    Solution

    (A) → correct → Platyhelminthes have an incomplete digestive system.

    (B) → incorrect → Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of larvae of echinoderms. In adult echinoderms, radial symmetry is seen.

    (C) → correct → Aschelminthes are characterised by the presence of pseudocoelom.

    (D) → correct → Notochord is persistent throughout life in the Chondrichthyes.

    (E) → incorrect → Reptiles are cold-blooded organisms and thus, they cannot maintain a constant body temperature.

    Warm-blooded organisms like birds and mammals can maintain a constant body temperature.

    Thus, as the incorrect statements are indicated by (B) and (E) only

    Q.84

    The flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is known as:

    (A)

    Struthio

    (B)

    Neophron

    (C)

    Aptenodytes

    (D)

    Psittacula

    (C)

    Solution

    Neophron is vulture and Psittacula is a parrot. Both perform flight.

    • Struthio is ostrich and Aptenodytes is penguin. Both are flightless birds.

    • In penguins, forelimbs are modified into flippers (paddle like structure) and are used for swimming. In ostriches, forelimbs are small and used for balance while running, not for swimming.

    Q.85

    In humans, respiration occurs in the following steps. Arrange these steps in the correct order.

    A. Diffusion of and between blood and tissues

    B. Diffusion of and across alveolar membrane

    C. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and rich alveolar air is released out

    D. Cellular respiration

    E. Transport of gases by the blood

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (C)

    Solution

    Respiration involves the following steps:

    (i) Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and rich alveolar air is released out.

    (ii) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane.

    (iii) Transport of gases by the blood

    (iv) Diffusion of and between blood and tissues

    (v) Utilisation of by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of

    Q.86

    List-I
    (Respiratory Volume)
    List-II
    (Capacity in mL )
    A. ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume) I.
    B. RV (Residual Volume) II.
    C. IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume) III.
    D. TV (Tidal Volume) IV.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    (A)

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    (B)

    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    (C)

    A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

    (D)

    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    (A)

    Solution

    ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume) - RV (Residual Volume) - IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume) - TV (Tidal Volume) - 500 mL

    Q.87



    A. Molluscs I. Pulmonary respiration only
    B. Reptiles II. Branchial respiration
    C. Adult amphibians III. Cellular respiration
    D. Amoeba IV. Pulmonary and cutaneous respiration
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (A)

    A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    (B)

    A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

    (C)

    A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

    (D)

    A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    (A)

    Solution

    (A) Molluscs → (II) Perform branchial respiration by using feather-like gills

    (B) Reptiles → (I) Perform pulmonary respiration only via lungs

    (C) Adult amphibians → (IV) Perform pulmonary and cutaneous respiration via lungs and moist skin, respectively

    (D) Amoeba → (III) Performs cellular respiration to generate ATP for survival

    Thus, (A) - II, (B) - I, (C) - IV, (D) - III

    Q.88

    Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution?

    (A)

    Flippers of penguins and dolphins

    (B)

    Eyes of octopuses and mammals

    (C)

    Fore limbs of whales and bats

    (D)

    Wings of butterflies and birds

    (C)

    Solution

    Fore limbs of whales and bats are examples of divergent evolution that show homology.

    Q.89

    List-I
    List-II
    A. About 65 mya I. Jawless fish probably evolved
    B. About 500 mya II. The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth
    C. About 350 mya III. Seaweeds and few plants probably existed
    D. About 320 mya IV. Invertebrates were formed and became active
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (D)

    Solution

    About 65 mya - The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth.

    About 500 mya - Invertebrates were formed and became active.

    About 350 mya - Jawless fish probably evolved.

    About 320 mya - Seaweeds and few plants probably existed.

    Q.90

    Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills. As such, the evolution of individual species in the sequence of their appearance is:

    (A)

    Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Neanderthal → Homo sapiens

    (B)

    Homo sapiens → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Neanderthal → Homo erectus

    (C)

    Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Ramapithecus → Neanderthal → Homo sapiens

    (D)

    Neanderthal → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens

    (A)

    Solution

    Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills.

    • The correct chronological order in which human evolution took place is :

    Ramapithecus → Australopithecines → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Neanderthalensis → Homo sapiens